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Histology > Skin (Exam II) > Flashcards

Skin (Exam II) Flashcards

1
Q

Largest organ of the body (15-20% of body mass)

A

Skin

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2
Q

Four main functions of skin

A

1- protection
2- sensation
3- thermoregulation
4- metabolic functions

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3
Q

Three main layers of skin

A

1- epidermis
2- dermis
3- hypodermis

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4
Q

Another name for hypodermis

A

Subcutis

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5
Q

What types of insult does skin provide protection from (4):

A

UV
Mechanical
Chemical
Thermal

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6
Q

Skin has protective qualities that prevent ______; and provides a physical barrier to ____

A

Dehydration
Microorganisms

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7
Q

Skin is the largest ____ organ of the body

A

Sense

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8
Q

Skin contains receptors for (4):

A

Touch
Pressure
Pain
Temp

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9
Q

Skin thermoregulation is accomplished via

A

Insulation via hair
Subcutaneous fat

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10
Q

Heat loss in skin is facilitated by:

A

Sweat glands
Derma capillary network

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11
Q

For metabolic functions of the skin, energy is stored in:

A

Subcutaneous fat

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12
Q

Energy is store in the subcutaneous fat primarily as:

A

Triglycerides

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13
Q

Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin via:

A

Sunlight waves

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14
Q

Type of cells that occupy the epidermis

A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

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15
Q

Cells of the epidermis

A

Keratinocytes

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16
Q

The epidermis varies in thickness and this difference is reflected in terms of:

A

Thick skin & thin skin

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17
Q

Epidermis made of a thick highly keratinized layer

A

Thick skin

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18
Q

Thick skin is restricted to:

A

Volar (soles)
Palmar (palms)

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19
Q

Thick skin lacks _____ so its termed ____

A

Hair; glabrous

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20
Q

Most of the body is covered in:

A

Thin skin

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21
Q

Epidermis lacks:

A

Blood vessels

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22
Q

Blood vessels do not penetrate the:

A

Basement membrane

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23
Q

Epidermis is supplied and nourished by blood vessels in the:

A

Underlying (sub adjacent) dermis

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24
Q

When epidermis and dermis are combined where is skin thickest

A

Shoulders and back of neck

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25
Q

Composed of dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue, interspersed with elastic fibers

A

Dermis

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26
Q

Type of collagen present in the collagenous connective tissue of the dermis

A

Type I collagen

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27
Q

Progressive damage to the elastic fibers of the dermis from sunlight waves results in (2):

A

Aging
Loss of skin tone

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28
Q

Aging is caused by damage to:

A

Elastic fibers

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29
Q

The dermis is highly _____ and contains many _____

A

Vascular
Sensory receptors

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30
Q

Two layers of the dermis

A

1- papillary layer
2- reticular layer

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31
Q

Papillary layer of the dermis is _____, while the reticular layer of the dermis is _____

A

Superficial
Deep

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32
Q

Relatively thin layer of the dermis that interdigitates with the epidermis

A

Papillary layer

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33
Q

_____ increase surface area for attachment, prevent shear and mechanical abrasion within the dermis

A

Corrugations

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34
Q

Epidermal projections into the dermis

A

Epidermal ridges

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35
Q

Epidermal ridges may also be called

A

Rete ridges

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36
Q

Dermal projections into the epidermis

A

Dermal ridges

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37
Q

Dermal ridges may also be called

A

Dermal papillae

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38
Q

Large dermal ridges in thick skin are called:

A

Fingerprints (dermatoglyphs)

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39
Q

Fingerprints/dermatoglyphs are:

A

Unique to each individual

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40
Q

What prevents epidermis from peeling off when you bump into something

A

Corrugations

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41
Q

Deeper layer of dermis that is thicker and less cellular than papillary layer

A

Reticular layer of dermis

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42
Q

The reticular of the dermis contains (3):

A

Hair follicles
Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands

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43
Q

The reticular layer of the dermis interdigitates with the underlying:

A

Hypodermis (subcutis)

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44
Q

Within the reticular layer of the dermis, the thick collagen bundles and elastic fibers form:

A

Lines of tension (Langer’s lines)

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45
Q

Skin incisions parallel to Langer’s lines heal with:

A

Less scarring

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46
Q

Layer of skin located below the dermis

A

Hypodermis

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47
Q

Layer of loose, irregular connective tissue and adipose tissue

A

Hypodermis

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48
Q

What are the different names for the hypodermis (3)

A

Subcutis
Superficial fascia
Panniculus adiposus

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49
Q

Three vascular plexi of the skin

A

1- subpapillary plexus
2- cutaneous plexus
3- subcutaneous plexus

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50
Q

The subpapillary plexus is the most:

A

Superficial

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51
Q

The cutaneous plexus is located:

A

In between subpapillary plexus and subcutaneous plexus

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52
Q

The subcutaneous plexus is the most:

A

Deep

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53
Q

Arrange vascular plexus of skin in order of superficial to deep:

A

Subpapillary plexus
Cutaneous plexus
Subcutaneous plexus

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54
Q

Subpapillary plexus is located at the junction of:

A

Papillary & reticular layers

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55
Q

Cutaneous plexus is located at the junction of:

A

Reticular layer & hypodermis

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56
Q

The subcutaneous plexus is located deep within:

A

Hypodermis

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57
Q

Largest vascular plexi

A

Subcutaneous plexus

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58
Q

The vascular plexi of the the skin are used in:

A

Thermoregulation

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59
Q

The vascular plexi of the skin are used in thermoregulation, especially in fingertips and ears and are associated with _____ containing _____

A

AV shunts
Glomus bodies

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60
Q

Thickened regions of smooth muscle in wall of arterioles surrounded by connective tissue capsule

A

Glomus bodies

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61
Q

Bypass capillary bed, re-route blood from arterial to venous circulation

A

Glomus bodies

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62
Q

On winter day when outside, our hands and feet get cold, this is due to

A

AV shunts
Glomus bodies

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63
Q

Layer of skin that is continuously grown and replaced

A

Epidermis

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64
Q

It takes ~25-50 days for cells to travel from ____, mature, and be sloughed from ____

A

Deep germinal layer
Superficial epidermis

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65
Q

In ______ keratinocyte maturation takes only ~1 week

A

Psoriasis

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66
Q

In psoriasis there is an absence of a ____ layer

A

Granular

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67
Q

In psoriasis their are abnormal ____ and ____

A

Keratohyaline & tonofibrils

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68
Q

Layers of the epidermis:

A

Stratum basale
Stratum spinosum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum corneum

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69
Q

Another name for stratum basale

A

Stratum germinativum

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70
Q

The basal layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum basale

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71
Q

Mitotic layer of cuboidal germinal cells in the epidermis are boudn to the basement membrane by:

A

Hemidesmosomes

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72
Q

The hemidesmosomes attach to the underlying dermis via (2):

A

Anchoring filaments
Microfibrils

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73
Q

Prickle cell layer

A

Stratum spinosum

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74
Q

Layer of epidermis where cells look spiny; thickest layer of epidermis in the skin

A

Stratum spinosum

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75
Q

Prominent cells within stratum spinosum

A

Polyhedral cells

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76
Q

Polyhedral cells within the stratum spinosum have prominent (3):

A

Intercellular bridges (desmosomes)
Numerous cytoplasmic processes
Lateral folding of cell membrane

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77
Q

Predominant cell product of the stratum spinosum

A

Cytokeratin

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78
Q

Cytokeratin of the stratum spinosum forms ____ that aggregate into larger _____ and anchor on to desmosomes

A

Tonofilaments
Tonofibrils

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79
Q

Epidermal layer that helps glue the epidermal cells together and helps to prevent sloughing or separating

A

Stratum spinosum

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80
Q

Anchor to desmosomes and provide increased support

A

Tonofibrils

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81
Q

Type of keratin humans produce

A

Alpha keratin

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82
Q

Type of keratin birds and reptiles produce

A

Beta keratin

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83
Q

Difference between alpha and beta keratin

A

Beta keratin is a little robust, thicker and stronger than alpha keratin

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84
Q

Granular cell layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum granulosum

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85
Q

The stratum granulosum is characterized by cells containing ______

A

Keratohyaline granules

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86
Q

The Keratohyaline granules of the stratum granulosum are:

A

Basophilic

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87
Q

Non-membrane bound, basophilic, electron-dense granules within the stratum granulosum

A

Keratohyaline granules

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88
Q

In the stratum granulosum, the keratinization of cells represents the interaction between:

A

Keratohyaline granules & tonofibrils

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89
Q

The cells of the stratum granulosum have distinctive:

A

Stippled cytoplasmic staining

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90
Q

Keratinization is initiated by the release of:

A

Lysosomal enzymes

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91
Q

The release of lysosomal enzymes in keratinization results in the rupture of ______ and polymerization of their contents

A

Keratohyaline granules

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92
Q

During keratinization process, following the rupture of keratohyaline granules and polymerization of their contents this forms a:

A

Matrix for tonofibrils of Cytokeratin

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93
Q

During the keratinization process, the matrix formed for tonofibrils of Cytokeratin leads to an amorphous mass of:

A

Mature keratin

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94
Q

During process of keratinization, the release of lysosomes causes what to happen to cell

A

Cell death

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95
Q

As keratinocytes mature, they _____ and lose ____

A

Die; nuclei

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96
Q

Cells of the granular layer contain membrane-bound, lamellar structure called:

A

Keratinosomes

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97
Q

Contain Glycolipids which provide waterproofing coat for skin cells

A

Keratinosomes

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98
Q

Cells of what layer mature to form waterproof layer of keratinized cells with Glycolipids coating on surface of the epidermis

A

Granular layer

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99
Q

Layer of epidermis present only in thick skin

A

Stratum lucidum

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100
Q

Homogenous, compact layer of enucleate cells between stratum granulosum and stratum corneum

A

Stratum lucidum

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101
Q

Type of cells present in the stratum lucidum

A

Enucleate cells

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102
Q

Thin skin will not contain what layer

A

Stratum lucidum

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103
Q

Layer of epidermis that can extend in radiating lines to surface

A

Stratum lucidum

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104
Q

Most superficial layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum

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105
Q

Thickest layer of epidermis in thick skin

A

Stratum corneum

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106
Q

Flattened, enucleate, dead cell remnants

A

Squames

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107
Q

Type of cell characteristic of the stratum corneum

A

Squames

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108
Q

Stratum corneum is composed primarily of:

A

Soft keratin

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109
Q

The soft keratin of the stratum corneum acts as a:

A

Hydrophobic barrier preventing desiccation

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110
Q

The stratum corneum is continuously:

A

Exfoliated

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111
Q

Process of continuous exfoliation of the stratum corneum

A

Desquamation

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112
Q

In females, _____ cervical ______ cells are routinely examined in a Pap smear, to detect cervical cancer

A

Exfoliated
Epithelial

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113
Q

Cervical skin cells are prone to _____ which leads to cervical cancer

A

Dysplasia

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114
Q

Three common types of skin tumors

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Melanoma

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115
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma & basal cell carcinoma are derived from:
Melanoma is derived from:

A

Epithelial cells
Melanocytes

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116
Q

Healing from a clean (surgical), approximated incision

A

First-intention healing

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117
Q

After a clean cut, the incision immediately:

A

Filled with blood and clots

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118
Q

In first intention wound repair, within 3-24 hours, neutrophils infiltrate the clot, what phase is this:

A

Acute phase

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119
Q

During wound repair, the epithelial cells of the stratum basale begin:

A

Mitosis

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120
Q

What cells begin mitosis during first intention healing in wound repair

A

Epithelial cells of stratum basale

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121
Q

For first intention wound healing to occur, the cut has to reach the:

A

Dermis (not just epidermis)

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122
Q

In first intention healing during wound repair, why do the epithelial cells of the stratum basale undergo mitosis

A

To reapproximate the edges of the skin

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123
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, within 3-7 days, the neutrophils are replaced by:

A

Macrophages

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124
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, when the neutrophils begin to be replaced by macrophages (3-7 days) this marks the transition of:

A

Acute to subacute phase

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125
Q

Three processes that start to occur during the subacute phase of first intention healing:

A

1- neovascularization
2- fibroplasia
3- re-epithelization

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126
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, neovascularization causes the:

A

Growth of new vessels, repair of damaged old vessels

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127
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, neovascularization, fibroplasia, and re-epithelialization all lead to:

A

Production of granulation tissue

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128
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, fibroplasia refers to the production of ____ by ____

A

Collagen by fibroblasts

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129
Q

Re-epithelialization refers to:

A

Epithelial proliferation

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130
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around day 5, the incision is filled with:

A

Granulation tissue

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131
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, during week two we have continued _____ and _____ leading to mature granulation tissue

A

Fibroplasia & collagen accumulation

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132
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, during week two we have a progressive decrease in:

A

Inflammation

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133
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, the presence of inflammatory cells and inflammatory cell products leads to:

A

Itching

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134
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around month two what should be formed

A

Connective tissue scar

135
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around month two there should be no _____ present

A

Inflammation

136
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around month two, the connective tissue scar should be covered by:

A

Intact epithelium

137
Q

With deficiency in ______ collagen breaks down and the old scar can re-open and bleed

A

Vitamin C

138
Q

During the first 24 hours of second intention healing, compared to first intention healing, the scab/clot is:

A

Much larger

139
Q

In second intention healing, inflammation is more intense because there is more _____, _____, ______ to remove

A

Necrotic debris
Exudate
Fibrin

140
Q

In Second intention wound healing, during the weeks following the initial injury, the wound requires larger amounts of _____ because of its larger defect

A

Granulation tissue

141
Q

Second intention wound healing invovles:

A

Wound contraction

142
Q

Excess fibroplasia resulting in a raised, thickened connective tissue scar

A

Keloid

143
Q

Keloid results from too much:

A

Collagen

144
Q

Type of wound healing that occurs with more extensive loss of tissue, where the wound edges DO NOT approximate

A

Second intention

145
Q

An infarct, ulcer, or abscess would require what type of wound healing

A

Second intention

146
Q

During second intention wound healing, following the initial clot formation, the epithelial cells of the _____ migrate from edges of wound at 0.5 mm/day

A

Stratum basale

147
Q

With second intention wound healing, around how long does it take to fill a 1cm wide cut

A

~ 3 weeks

148
Q

During second intention wound healing, in haired skin, migration of cels from _______ of hair follicles augments re-epithelializaiton

A

External root sheath

149
Q

During second intention wound healing, simultaneous ______ / ________ of keratinocytes behind the migrating from front restore the multilayered, stratified epidermis

A

Proliferation/maturation

150
Q

During second intention wound healing, as the keratinocytes are migrating to fill in the gap, the cells of the stratum basal mature in a:

A

Vertical process

151
Q

During second intention wound healing , it takes on average ~ 25 days for the cells to mature from the stratum basale, to the stratum corneum in the process of:

A

Keratinization

152
Q

During second intention wound healing, the keratinization of new cells = the ______ & _____ of scab from periphery after ~ 3 weeks

A

Desquamation & lifting

153
Q

During second intention wound healing,

After the scab falls of (from the edges first), this is followed by _____ due to _____

A

Wound contraction
Myofibroblasts

154
Q

During second intention wound healing, wound contraction is performed by what type of cell

A

Myofibroblasts

155
Q

During second intention wound healing,

In full thickness abrasion, or 3rd degree burns, re-epithelialization is limited by:

A

Size of wound

156
Q

Special features of Myofibroblasts

A

Produce collagen and have contractile properties

157
Q

A burn that only involves the epidermis

A

1st degree

158
Q

Burn involving both epidermis & dermis

A

2nd degree

159
Q

Burn involving epidermis, dermis & hypodermis (loss of all three layers)

A

3rd degree

160
Q

Neuroectodermal dendritic cells present in the epidermis

A

Melanocytes

161
Q

Origin of melanocytes

A

Neural crest origin

162
Q

Melanocytes only comprise a small number of cells usually restricted to:

A

Basal layer

163
Q

Melanocytes have extensive _______ that may extend into the _____

A

Cytoplasmic processes; stratum spinosum

164
Q

Melanin is released from melanocytes in organelles called:

A

Melanosomes

165
Q

Melanin is released by melanosomes and taken up by surrounding:

A

Epidermal cells

166
Q

In determining a melanocytes in an H&E stain, you look for a nucleus with a _____ in the basal layer

A

Halo

167
Q

Two types of melanin:

A

1- eumelanin
2- pheomelanin

168
Q

Dark brown/black pigment that is present in dark-haired individuals

A

Eumelanin

169
Q

Red/yellow pigment present in individuals with red or blonde hair

A

Pheomelanin

170
Q

There are ____ numbers of melanocytes in all individuals, but _____ rates of melanin production and degradation by lysosomal enzymes

A

Equal
Variable

171
Q

Lighter-skinned individuals produce less ______ or digest ______ at a faster rate

A

Pigment; pigment

172
Q

Darker-skinned individuals ______ & _____ more pigment longer

A

Produce & retain

173
Q

Autoimmune disease leading to the destruction of melanocytes (leading to depigmentation)

A

Vitiligo

174
Q

Melanin synthesis is under the control of pituitary hormone:

A

Melanocytes stimulating hormone (MSH)

175
Q

Color due to the arrangement of small structures or particles
(Seen in irredescent humming birds and insects)

A

Structural color

176
Q

In order to produce melanin, ____ precursor is first oxidized to _____ by _______

A

Tyrosine
DOPA
Tyrosinase

177
Q

The tyrosine precursor is first oxidized to DOPA by tyrosinase located in organelles called:

A

Premelanosomes

178
Q

The initial steps of melanin production are followed by conversion of DOPA to _____ in _____

A

Melanin
Melanosomes

179
Q

Albinos lack ______ so DOPA and melanin are NOT formed

A

Tyrosinase

180
Q

In albino individuals _____ form but do not mature

A

Premelanosomes

181
Q

_____ can be used as a marker, to differentiate melanocytes from keratinocytes containing phagocytosis melanin

A

Tyrosinase

182
Q

Using tyrosinase as a marker to differentiate melanocytes from keratinocytes containing phagocytosed melanin can be useful in distinguishing:

A

Tumor types

183
Q

Melanin is important because it serves as a _____ protect the nucleus and inhibit _____

A

UV shield
Mutagenesis

184
Q

Exposure to UV stimulates:

A

Melanin synthesis

185
Q

Melanin is necessary for:

A

Normal neural development

186
Q

Fixed tissue macrophage, phagocytic, antigen-presenting cells

A

Langerhans cells

187
Q

Langerhans cells contain distinctive _____, visible on EM

A

Birbeck granules (tennis racket)

188
Q

Location of langerhans cells

A

Stratum spinosum

189
Q

Cells involved in contact allergic dermatitis

A

Langerhans cells

190
Q

Cells within the stratum spinosum that contain abundant cytoplasmic extensions

A

Langerhans cells

191
Q

Embryological outgrowths of epidermis

A

Skin appendages

192
Q

Hair, nails, sebaceous glands, sweat glands and horns are all examples of:

A

Skin appendages

193
Q

Coarse hair on scalp, axillae & pubis known as:

A

Terminal hair

194
Q

Hair shaft consists of outer ____ and inner ____

A

Cortex
Medulla

195
Q

Shaft covered by thin ____ of overlapping keratin plates; prevents matting

A

Cuticle

196
Q

Hair shaft is produced by hair ____

A

Follicles

197
Q

Cyclindrical downgrowths of epithelium surrounded by collagen sheaths

A

Follicles

198
Q

Hair growth occurs within deep terminal escapes ion of follicle:

A

Hair bulb

199
Q

The hair bulb may also be called:

A

Hair root

200
Q

The hair bulb is lined with actively dividing ______ cells

A

Epithelial

201
Q

The actively dividing epithelial cells in a hair bulb are homologous to:

A

Stratum basale

202
Q

Vascular core at base of hair bulb

A

Dermal papilla

203
Q

Finger-like invagination of dermis containing blood vessel

A

Dermal papilla

204
Q

As the epithelial cells lining the hair bulbs mature, they fill with hard ______ arranged in ____ bundles

A

Keratin filaments; parallel

205
Q

Melanocytes are located _____ to the hair follicle and produce melanin that becomes incorporated into the into the ____

A

Adjacent; cortex

206
Q

The developing hair is surrounded by and protected by:

A

Internal & external root sheath

207
Q

lines the hair follicle

A

Internal & external root sheath

208
Q

A modified basement membrane, separates the hair bulb from the surrounding dermis

A

Glassy membrane

209
Q

Hair aids in ____ & _____ and is absent on the skin of palms and soles of feet

A

Protection & thermoregulation

210
Q

The external root sheath is more _____ than the internal root sheath

A

Cellular

211
Q

Describe nucleus of arrector pilli

A

Elongated

212
Q

Type of cells comprising the arrector pilli

A

Smooth muscle cells

213
Q

Arrector pili usually run ______ to hair shaft

A

30 degrees oblique

214
Q

Bundles of smooth cells that attach hair to follicle sheath and insert on epidermal ridges

A

Arrector pilli muscle

215
Q

When arrector pilli contract they:

A

Raise hair

216
Q

Phenomenon arrector pilli are associated with:

A

Goosebumps

217
Q

Proper name for goosebumps:

A

Piloerection

218
Q

Piloerection is caused by ____ stimulation due to cold/fear/aggression

A

Sympathetic

219
Q

Where do arrector pilli attach? Insert?

A

Hair follicle sheath
Epidermal ridge

220
Q

Hair growth is NOT:

A

Continuous

221
Q

Hair: growth phase

A

Anagen

222
Q

Hair: involuting phase (loss of blood supply); signals to end active growth

A

Catagen

223
Q

Hair: inactive resting phase

A

Telogen

224
Q

Hair: shedding of old hair shaft- cells have stopped dividing

A

Exogen

225
Q

What phase of hair growth do we see baldness occur in

A

Exogen

226
Q

Fine body hair in children

A

Vellus hair

227
Q

At puberty, vellus hair is replaced by:

A

Terminal hairs

228
Q

Most common form of hair loss, affecting 30-40% of adults

A

Androgen if alopecia

229
Q

Androgenic alopecia is both _____ & ____ dependent

A

Genetic & androgen

230
Q

Individuals affected with androgenic alopecia have high levels of

A

5-alpha-reductase

231
Q

5-alpha-reductase is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of:

A

testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone

232
Q

The conversion of testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone results in

A

Folllicular atrophy

233
Q

Hair length is determined by the ______ phase relative to the _____ phase

A

Growth; resting

234
Q

Flattened nails are unique to:

A

Primates

235
Q

Nail consists of a flattened:

A

Nail plate

236
Q

Nail plate rests on the _____ of the nail bed

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

237
Q

Another term for nail bed

A

Hyponichium

238
Q

Proximal end of the nail

A

Nail root

239
Q

Nail root extends into dermis, attaches to periosteum of:

A

Distal phalanx

240
Q

Nail root extends into the dermis and attaches to the ______ of distal phalanx

A

Periosteum

241
Q

Nail growth occurs by ____ & ____ of epithelium at nail root in ______ zone of nail matrix

A

Proliferation & differentiation
Germinative

242
Q

Germinal root of nail matrix is where:

A

Nail growth occurs

243
Q

Underlies the white crescent at base of nail

A

Nail matrix

244
Q

White crescent at base of nail

A

Lunula

245
Q

The lunula is covered by a superficial cuticle also known as the:

A

Eponychium

246
Q

As epithelial cells mature, fill with keratin and die, this forms: nail plate

A
247
Q

Consists of densely packed, parallel, _______ filaments embedded in amorphous matrix

A

Hard keratin

248
Q

Nail plate slides over underlying nail bed epithelium as it:

A

Grows

249
Q

Alveolar & holocrine glands are classified as:

A

Sebaceous glands

250
Q

Glands consisting of branched acini

A

Sebaceous glands

251
Q

In this type gland, by definition the entire cell is secreted

A

Sebaceous

252
Q

One or more ____ glands are associated with each hair follicle and develop as outgrowths of external root sheath

A

Sebaceous glands

253
Q

Type of gland that looks foamy, almost like adipose tissue

A

Sebaceous gland

254
Q

Sebaceous gland products are very:

A

Thick and viscous

255
Q

Sebaceous glands secrete oily ____ via ______ canal

A

Sebum; pilosebaceous

256
Q

Sebum is high in ____ and cell debris

A

Lipid content

257
Q

Sebum is used for:

A

Waterproofing & moisturizing skin & hair

258
Q

Sebaceous glands can also be found on non-haired _____ skin, & they secrete directly onto skin surface in this situation

A

Transitional

259
Q

Excessive secretion of sebum

A

Seborrhea

260
Q

Hair follicle + associated arrector pilli + sebaceous gland =

A

Pilosebaceous unit

261
Q

When sebaceous glands are hypertrophic this results in:

A

Acne

262
Q

Acne occurs when the products of sebaceous glands are so thick and viscous that canal gets blocked with dried products and _____ become trapped in the sebaceous glands

A

Bacteria

263
Q

Simple, coiled, tubular glands, surrounded by myoepithelial cells; assist in secretion

A

Sweat glands

264
Q

Two types of sweat glands:

A

1- Merocrine/eccrine
2- apocrine

265
Q

Another name for follicle mites

A

Demodex

266
Q

Sweat glands that by definition secrete only product

A

Merocrine (eccrine)

267
Q

Merocrine (eccrine) glands can be made of:

A

Columnar or cuboidal epithelium

268
Q

In humans, Merocrine (eccrine) glands are distributed all over most of the body surface except for:

A

Lips & genitalia

269
Q

Unbranched, coiled, tubular glands with 1-2 layers of cuboidal or columnar epithelium with excretory ducts

A

Merocrine (eccrine)

270
Q

Type of ducts Merocrine (eccrine) glands have:

A

Excretory

271
Q

Merocrine (eccrine) glands secrete sweat onto skin surface via ______ on _____

A

Sweat pore; epidermal ridge

272
Q

Sweat contains a hypotonic solution of (4):

A

Salts
Ammonia
Urea
Uric acid

273
Q

Sweat is important in what functions

A

Thermoregulation
Evaporative cooling

274
Q

Body loses on average around 600 ml/day of sweat through:

A

Evaporation from lungs, skin & mucous membranes

275
Q

Thermoregulatory sweating is ________

A

Cholinergic

276
Q

Thermoregulatory (cholinergic) sweating occurs via:

A

Parasympathetics

277
Q

Thermoregulatory (cholinergic) sweating occurs first where & then where

A

First: axillae, forehead, scalp
Second: hands, feet

278
Q

Emotional sweating is ______

A

Adrenergic

279
Q

Emotional (adrenergic) sweating occurs via:

A

Sympathetics

280
Q

Emotional (adrenergic) sweating begins on the:

A

Palms & soles

281
Q

Sweat glands that by definition secrete product + some cytoplasm

A

Apocrine sweat glands

282
Q

Coiled, tubular glands with large dilated lumina

A

Apocrine sweat glands

283
Q

Describe lumina of apocrine sweat glands

A

Dilated

284
Q

Apocrine sweat glands are located in the _____ & _____ and develop at puberty

A

Axillae & groin

285
Q

Sweat glands made of secretory, cuboidal epithelium that are 2-3 cell layers thick, & surround large, glandular lumen

A

Apocrine sweat glands

286
Q

Apocrine glands discharge thick, viscid secretions into the:

A

Hair follicle

287
Q

The thick, viscid secretions of apocrine glands contain:

A

Proteins
Carbs
Ammonia
Lipids
Organic products

288
Q

Originally the secretions of apocrine glands are ______ when secreted, but bacteria breakdown results in a _____ odor

A

Odorless
Acrid

289
Q

Body odor is due to bacterial breakdown of:

A

Apocrine sweat gland products

290
Q

In mammals, the acrid odor resulting from bacterial breakdown of apocrine secretion is used as a:

A

Pheromone

291
Q

Secretions from apocrine glands is considered:

A

Adrenergic

292
Q

Modified apocrine glands in the external auditory meatus (ear canal)

A

Ceruminous glands

293
Q

Cerumin=

A

Earwax

294
Q

Glands that develop along paired epidermal ridges- & extend from axillae to groin

A

Mammary glands

295
Q

Mammary ridges & milk lines are also names for

A

Epidermal ridges

296
Q

In humans, only the ________ pair of glans along the milk line develops

A

First pair

297
Q

Mammary glands are highly modified ____ glands; identical in male and female until puberty

A

Sweat glands

298
Q

In females, the mammary glands develop under the influence of ___ & ____ hormones

A

Pituitary & ovarian

299
Q

In females, when do the pituitary & ovarian hormones influence the mammary glands to produce milk to feed young

A

Following pregnancy

300
Q

At menopause, the mammary glands:

A

Atrophy & involute

301
Q

Mammary glands composed mainly of dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue, interspersed with adipose tissue & occasional smooth muscle

A

Inactive mammary gland

302
Q

A mammary gland is composed of ____ glands organized into _______

A

Tubulo-acinar ; secretory lobules

303
Q

Mammary glands are drained by _____ ducts

A

Terminal

304
Q

After the mammary glands drain into terminal ducts, they further drain into larger ______ ducts

A

Lactiferous

305
Q

The lactiferous ducts of mammary glands empty into:

A

Lactiferous sinus

306
Q

The lactiferous sinus is located in the region of the:

A

Nipple

307
Q

Pigmented region of epidermis surrounding the nipple

A

Areola

308
Q

Type of epithelium comprising the areola- what else does this contain

A

Stratified squamous epithelium; deep dermal ridges

309
Q

Mammary glands contain numerous ______ glands, including _____ & ____ glands

A

Areolar
Merocrine & sebaceous

310
Q

During _____, mammary glans enlarge due to hypertrophy of secretory cells & accumulation of secretory product

A

Lactation

311
Q

The first few days after birth, mammary glands secrete:

A

Colostrum

312
Q

Alkaline, yellowish secretion, with high protein & salt content, low in lipid & carbs

A

Colostrum

313
Q

Colostrum contains large amounts of ______ - important in transfer of passive immunity to offspring

A

Antibodies

314
Q

______ production is both merocrine and apocrine

A

Milk production

315
Q

In milk production, _____ secretion is primarily merocrine, while ______ fraction is primarily apocrine

A

Protein
Lipid

316
Q

Mechanoreceptors/touch receptors in dermal ridges of papillary layer

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

317
Q

Location of meissner’s corpuscles

A

Dermal ridges of papillary layer

318
Q

Meissner’s corpuscles are prominent in:

A

Hands
Feet
Lips
Genitalia

319
Q

Shape of meissner’s corpuscles

A

Cylindrical

320
Q

In a meissner’s corpuscle there are _____ nerve fibers associated with modified ____ cells

A

Afferent nerve fibers; Schwann cells

321
Q

Large, ovoid mechanoreceptors located in the dermis and hypodermis

A

Pacinian corpuscles

322
Q

Pacinian corpuscles are prominent in:

A

Fingertips
Around joints

323
Q

Type of pressure Pacinian corpuscles detect:

A

Mechanical & vibratory

324
Q

Pacinian corpuscles consist of _____ nerve fibers surrounded by highly modified ____ cells

A

Afferent
Schwann

325
Q

The afferent nerve fibers surrounded by highly modified Schwann cells form ______ separated by fluid filled spaces

A

Concentric lamellae

326
Q

Small dermal mechanoreceptors, especially common in soles of feet

A

Ruffini corpuscles

327
Q

Most numerous sensory receptor, present in epidermis and papillary dermis & surround most hair follicles

A

“Free” nerve ending

328
Q

“Free” nerve endings lack:

A

1- connective tissue capsule
2- associated Schwann cell

329
Q

“Free” nerve endings serve multiple sensory modalities including:

A

Heat/cold
Touch
Pain
Movement

330
Q

Epidermal cells derived from neural crest

A

Merkel cells

331
Q

Cells that look like melanocytes; located in stratum basale, contain dense core granules, store Seratonin

A

Merkel cells

332
Q

Pressure-sensitive mechanoreceptors, associated with free afferent nerve endings and merkel discs

A

Merkel cell

333
Q
A

A- epidermis
B- dermal ridge
C- Meissner’s corpuscle

Histology (9 decks)

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