ANS - Feeds Flashcards
What is the primary clinical use of Neostigmine?
A) Treatment of Myasthenia Gravis
B) Diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis
C) Antidote for Atropine Toxicity
D) Cure for Alzheimer’s Disease
A) Treatment of Myasthenia Gravis
Edrophonium is best known for its role in:
A) Maintaining treatment in Alzheimer’s Disease
B) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
C) Providing a cure for Glaucoma
D) Reversing Atropine Toxicity
B) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
Physostigmine is primarily used for:
A) Maintenance therapy in Myasthenia Gravis
B) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
C) Treating Atropine Toxicity
D) Curing Alzheimer’s Disease
C) Treating Atropine Toxicity
Pyridostigmine is commonly used for:
A) The cure of Myasthenia Gravis
B) Maintenance therapy in Myasthenia Gravis
C) Diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis
D) Antidote for Atropine Toxicity
B) Maintenance therapy in Myasthenia Gravis
What is the primary use of Ipratropium?
A) Treatment of Parkinson’s Disease
B) Relief of Asthma Symptoms
C) Management of Antidepressant Overdose
D) Treatment of Allergic Reactions
B) Relief of Asthma Symptoms
Thorazine is primarily used as a:
A) Bronchodilator in Asthma
B) Treatment for Parkinson’s Disease
C) Antihistamine for Allergic Reactions
D) Antidepressant
D) Antidepressant
Diphenhydramine is commonly used as a:
A) Treatment for Parkinson’s Disease
B) Bronchodilator in Asthma
C) Antihistamine for Allergic Reactions
D) Antipsychotic Medication
C) Antihistamine for Allergic Reactions
Benztropine is used primarily in the treatment of:
A) Asthma
B) Parkinson’s Disease
C) Depression
D) Allergic Reactions
B) Parkinson’s Disease
Is it true that all sympatholytics decrease libido?
A) True
B) False
B) False
Do beta blockers decrease angina?
A) True
B) False
A) True
Atropine lasts 4 hours in the body and 24 hours in the eye. Is this statement:
A) True
B) False
B) False
Atropine:
Body: 4 hours
Eyes: 72 hours
Atenolol
Acetabutol
Esmolol
Metoprolol
A) Selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker
A) Selective Beta Blocker
Selective: A-M
Nonselective: N-Z
Alpha/Beta - Carvedilol & Labetalol
Nadolol
Timolol
Pindolol
A) Selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker
Carvedilol
Labetalol
A) Selective Beta Blocker
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker (alpha + Beta)
B) Non-selective Beta Blocker (alpha + Beta)
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily involved in the control of sphincter muscles?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3
C) M3
Which muscarinic receptor subtype predominantly affects the SA node in the heart?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3
B) M2
The AV node in the heart is primarily influenced by which muscarinic receptor subtype?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3
B) M2
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily involved in stimulating gastrointestinal secretions?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3
A) M1
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is associated with the dilatation of blood vessels?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3
C) M3
Bethanechol/Carbachol is classified as a:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
Carbachol directly stimulates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.
Organophosphates are classified as:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonists
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonists
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonists
Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to increased acetylcholine levels.
Neostigmine is classified as a:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist - Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, thereby increasing acetylcholine levels.
Pilocarpine is a:
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist
B) Indirect acting cholinergic agonist
A) Direct acting cholinergic agonist - Pilocarpine directly stimulates muscarinic receptors.
Clonidine can be used in the treatment of:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium
B) Orthostatic hypotension -
Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that can cause orthostatic hypotension as a side effect.
Terbutaline may lead to:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium
C) Tachyphylaxis -
Terbutaline/Ritodrine, a beta-2 agonist, can cause tachyphylaxis, especially when used for prolonged periods.
-Relax uterus during premature labor
Tyramine is most associated with:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium
A) Hypertensive emergency -
Tyramine, especially when ingested in large amounts in patients taking MAO inhibitors, can lead to a hypertensive crisis.
Atropine is commonly used to treat:
A) Hypertensive emergency
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Tachyphylaxis
D) Delirium
D) Delirium -
Atropine can cause delirium, especially in higher doses, due to its anticholinergic effects.
The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Epinephrine
A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Brimonidine
A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis
The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Beta Blockers: Timolol/ Betaxolol/ Carteolol
A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis
A. Decrease humor secretion
The following glaucoma drugs does what effect?
Cholinomimetic: Pilocarpine/ Carbachol/ Physostigmine/ Echothipate
A. Decrease humor secretion
B. Increase outflow of aqueous humor
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
D. decrease aqueous humor synthesis
C. Ciliary muscle contraction
What is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine
C. Pralidoxime
Which drug is used as an antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine
A. Dantrolene
What is the antidote used during Phase 2 of Succinylcholine metabolism?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine
B. Neostigmine
Which medication is used to alleviate symptoms of opiate withdrawal?
A. Dantrolene
B. Neostigmine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Clonidine
D. Clonidine
Which cholinergic drug, known to cross the blood-brain barrier, can potentially cause seizures as an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Physostigmine
B. Physostigmine
Which cholinesterase inhibitor, capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier, may lead to hallucinations as an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Physostigmine
A. Pilocarpine
- Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholine
A. Irreversibly, covalently for 1 week
B. Irreversibly, covalently for 2 weeks
C. Reversibly, covalently for 1 week
D. Reversibly, covalently for 2 weeks
A. Irreversibly, covalently for 1 week
- The following are drugs of Myasthenia gravis EXCEPT
A. Neostigmine
B. Edrophonium
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Physostigmine
D. Physostigmine
What is the effect of acetylcholine in the eyes?
A. Mydriasis
B. Miosis
C. Cycloplegia
D. Ptosis
B. Miosis
- Duration of action of Pyridostigmine
A. 2-4 hours
B. 3-6 hours
C. 4-8 hours
D. 5-7 hours
B. 3-6 hours
- Duration of action of atropine in the eyes
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
C. 72 hours
Atropine
Body - 4 hours
Eyes - 72 hours (3 days)
- ADR of Clonidine and Prazosin
A. Hypertension
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Anemia
D. Headache
B. Orthostatic hypotension
- ADR of Albuterol
A. Tachycardia
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Tachyphylaxis
D. Septic Shock
A. Tachycardia
- True about EPINEPHRINE
A. Stimulate A receptors at high dose and B receptors at low dose
B. Stimulate A receptors at low dose and B receptors at high dose
C. Stimulate dopamine receptors at high dose and B receptors at low dose
D. Stimulate gamma receptors at high dose and A receptors at low dose
B. Stimulate A receptors at low dose and B receptors at high dose
Epinephrine (A 1/2= B 1/2)
Low dose - Alpha
High dose - Beta
- Tyramine causes hypertensive emergency with;
A. ACEI
B. ARB
C. MAOI
D. Diphenhydramine
C. MAOI
Phenoxybenzamine is primarily used in the treatment of:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)
A. Pheochromocytoma
Phentolamine is most commonly used for:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)
A. Pheochromocytoma
Terazosin is typically prescribed for:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Yohimbine has been used, though controversially, for the treatment of:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Impotence (controversial)
C. Impotence (controversial)
- Guanethidine
A. causes orthostatic hypotension and sexual dysfunction
B. causes orthostatic hypotension and depression
C. causes orthostatic hypotension and bradycardia
D. causes orthostatic hypotension and bronchospasm
A. causes orthostatic hypotension and sexual dysfunction
- Indirect adrenergic agonist that causes CNS depression
A. Norepinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Reserpine
D. Epinephrine
C. Reserpine
SE:
CNS Depression
Bradycardia
- Sympathetic Nervous system is controlled by afferent division of Peripheral nervous system
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system, responsible for sending signals from the central nervous system to the body.
- Cardiac output is controlled by somatic nervous system
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
Cardiac output is primarily controlled by the autonomic nervous system, not the somatic nervous system.
- Sympathetic nervous system stimulates exocrine secretion
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
Generally, the parasympathetic nervous system stimulates exocrine secretion, not the sympathetic.
- Parasympathetic Nervous system makes the spleen contract
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
The spleen contraction is more related to the sympathetic nervous system.
- Parasympathetic nervous system contracts the uterus of a pregnant woman
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
Uterine contraction during labor is influenced by the hormone oxytocin and is not directly controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system. (Sympathetic)
- Sympathetic nervous system causes penile erection
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
Penile erection is primarily a function of the parasympathetic nervous system.
- Parasympathetic nervous system causes mucoid salivation
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
Mucoid salivation is generally associated with the sympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system typically promotes watery salivation.
- Thoracolumbar post ganglionic end is controlled by norepinephrine
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A. TRUE
The thoracolumbar region is part of the sympathetic nervous system, where postganglionic neurons use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter.
- Sympathetic output is discrete because postganglionic neurons are not branched but are directed to a specific organ.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B. FALSE
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons often have multiple branches, allowing for a more diffused effect on multiple organs.B. FALSE
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons often have multiple branches, allowing for a more diffused effect on multiple organs.
- Parasympathetic nervous system closes sphincters
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A. TRUE
- The parasympathetic nervous system typically promotes the closing of sphincters in the digestive system.
