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Pharma 1 > Skill keeper/Checklist (Smooth Muscle) > Flashcards

Skill keeper/Checklist (Smooth Muscle) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which organ system does histamine primarily affect to produce symptoms of asthma?
    a) Cardiovascular System
    b) Respiratory System
    c) Gastrointestinal System
    d) Central Nervous System
A

b) Respiratory System
Rationale: Histamine causes constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle, leading to symptoms of asthma.

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2
Q
  1. Which second-generation H1 antihistamine does NOT cross the blood-brain barrier significantly?
    a) Diphenhydramine
    b) Loratadine
    c) Promethazine
    d) Chlorpheniramine
A

b) Loratadine
Rationale: Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cross the blood-brain barrier as much, making it non-sedating.

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3
Q
  1. What is the primary clinical indication for the use of “Triptans” like Sumatriptan?
    a) Hypertension
    b) Diabetes
    c) Migraine attacks
    d) Gastric ulcers
A

c) Migraine attacks
Rationale: Triptans are 5-HT1 receptor agonists used for the acute treatment of migraine attacks.

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4
Q
  1. Which drug is a 5-HT3 antagonist primarily used as an antiemetic for chemotherapy-induced nausea?
    a) Tegaserod
    b) Liraglutide
    c) Orlistat
    d) Ondansetron
A

d) Ondansetron
Rationale: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist used as an antiemetic, especially for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

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5
Q
  1. Which drug is used for the treatment of obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipases?
    a) Phentermine/Topiramate
    b) Ondansetron
    c) Orlistat
    d) Sumatriptan
A

c) Orlistat
Rationale: Orlistat works by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipases, reducing fat absorption and assisting with weight loss.

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6
Q
  1. Which syndrome is primarily caused by excessive serotonin activity?
    a) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    b) Malignant Hyperthermia
    c) Serotonin Syndrome
    d) Asthma
A

c) Serotonin Syndrome
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is caused by excessive serotonin activity, often due to drug interactions or overdoses.

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7
Q
  1. Which drug combination is used for obesity treatment that includes an appetite suppressant and an antiepileptic?
    a) Liraglutide and Ondansetron
    b) Orlistat and Tegaserod
    c) Phentermine/Topiramate
    d) Sumatriptan and Loratadine
A

c) Phentermine/Topiramate
Rationale: The combination of Phentermine (an appetite suppressant) and Topiramate (an antiepileptic) is used for obesity treatment.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a second-generation H1 antihistamine?
    a) Cetirizine
    b) Fexofenadine
    c) Chlorpheniramine
    d) Levocetirizine
A

c) Chlorpheniramine
Rationale: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation H1 antihistamine.

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9
Q
  1. Which H2 antihistamine is known for reducing gastric acid secretion?
    a) Sumatriptan
    b) Ranitidine
    c) Orlistat
    d) Desloratadine
A

b) Ranitidine
Rationale: Ranitidine is an H2 antihistamine that reduces gastric acid secretion.

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10
Q
  1. What is the main effect of serotonin on the cardiovascular system?
    a) Vasodilation
    b) Bronchoconstriction
    c) Vasoconstriction
    d) Increase in heart rate
A

c) Vasoconstriction
Rationale: Serotonin primarily causes vasoconstriction in the cardiovascular system.

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11
Q
  1. Which drug is a GLP-1 receptor agonist used for obesity treatment?
    a) Ondansetron
    b) Liraglutide
    c) Cetirizine
    d) Diphenhydramine
A

b) Liraglutide
Rationale: Liraglutide is a GLP-1 receptor agonist used for the treatment of obesity.

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12
Q
  1. Ergot alkaloids primarily affect which organ system to produce vasoconstriction?
    a) Gastrointestinal System
    b) Respiratory System
    c) Cardiovascular System
    d) Central Nervous System
A

c) Cardiovascular System
Rationale: Ergot alkaloids primarily cause vasoconstriction in the cardiovascular system.

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13
Q
  1. Which syndrome is caused by anesthetic agents and is treated with Dantrolene?
    a) Asthma
    b) Serotonin Syndrome
    c) Malignant Hyperthermia
    d) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
A

c) Malignant Hyperthermia
Rationale: Malignant Hyperthermia is caused by certain anesthetic agents and is treated with Dantrolene.

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14
Q
  1. Which drug is used for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation?
    a) Tegaserod
    b) Ondansetron
    c) Orlistat
    d) Ranitidine
A

a) Tegaserod
Rationale: Tegaserod is a 5-HT4 antagonist used for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome with constipation.

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15
Q
  1. Which first-generation H1 antihistamine is known to cross the blood-brain barrier and cause sedation?
    a) Levocetirizine
    b) Loratadine
    c) Diphenhydramine
    d) Desloratadine
A

c) Diphenhydramine
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine that crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes sedation.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment or prevention of obesity?
    a) Phentermine/Topiramate
    b) Liraglutide
    c) Orlistat
    d) Ondansetron
A

d) Ondansetron
Rationale: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist used as an antiemetic, not for obesity treatment.

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17
Q
  1. Which organ system does histamine stimulate to increase gastric acid secretion?
    a) Cardiovascular System
    b) Respiratory System
    c) Gastrointestinal System
    d) Central Nervous System
A

c) Gastrointestinal System
Rationale: Histamine stimulates the gastrointestinal system to increase gastric acid secretion.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an application of ergot drugs?
    a) Migraine headaches
    b) Postpartum hemorrhage
    c) Obesity treatment
    d) Vasoconstriction
A

c) Obesity treatment
Rationale: Ergot drugs are used for migraine headaches, postpartum hemorrhage, and they cause vasoconstriction, but they are not used for obesity treatment.

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19
Q
  1. Which syndrome is characterized by cold, pale extremities due to vasoconstriction and can result from the use of ergot drugs?
    a) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    b) Ergotism
    c) Malignant Hyperthermia
    d) Serotonin Syndrome
A

b) Ergotism
Rationale: Ergotism is characterized by vasoconstriction leading to cold, pale extremities, and can result from the use of ergot drugs.

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20
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism of action of “Triptans” like Sumatriptan?
    a) 5-HT1 receptor agonism
    b) H2 receptor antagonism
    c) Inhibition of gastrointestinal lipases
    d) Alpha-adrenergic blockade
A

a) 5-HT1 receptor agonism
Rationale: Triptans, such as Sumatriptan, are 5-HT1 receptor agonists.

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21
Q
  1. Which drug is primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting but is not an anti-obesity medication?
    a) Liraglutide
    b) Orlistat
    c) Ondansetron
    d) Phentermine
A

c) Ondansetron
Rationale: Ondansetron is primarily used as an antiemetic for nausea and vomiting.

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a third-generation H1 antihistamine derived from Loratadine?
    a) Diphenhydramine
    b) Fexofenadine
    c) Levocetirizine
    d) Desloratadine
A

d) Desloratadine
Rationale: Desloratadine is a third-generation H1 antihistamine derived from Loratadine.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following hyperthermic syndromes is caused by antipsychotic drugs?
    a) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    b) Serotonin Syndrome
    c) Malignant Hyperthermia
    d) Ergotism
A

a) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is caused by antipsychotic drugs.

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24
Q
  1. Which drug is an H2 antihistamine known for interactions with many other drugs due to its effect on liver enzymes?
    a) Sumatriptan
    b) Ranitidine
    c) Ondansetron
    d) Cimetidine
A

d) Cimetidine
Rationale: Cimetidine is an H2 antihistamine known for interactions with many other drugs because of its effect on liver enzymes.

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of serotonin on organ systems?
    a) Mood regulation
    b) Increases gut motility
    c) Vasoconstriction
    d) Bronchodilation
A

d) Bronchodilation
Rationale: Serotonin does not cause bronchodilation. Instead, it is involved in mood regulation, increasing gut motility, and causing vasoconstriction.

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26
Q
  1. Which ergot drug is primarily used for postpartum hemorrhage?
    a) Ergotamine
    b) Methysergide
    c) Ergonovine
    d) Dihydroergotamine
A

c) Ergonovine
Rationale: Ergonovine is primarily used to treat postpartum hemorrhage.

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
    a) Bromocriptine
    b) Sumatriptan
    c) Tegaserod
    d) Orlistat
A

a) Bromocriptine
Rationale: Bromocriptine is one of the treatments for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

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28
Q
  1. Which drug is a GLP-1 receptor agonist NOT used for obesity treatment?
    a) Orlistat
    b) Phentermine
    c) Liraglutide
    d) Ondansetron
A

d) Ondansetron
Rationale: Ondansetron is not a GLP-1 receptor agonist and is used primarily as an antiemetic.

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major organ system effect of histamine?
    a) Vasoconstriction
    b) Bronchodilation
    c) Increase in heart rate
    d) Stimulation of gastric acid secretion
A

d) Stimulation of gastric acid secretion
Rationale: Histamine stimulates the gastrointestinal system to increase gastric acid secretion.

30
Q
  1. Which drug used for obesity treatment works by combining an appetite suppressant with an antiepileptic?
    a) Ondansetron
    b) Phentermine/Topiramate
    c) Liraglutide
    d) Orlistat
A

b) Phentermine/Topiramate
Rationale: Phentermine/Topiramate combines an appetite suppressant (Phentermine) with an antiepileptic (Topiramate) for obesity treatment.

31
Q
  1. Which drug class blocks the AT1 receptor, preventing Angiotensin II from exerting its effects?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) Diuretics
    c) AT1-receptor blockers
    d) Calcium channel blockers
A

c) AT1-receptor blockers
Rationale: AT1-receptor blockers, like Losartan, block the AT1 receptor and inhibit the effects of Angiotensin II.

32
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is NOT involved in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
    a) Captopril
    b) Losartan
    c) Atenolol
    d) Enalapril
A

c) Atenolol
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and does not act on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system directly.

33
Q
  1. Bradykinin primarily results in:
    a) Vasoconstriction
    b) Vasodilation
    c) Increased heart rate
    d) Renal retention of sodium
A

b) Vasodilation
Rationale: Bradykinin is a potent vasodilator and contributes to increased vascular permeability and other inflammatory reactions.

34
Q
  1. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?
    a) Peptidyl Dipeptidase
    b) Kinase I
    c) Kininase II
    d) Transaminase
A

a) Peptidyl Dipeptidase
Rationale: The enzyme responsible for converting Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II is also known as Peptidyl Dipeptidase or ACE.

35
Q
  1. Endothelin-1 is primarily known for its role in:
    a) Vasodilation
    b) Vasoconstriction
    c) Diuresis
    d) Bronchodilation
A

b) Vasoconstriction
Rationale: Endothelin-1 is a powerful peptide that induces vasoconstriction, leading to an increase in blood pressure.

36
Q
  1. Which drug is used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension by blocking endothelin receptors?
    a) Aprepitant
    b) Bosentan
    c) Erenumab
    d) Galcanezumab
A

b) Bosentan
Rationale: Bosentan is an endothelin receptor antagonist used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension.

37
Q
  1. Substance P plays a significant role in:
    a) Bronchodilation
    b) Pain transmission
    c) Diuresis
    d) Reducing blood pressure
A

b) Pain transmission
Rationale: Substance P is primarily involved in pain pathways and induces vasodilation.

38
Q
  1. Which drug is a neurokinin-1 (NK1) receptor antagonist used to prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea?
    a) Bosentan
    b) Erenumab
    c) Aprepitant
    d) Losartan
A

c) Aprepitant
Rationale: Aprepitant is an NK1 receptor antagonist used to prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

39
Q
  1. Which peptide is associated with migraine pathophysiology and has antagonists that provide migraine relief?
    a) Bradykinin
    b) Substance P
    c) CGRP
    d) Endothelin-1
A

c) CGRP
Rationale: Calcitonin Gene-Related Peptide (CGRP) plays a role in migraine pathophysiology, and its antagonists can provide relief from migraines.

40
Q
  1. The primary function of Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) is:
    a) Vasoconstriction
    b) Vasodilation
    c) Bronchoconstriction
    d) Increasing heart rate
A

b) Vasodilation
Rationale: BNP is released from the heart in response to volume expansion and leads to vasodilation and diuresis.

41
Q
  1. Which drug is an example of an ACE inhibitor?
    a) Valsartan
    b) Captopril
    c) Losartan
    d) Bosentan
A

b) Captopril
Rationale: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, which prevents the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following peptides causes bronchoconstriction?
    a) CGRP
    b) BNP
    c) Endothelin-1
    d) Bradykinin
A

d) Bradykinin
Rationale: Among the options, bradykinin is known to cause bronchoconstriction.

43
Q
  1. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP) primarily results in:
    a) Vasoconstriction
    b) Bronchoconstriction
    c) Vasodilation
    d) Reduced secretion of renin
A

c) Vasodilation
Rationale: VIP leads to vasodilation, bronchodilation, and stimulates secretion in the intestines.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is NOT an AT1-receptor blocker?
    a) Losartan
    b) Telmisartan
    c) Captopril
    d) Valsartan
A

c) Captopril
Rationale: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not an AT1-receptor blocker.

45
Q
  1. Which substance is degraded by the Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE)?
    a) Angiotensin II
    b) Endothelin-1
    c) Bradykinin
    d) Substance P
A

c) Bradykinin
Rationale: ACE, apart from converting Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, also degrades bradykinin.

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary effect of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation?
    a) Vasodilation
    b) Vasoconstriction
    c) Diuresis
    d) Decreased blood pressure
A

b) Vasoconstriction
Rationale: Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

47
Q
  1. Which of the following prostaglandins is known to induce fever?

A. PGF2α
B. PGE1
C. PGE2
D. PGI2

A

C. PGE2
Rationale: PGE2 plays a role in the hypothalamus to induce fever.

48
Q
  1. Which compound is primarily responsible for platelet aggregation?

A. PGE2
B. PGI2
C. LTB4
D. TXA2

A

D. TXA2
Rationale: Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is synthesized in platelets and promotes platelet aggregation.

49
Q

A 45-year-old woman presents with joint pain. She has been taking ibuprofen for relief. What mechanism does ibuprofen primarily utilize?

A) Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase
B) Cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonism
C) Inhibition of COX enzymes
D) Activation of COX enzymes

A

C) Inhibition of COX enzymes
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works primarily by inhibiting COX enzymes, thereby reducing prostaglandin synthesis.

50
Q

A patient with asthma has been prescribed montelukast. What is the primary action of this drug?

A) Vasodilation
B) Cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonism
C) Inhibition of COX enzymes
D) Platelet aggregation

A

B) Cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonism
Rationale: Montelukast is a cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonist, primarily used to treat asthma by preventing bronchoconstriction.

51
Q

A 32-year-old man takes aspirin daily for cardiovascular protection. What effect does aspirin have on platelets?

A) Increases platelet aggregation
B) No effect on platelet aggregation
C) Irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets, reducing aggregation
D) Activates COX-2 in platelets, increasing aggregation

A

C) Irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets, reducing aggregation
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets, leading to a decrease in thromboxane synthesis and thus reduced platelet aggregation.

52
Q

A 50-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent migraines. She has been advised to take a medication to reduce the frequency of her migraines. The drug is also known to cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation. What is the likely drug?

A) Zileuton
B) Zafirlukast
C) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
D) Thromboxane (TXA2)

A

C) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
Rationale: Prostacyclin (PGI2) causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation.

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of PGF2α?

A) Vasoconstriction
B) Bronchoconstriction
C) Vasodilation
D) Increase in uterine tone

A

C) Vasodilation
Rationale: PGF2α causes vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction, and an increase in uterine tone, but not vasodilation.

54
Q

A 60-year-old man with a history of gastric ulcers is prescribed a drug to reduce his risk of heart attacks. Which drug specifically inhibits COX-2 and is less likely to cause gastric side effects compared to traditional NSAIDs?

A) Ibuprofen
B) Naproxen
C) Celecoxib
D) Aspirin

A

C) Celecoxib
Rationale: Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor. It reduces prostaglandin synthesis with fewer gastric side effects compared to traditional NSAIDs.

55
Q

Which of the following leukotrienes primarily acts to attract and activate neutrophils?

A) LTC4
B) LTD4
C) LTB4
D) PGI2

A

C) LTB4
Rationale: LTB4 is primarily involved in neutrophil chemotaxis and activation.

56
Q

A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma experiences worsening of respiratory symptoms after taking a certain medication. Which drug is known to potentially increase leukotriene production in some asthmatic patients?

A) Montelukast
B) Zileuton
C) Celecoxib
D) Aspirin

A

D) Aspirin
Rationale: In some asthmatic patients, blocking the COX pathway with aspirin can shunt arachidonic acid metabolism towards the 5-lipoxygenase pathway, potentially increasing leukotriene production. This phenomenon is responsible for aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD).

57
Q

Which of the following is synthesized primarily in endothelial cells and acts to dilate blood vessels and inhibit platelet aggregation?

A) Thromboxane (TXA2)
B) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
C) PGE2
D) LTB4

A

B) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
Rationale: Prostacyclin (PGI2) is synthesized in endothelial cells and has vasodilatory and antiplatelet effects.

58
Q

A 30-year-old woman with a history of asthma is prescribed a medication to inhibit the synthesis of leukotrienes. Which drug acts by inhibiting the 5-lipoxygenase enzyme?

A) Zafirlukast
B) Montelukast
C) Zileuton
D) Aspirin

A

C) Zileuton
Rationale: Zileuton is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, thereby reducing leukotriene synthesis.

59
Q

A 40-year-old man presents with fever. Which prostaglandin is specifically involved in fever induction?

A) PGE1
B) PGE2
C) PGF2α
D) PGI2

A

B) PGE2
Rationale: PGE2 is involved in the induction of fever.

60
Q

Which prostaglandin is primarily responsible for protecting the gastric mucosa?

A) PGE1
B) PGE2
C) PGF2α
D) PGI2

A

B) PGE2
Rationale: PGE2 plays a role in protecting the gastric mucosa.

61
Q

A patient presents with bronchoconstriction and increased vascular permeability. Which leukotrienes are primarily responsible for these effects?

A) LTC4 and LTD4
B) LTB4 and LTC4
C) LTB4 and LTD4
D) PGE2 and PGI2

A

A) LTC4 and LTD4

Rationale: LTC4 and LTD4 are leukotrienes primarily responsible for bronchoconstriction and increased vascular permeability.

62
Q

A 65-year-old woman with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed a medication to prevent platelet aggregation. Which substance is primarily responsible for promoting platelet aggregation?

A) PGE2
B) PGI2
C) Thromboxane (TXA2)
D) LTB4

A

C) Thromboxane (TXA2)
Rationale: Thromboxane (TXA2) promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.

63
Q

A 28-year-old woman presents with menstrual cramps. Which prostaglandin is known to increase uterine tone and could be contributing to her symptoms?

A) PGE1
B) PGE2
C) PGF2α
D) PGI2

A

C) PGF2α
Rationale: PGF2α is known to increase uterine tone, which can contribute to menstrual cramps.

64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect associated with NSAIDs due to their inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis?

A) Gastric ulceration
B) Renal dysfunction
C) Bronchodilation
D) Bleeding

A

C) Bronchodilation
Rationale: NSAIDs can cause gastric ulceration, renal dysfunction, and bleeding due to their inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. They are not typically associated with bronchodilation.

65
Q

A patient with aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD) would likely have increased synthesis of which of the following after taking aspirin?

A) PGE2
B) Thromboxane
C) Leukotrienes
D) Prostacyclin

A

C) Leukotrienes
Rationale: In AERD, blocking the COX pathway with aspirin can shunt arachidonic acid metabolism towards the 5-lipoxygenase pathway, potentially increasing leukotriene production.

66
Q

Which of the following agents is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor used in the management of asthma?

A) Aspirin
B) Montelukast
C) Zileuton
D) Celecoxib

A

C) Zileuton
Rationale: Zileuton is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, which reduces the synthesis of leukotrienes and is used in the management of asthma.

67
Q

A 70-year-old man with a history of heart disease is taking a medication to prevent blood clotting. This medication irreversibly inhibits an enzyme in platelets. What is the medication?

A) Montelukast
B) Celecoxib
C) Zileuton
D) Aspirin

A

D) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets, leading to a decrease in thromboxane synthesis and thus reduced platelet aggregation.

68
Q

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease requires an anti-inflammatory drug. Which of the following drugs specifically inhibits COX-2 and has a lower risk for gastrointestinal side effects?

A) Ibuprofen
B) Aspirin
C) Naproxen
D) Celecoxib

A

D) Celecoxib
Rationale: Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor, which has a lower risk of gastrointestinal side effects compared to non-selective NSAIDs.

Pharma 1 (15 decks)

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