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TMD > Sleep Apnea > Flashcards

Sleep Apnea Flashcards

1
Q

Infants need how much sleep?

A

16 hours

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2
Q

Teens need how much sleep?

A

9 hr

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3
Q

Adults need how much sleep?

A

7-8 hrs

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4
Q

Amount of sleep a night we got before the electric light bulb was invented.

A

10 hrs

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5
Q

Stage of sleep known as drowsiness, jerky movements.

A

Stage I sleep

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6
Q

This stage of sleep increases core and peripheral temperature, and relaxes muscles.

A

Autogenesis

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7
Q

Measures electrical activity at the surface of the brain.

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

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8
Q

The largest waves in an EEG.

A

Delta

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9
Q

Waves with the greatest frequency.

A

Beta

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10
Q

Sleep stage where there’s drowsiness and hypnic jerks.

A

Stage I

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11
Q

Waves in Stage I.

A

Alpha waves are replaced with Theta waves.

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12
Q

Stage I is what percent of Total Sleep Time?

A

5%

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13
Q

Need these for it to be Stage II sleep.

A

Spindles (assocaited with K complex).

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14
Q

Stage II sleep is what percent of total sleep time?

A

45

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15
Q

Stage II sleep does NOT have these characteristics:

A
  • No eye movement
  • Easily awake
  • Dreaming is rare
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16
Q

How does the sleep spindle look?

A

Bunch of zig zags.

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17
Q

How does the K complex look?

A

Like a QRST complex in an EKG.

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18
Q

This stage is deep sleep or slow wave sleep.

A

Stage III

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19
Q

This sleep stage has Delta waves.

A

Stage III

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20
Q

This sleep stage has Delta waves more than 20% of the time.

A

Stage III

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21
Q

More common to find _________ in stage III of NREM sleep, though not as common as in REM sleep.

A

Dreaming

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22
Q

This most commonly occurs in Stage III sleep.

A

Parasomnia

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23
Q

What is parasomnia?

A

Weird things that people do in their sleep, like sleep walking.

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24
Q

This stage has Slow Wave Sleep (SWS)

A

III

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25
Q

When your muscles are in a paralyzed relaxed state.

A

Atonia

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26
Q

This sleep stage has:

  • Rapid Eye movements
  • Muscle atonia
  • EEG desynchronization
A

REM

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27
Q

This sleep stage is AKA PARADOXICAL SLEEP because the brain activity is similar to that during waking hours.

A

REM

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28
Q

Considered the lightest stage of sleep, and normally occurs close to morning.

A

REM

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29
Q

A newborn baby spends more than 80% of total sleep time in this stage.

A

REM

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30
Q

NREM and REM cycles every….

A

90 minutes

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31
Q

In a sleep pattern, REM is at the ____ of the wave.

A

Top

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32
Q

In a sleep pattern, stage III is at the _____ of the wave.

A

Bottom

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33
Q

Not getting enough sleep makes you more sensitive to this.

A

Pain

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34
Q

These suppress slow wave sleep.

A

Marijuana and Benzos

35
Q

This suppresses REM early in the night.

A

Pre-sleep alcohol

36
Q

These suppress REM.

A

TCA’s and MAO Inhibitors

37
Q

Disorder where there’s an extreme tendency to fall asleep, esp. in relaxing settings.

A

Narcolespy

38
Q

The soft parts of the oropharyngeal walls vibrate during _____.

A

Snoring

39
Q

Simple snoring is what?

A

When it doesn’t wake you up.

40
Q

Higher pitched noise and frequency is what kind of snoring?

A

Pathological

41
Q

Heavy snoring increases the risk of this.

A

Carotid atherosclerosis

42
Q

UARS stands for.

A

Upper Airway Resistance Syndrome

43
Q

Has crescendo snoring.

A

UARS

44
Q

Associated with Respiratory Effort Related Arousals (RERA’s).

A

UARS

45
Q

Normally, it takes how many times longer to breathe in than out?

A

3

46
Q

In UARS, the time it takes to breathe in ____ the time it takes to breathe out.

A

equals

47
Q

Type of apnea where there’s no airflow, even though you’re trying to breathe.

A

Obstructive apnea

48
Q

Type of apnea where there’s no airflow bc there’s no breathing effort.

A

Central apnea

49
Q

GERD is a sign of what?

A

Obstructive sleep apnea

50
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A
  • Snoring- intermittent with pauses
  • excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
  • Awakenings with gasping or choking
  • Fragmented, non-refreshing, light sleep
  • Poor memory, clouded intellect
  • Irritability, personality changes
  • Decreased sex drive, impotence
  • Morning headaches
  • GERD
51
Q

Prevalence of OSA in men.

A

3-7%

52
Q

Prevalence of OSA in women

A

2-5%

53
Q

Prevalence of OSA in the US.

A

12 million

54
Q

This increases your chances of getting a myocardial infarction.

A

OSA

55
Q

When you stop breathing for at least 10 seconds.

A

Apnea

56
Q
  • At least 30% reduction in airflow
  • Stop breathing for at least 10 seconds
  • At least 4% reduction in blood oxygen.
A

Hypopnea

57
Q

The number of apnea and hypopnea events per hour of sleep.

A

AHI Index

58
Q

When you wake up bc your breathing is off.

A

RERA

Respiratory Effort Related Arousal

59
Q

RDI stands for…

A

Respiratory Disturbance Index

60
Q

RDI definition

A

Total number of apnea, hypopnea, and RERA’s per hour.

61
Q

RDI is always higher than what?

A

AHI

62
Q

Combination of central and obstructive apnea, with a central pattern evolving into an obstructive pattern.

A

Mixed Apnea

63
Q

What do you want the minimum blood oxygen to be?

A

Above 90%

64
Q

Sleep time where blood oxygen is below 90%.

A

T90

65
Q

A recording of nocturnal sleep with duration of at least 6 hours, which is performed for diagnostic or treatment purposes.

A

Nocturnal PSG

66
Q

Diagnostic study followed by application of a CPAP during the same night.

A

Split night PSG

67
Q

CPAP stands for:

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

68
Q

Where the patients report their sleepiness.

A

Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS)

69
Q

STOP-BANG questionnaires for assessing obstructive sleep apnea had the highest methodological quality.

What does STOP-BANG stand for?

A

Snoring
Tiredness
Observed apnea
Pressure (BP)

BMI
Age
Neck circumference
Gender

70
Q

Measures the cross-sectional area of the upper airway.

A

Pharyngometry

71
Q

First choice of tx for obstructive sleep apnea.

A

CPAP

72
Q

Procedure where polyester inserts stiffen the soft palate to stop snoring.

A

Pillar procedure

73
Q

UPPP

A

Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

74
Q

Procedure where you cut out the uvula and soft palate to stop OSA.

A

Uvulupalatopharyngoplasty

75
Q

UPPP is what percent successful?

A

40

76
Q

OAT stands for:

A

Oral Appliance Therapy

77
Q

OAT function

A

Stabilizes the mandible, tongue, and hyoid bone.

78
Q

First line therapy for patients with snoring or mild to moderate obstructive sleep apnea.

A

Oral appliances

79
Q

Can oral appliances be used for patients with SEVERE OSA, severe daytime sleepiness, or in patients who have very low oxygen saturation levels during sleep?

A

NO!

80
Q

Allows you to measure the amount of protrusion.

A

George Gage

81
Q

Oral appliances are less effective than what in improving sleep disordered breathing, and they take longer to achieve optimal treatment?

A

CPAP

82
Q

Oral Appliance Therapy Contraindications

A
  • Insufficient Dentition
  • Periodontal Disease
  • Dental Decay
  • TMJ Pain
  • Restricted mandibular opening or protrusion
83
Q

OAT Side Effects

A
  • Muscle and TMJ Pain
  • Excess Salivation
  • Early morning occlusal discomfort
  • Tongue, Tooth, Gum discomfort
  • Occlusal change in about 14% of patients after 5 years.

TMD (14 decks)

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