Skills Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Sanguineous

A

Large amounts of red blood cells

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2
Q

Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to but not through underlying fascia

A

Stage III

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3
Q

Renewal of tissues

A

Regeneration

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4
Q

Risk factors for pressure ulcers

A
Friction and sheering
Immobility
Inadequate nutrition 
Incontinence
Decreased mental status
Diminished sensation 
Excessive body heat 
Advanced age
Chronic medical conditions
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5
Q

Full thickness skin or tissue loss depth unknown

A

Unstageable

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6
Q

Tissue surfaces have been approximated (closed) and there is minimal or no tissue loss

A

Primary intention healing

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7
Q

Non blanch able erythema signaling potential ulceration

A

Stage I

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8
Q

Secondary intention healing

A

Pressure ulcer

Repair time is longer
Scarring is greater
Susceptibility to infection is greater

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9
Q

Wound left open 3-5 days to allow edema or infection to resolve then closed with sutures or staples

A

Tertiary intention

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10
Q

Most commonly used dressing on a wound. Permits air to circulate

A

Gauze

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11
Q

Begins immediately after injury and lasts 3-6 days

A

Inflammatory phase

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12
Q

Results from vasoconstriction of the larger blood vessels in the affected area

A

Hemostasis

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13
Q

Cell migration

A

Leukocytes ( specifically neutrophils) move into the interstitial space

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14
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Macrophages engulf microorganisms and cellular debris

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15
Q

Serous fluid

A

Serum

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16
Q

Ex- closed surgical incision or liquid glue on a laceration

A

Primary intention healing

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17
Q

Pressure ulcers are due to what

A

Localized ischemia

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18
Q

Complications of wound healing

A

Hemorrhage
Infection
Dehiscence
Evisceration

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19
Q

Factors affecting wound healing

A

Developmental consideration
Nutrition
Lifestyle
Medications

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20
Q

Preventing pressure ulcers

A

Provide nutrition
Maintain skin hygiene
Avoid skin trauma
Provide supporting devices

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21
Q

Strip of cloth used to wrap some part of the body

A

Bandage

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22
Q

Elasticized bandages

A

Provide pressure to the area

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23
Q

Binders

A

Type of bandage designed for a specific body part

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24
Q

Purulent

A

Pus

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25
Q

Partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis and possibly the dermis

A

Stage II

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26
Q

Full thickness skin loss with tissue necrosis or damage to muscle,bone or supporting structures.

A

Stage IV

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27
Q

Maturation phase

A

About day 21 and can extend 1-2 years

Wound is remodeled and contracted

Scar becomes stronger but the repaired area is never as strong as the original tissue

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28
Q

Sitz bath

A

Used to soak a patients perineal or rectal area

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29
Q

Teds

A

Used to facilitate venous return from the lower extremities

Prevent venous stasis and DVT

Reduce peripheral edema

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30
Q

Sutures

A

Thread used to see body tissues together

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31
Q

Pulmonary embolism

A

Clot formed elsewhere that travelled to the lung

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32
Q

Control severe bleeding by

A

Applying direct pressure over the wound

Elevating the involved extremity

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33
Q

Prevent infection in a wound by

A

Cleaning or flushing abrasions or lacerations with normal saline

Cover the wound with a clean dressing

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34
Q

Control swelling of a wound by

A

Applying ice over the wound and surrounding tissues

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35
Q

Signs of shock In a patient

A

Rapid thready pulse

Cold clammy skin

Pallor

Lowered blood pressure

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36
Q

Size of needle and syringe needed to irrigate a wound

A

18-19 gauge

30-60mL

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37
Q

Heat

A
Vasodilation
Increases capillary permeability 
Increase cellular metabolism 
Increases inflammation
Sedative effect
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38
Q

Most common type of contaminant of blood cultures

A

Epidermis

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39
Q

Specimen should never be refrigerated

A

Blood culture

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40
Q

Serious disease characterized by chills, fever, prostration, and the presence of bacteria or their toxins in the bloodstream

A

Septicemia

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41
Q

Signs of septic shock/septicemia

A
Reduced mental alertness
Confusion
Rapid breathing
Chills
Fever
Warm, flushed skin
42
Q

Presence of bacteria in the bloodstream

A

Bacteremia

43
Q

Causes septicemia

Kidneys lung and hear fail with septic shock

A

Endotoxins

44
Q

To diagnose bacteria or septicemia

A

3 blood cultures should be collected in a 24 hour period

45
Q

Consist of injury to the skin or underlying tissue. Usually a bony prominence

A

Pressure ulcers

46
Q

Poisonous proteins secreted by a variety of pathogens

A

Exotoxins

47
Q

Hardened painless chance develops about 3 weeks after exposure

Open lesion containing treponema pallidum

A

Primary syphilis

48
Q

Blood is sterile until it becomes contained with bacteria

A

bacteremia

49
Q

What affects the central nervous system

A

Neurotoxins

50
Q

Any indigenous microbiota in the specimen may

A

Overgrow inhibit or kill pathogens

51
Q

Period during which the disease is most easily transmitted

A

Period of illness

52
Q

Neurotoxins are produced by what

A

Clostridium tetani and clostridium botulinum

53
Q

CNS, cardiovascular and other symptoms occur 5-20 years after exposure

A

Tertiary syphilis

54
Q

Vast numbers live in or in the human body

A

Indigenous micro flora

55
Q

Enterotoxins affect

A

Gastrointestinal tract

56
Q

Failure to refrigerate urine within 30 min

A

Will cause an inflated colony count which could lead to an incorrect diagnosis or a UTI

57
Q

Time that elapsed between arrival of the pathogen and the onset of symptoms

A

Incubation period

58
Q

No symptoms

Last for weeks to years

Sometimes continues throughout life

A

Latent syphilis

59
Q

Day 3-4 to about day 21

Collagen, granulation tissue and eschar

A

Proliferative phase

60
Q

Organized layer of glycocalx, firmly attached to the outer surface of a bacterial cell wall, thAt protects the bacteria from being phagocytized by phagocytic white blood cells

A

Capsule

61
Q

Considered to be virulence factors because they serve an antiphagocytic function

A

Bacterial capsules

62
Q

Interferons

A

Interfere with viral replication

Increase host resistance

Are protein molecules released by host cells to nonspecifically inhibit the spread of viral infections

63
Q

Leukocytosis

A

Count that is higher than normal

Occurs as a normal protective response to physiologic stressors, such as infection, anesthesia, surgery and toxins

64
Q

Time during which the patient recovers

A

Convalescent period

65
Q

Chance curls inward and a rash develops about 4-6 weeks after exposure

Rash resolves within 12 months

A

Secondary syphilis

66
Q

Leukopenia

A

Count that is lower than normal

Never normal

When low person is at risk for life threatening infections

Can be caused by radiation, anaphylactic shock, autoimmune disease or chemo

67
Q

Infectious diseases that go from being symptomatic to asymptomatic and then later go back to symtomatic.

A

Latent infections

68
Q

May remain inactive for a long period of time before becoming active

A

Latent infections

69
Q

Toxin

A

Obvious virulence factor

70
Q

Molecule on the surface of a pathogen that is able to recognize and bind to particular receptor on a host cell

A

Adhesion

71
Q

Rickettsia and chlamydia

A

Gram negative bacteria

72
Q

Toxin of s. Aureus causes the epidermal layer of the skin to slough away, leading to a diseases known as scaled skin syndrome

A

Exfoliative toxin

73
Q

Produced by some strains of s. Pyogenes causing scarlet fever

A

Eryhrogenic toxin

74
Q

Destroy white blood cells

A

Leudocidins

75
Q

Which of the following virulence factors enable bacteria to attach to tissues?

A

Pili

76
Q

What dies when exposed to air and therefore must be protected from oxygen during transport to the CML

A

Obligate anaerobes

77
Q

Loss of adhesions become

A

A virulent

78
Q

Neurotoxins are produced by

A

Clostridium botulinum and clostridium tetani

79
Q

Which of the following pathogens produce enterotoxins

Bacillus cereus and certain serotypes of eschericha coli

C diff and c perfringens

Salmonella spp and shigella spp

All of the above

A

All of the above

80
Q

A bloodstream infection with BLANK could result in the release of endotoxin into the bloodstream.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae or E. coli

81
Q

Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during the

A

Period of illness

82
Q

Enterotoxins affect the cells in the

A

Gastrointestinal tract

83
Q

Which of the following bacteria is least likely to be the cause of septic shock

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

84
Q

Which of the following produces both a cytotoxin and an enterotoxin

A

C. Difficile

85
Q

Which of the following virulence factors enables bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells

A

Capsule

86
Q

Which of the following can cause toxic shock syndrome

A

S. Aureus and s. Pyogenes

87
Q

Assuming that a CCMS urine was processed in the CML which of the following colony counts are indicative of a UTI?

A. 10,000 CFU/mL
B. 100,000 CFU/mL
C. >100,000 CFU/mL
Both b and c

A

Both b and c

88
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is false

A

Bacteremia and septicemia are synonyms

89
Q

Which of the following statements about CSF specimens is false

A

They should always be refrigerated

90
Q

All clinical specimens submitted to the CML must be

Properly and carefully collected
Properly labeled
Properly transported to the laboratory
All of the above

A

All of the above

91
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three parts of a urine culture

A

Performing a microscopic observation of the urine specimen

92
Q

Which of the following matches is false

A

Tease mount.. Bacteriology section

93
Q

Which of the following sections is least likely to be found in the CML of a small hospital

A

Virology section

94
Q

In the mycology section of the CML moulds are identified by

A. Biochemical test results
B. Macroscopic observations
C. Microscopic observations
D. A combination of b and c

A

D. A combination of b and c

95
Q

Exoenzymes secretion

A
Necrotizing enzymes
Coagulase
Kinases
Hyaluronidase
Collagenase
Hemolysins
96
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four major day to day responsibilities of the CML

A

Process environmental samples

97
Q

Time during which the patient experiences the typical symptoms associated with that particular disease

A

Period of illness

98
Q

Time during which the body gradually returns to normal as the patients immune response or medical treatment vanquish the pathogens

A

Decline

99
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the quality of specimens submitted to the CML

A

Person who collects the specimen

100
Q

Time during which the patient feels “out of sorts” “ coming down with something” but is not yet experiencing actual symptoms of the disease

A

Prodromal period

101
Q

Cold

A
Vasoconstriction 
Decreases capillary permeability 
Decreases cellular metabolism 
Slows bacterial growth 
Decreases inflammation
Local anesthetic effect
102
Q

Produced by gram negative bacteria as a part of their cell wall structure. Can cause serious adverse physiologic effects such as fever and shock

A

Endotoxins