AntiMicroBial Flashcards
This is a macrolide that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microorganism.
A. Amikacin
B. Vancomycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Cephalexin
C. Erythromycin
The main target of this drug is topoisomerase II which regulates overwinding or unwinding of the DNA *
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Fluroquinolone
C. Cetriaxone
D. Ketoconazole
B. Fluoroquinolone
Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that target bacterial DNA topoisomerases, including topoisomerase II (also known as DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. These enzymes are essential for DNA replication, transcription, repair, and recombination in bacteria. By inhibiting these enzymes, fluoroquinolones prevent proper DNA replication and transcription, leading to bacterial cell death. The other options listed have different mechanisms of action:
A. Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
C. Ceftriaxone is a beta-lactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.
D. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that interferes with the synthesis of ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes.
Bactericidal drugs are preferred for *
A. Endocarditis
B. WBC of 700
C. with strong immunity
D. Paients with tumors
A. Endocardiis
Examples of narrow spectrum antibioics, EXCEPT *
A. oxacillin
B. cephalexin
C. cefazolin
D. ceftriaxone
D. Ceftriaxone
Broad spectrum
Cabapenems
Tetracyclines
3rd gen (Ceft, Cefo)
Cefoperazone
Cefotaxime
Cefixime
Ceftriaxone is the exception here, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. It is effective against a wider range of bacteria, including many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Ceftriaxone is often used to treat infections like pneumonia, bacterial meningitis, and gonorrhea, among others, where a broad-spectrum antibiotic is necessary.
Oxacillin, cephalexin, and cefazolin are primarily effective against certain gram-positive bacteria and have a more limited range of activity against gram-negative bacteria.
- Examples of narrow spectrum antibiotics, EXCEPT*
a. methicillin
b. cloxacillin
c. cefazolin
d. imipenem
d. imipenem
Broad spectrum
Cabapenems
Tetracyclines
3rd gen (Ceft, Cefo)
Cefoperazone
Cefotaxime
Cefixime
Which of the following Penicillins are used for prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever
A. Pen V
B. Pen G Procaine
C. Pen G Benzathine
D. Pen G
C. Pen G Benzathine
Penicillin can cause seizure to which of the following patients? *
A. Newborns
B. Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease
C. Patients with Liver disease
D. A and B
E. A and C
D. A and B
A. Newborns
B. Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease
Newborns and patients with chronic kidney disease are at increased risk of seizures when administered penicillin. In newborns, the risk is due to the immaturity of their neurological and metabolic systems, making them more susceptible to the neurological side effects of certain medications, including penicillin.
Anti staphylococcal penicillin that can cause interstitial nephritis *
A. Cloxacillin
B. Oxacillin
C. Methicillin
D. Nafcicillin
C. Methicillin
Methicillin has been associated with the development of interstitial nephritis, a form of kidney inflammation. This adverse effect is one of the reasons why methicillin is less commonly used nowadays in clinical practice.
The following are covered by 1st generation cephalosporin, EXCEPT *
A. Proteus
B. Klebsiella
C. Haemophilus
D. E.coli
C. Haemophilus
1st gen: PEcK
1st generation cephalosporins, such as Cefadroxil, Cefazolin, and Cephalexin, cover a range of bacteria including Proteus mirabilis, E. coli, and Klebsiella (often summarized as PEcK). However, they have limited or no activity against Haemophilus species. Haemophilus coverage is more characteristic of some 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins.
3rd Generation Cephalosporin that is anti-pseudomonas *
A. Cefazolin
B. Cefipime
C. Ceftazidime
D. Cefuroxime
C. Ceftazidime
or Cefoperazone
Ceftazidime is specifically known for its effectiveness against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, making it a valuable choice in treating infections caused by this bacterium. The other options listed are different generations of cephalosporins and do not have the same level of activity against Pseudomonas:
A. Cefazolin is a 1st generation cephalosporin.
B. Cefepime is a 4th generation cephalosporin, not 3rd.
D. Cefuroxime is a 2nd generation cephalosporin.
Cephalosporin with gram positive and Pseudomonas coverage *
A. Cefazolin
B. Cefepime
C. Cetazidime
D. Cefuroxime
B. Cefepime
Cefepime, a 4th generation cephalosporin, is known for its broad spectrum of activity. It covers a wide range of Gram-positive bacteria and is also effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This dual coverage makes it a versatile choice in certain infections. The other options do not provide the same combined coverage:
A. Cefazolin (1st generation) has good Gram-positive coverage but limited Pseudomonas coverage.
C. Ceftazidime (3rd generation) is effective against Pseudomonas but has less Gram-positive coverage.
D. Cefuroxime (2nd generation) has a broader Gram-positive coverage but is not particularly effective against Pseudomonas.
Cephalosporin has no coverage on the following, EXCEPT *
A. Listeria
B. Ureaplasma
C. MRSA
D. E. coli
D. E. coli
Cephalosporins are generally effective against a range of Gram-negative bacteria, including E. coli. They are known for not covering the following:
A. Listeria
B. Ureaplasma (an atypical bacterium)
C. MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)
These limitations are often summarized by the mnemonic “LAME,” indicating that cephalosporins lack activity against Listeria, Atypicals (like Ureaplasma), MRSA, and Enterococci.
Which of the following has coverage for gram +, gram - and anaerobics? *
A. Cephalosporins
B. Monobactams
C. Carbapenems
D. Vancomycin
C. Carbapenems
Carbapenems, such as Imipenem, are known for their broad-spectrum activity, which includes effective coverage against Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and anaerobic organisms. They are often referred to as “super drugs” for their wide range of antimicrobial activity.
Tetracyclines are contraindicated to pregnant women and *
A. < 8 yo
B. 9 yo and above
C. < 18 yo
D. 19 yo and above
A. < 8 yo
Tetracyclines are not recommended for use in children under 8 years old due to the potential for adverse effects on bone and teeth development.
VACUUM YOUR BEDROOM TONIGHT
Vibrio cholera
Acne
Chlamydia
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Borrelia burgdorferi
Rickettsia
Tularemia
TRUE about Erythromycin *
A. Effective against Gram - bacteria
B. Bacteriostatic at low concentration
C. Bacteriostatic at high concentration
D. Bactericidal at low concentration
B. Bacteriostatic at low concentration
Erythromycin is known to be bacteriostatic at low concentrations, meaning it inhibits the growth and multiplication of bacteria without necessarily killing them. At higher concentrations, it can become bactericidal, effectively killing the bacteria.
Antibiotic-associated colitis.
A. Cefuroxime
B. Clindamycin
C. Neilmicin
D. Rifampicin
B. Clindamycin
Clindamycin is notably associated with the development of antibiotic-associated colitis, particularly due to its effect on the normal flora of the colon and its potential to promote the growth of Clostridium difficile, a bacterium that can cause severe colitis.
- Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients *
A. Amphotericin B
B. Flucytosine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Fluconazole
D. Fluconazole
Fluconazole is commonly used as the initial or maintenance treatment for cryptococcal meningitis, especially in AIDS patients, due to its ability to penetrate the central nervous system effectively.
- Prophylaxis used to prevent influenza for adults *
A. Amantadine
B. Rimantadine
C. Ribavarin
D. Acyclovir
A. Amantadine
Amantadine is used for the prophylactic treatment of influenza in adults, as it can prevent infections when used before exposure to the influenza virus and can also reduce the severity of symptoms if used shortly after the onset of illness.
Acetaminophen increases risk of hematologic toxicity
A. Stavudine (d4T)
B. Zidovudine (AZT)
C. Indinavir
D. Nevirapine
B. Zidovudine
-
Drug Resistance
- Occurs due to mutations in the reverse transcriptase enzyme of HIV.
-
Adverse Reactions
- Headache
- Nausea and Vomiting (N&V)
- Myalgias (muscle pains)
- Anemia
- Neutropenia (low levels of neutrophils)
- Macrocytosis (enlarged red blood cells)
-
Pharmacokinetics
- Administration route: Oral (PO), well absorbed.
- Metabolism: Rapidly metabolized by the liver.
-
Notes
- Use of acetaminophen increases the risk of hematologic toxicity when taken with Zidovudine. This is particularly important due to Zidovudine’s effects on red and white blood cells, which can be exacerbated by the concurrent use of acetaminophen.
Results in immature virus formation
A. Stavudine (d4T)
B. Zidovudine (AZT)
C. Indinavir
D. Nevirapine
C. Indinavir
Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV. It works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, which is essential for the maturation of new virus particles. By inhibiting this enzyme, indinavir leads to the production of immature, non-infectious viral particles.
Metabolized interacellularly to dideoxynucleoide triphosphate which inhibits reverse transcriptase and incorporates into viral DNA. Subsequent nucleoides fail to bind to ddATP because it lacks the necessary free 3’ OH group, thus DNA chain terminaion occurs. *
A. Zalcitabine
B. Zidovudine (AZT)
C. Didanosine
D. Stavudine (d4T)
C. Didanosine
Didanosine (ddI) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV. It is metabolized inside cells to its active form, dideoxyadenosine triphosphate (ddATP), which competes with natural nucleotides for incorporation into viral DNA by reverse transcriptase. Its lack of a 3’ hydroxyl group prevents the addition of further nucleotides, thereby terminating the DNA chain extension.
Drug of choice for Arena viruses
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavarin
C. Idoxorudine
D. Foscarnet
B. Ribavarin
Mnemonic for Ribavirin (RIBAvirin):
RSV.
Influenza B.
Arenaviruses (such as Lassa fever).
Drug of choice for herpes simplex keratis
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavarin
C. Idoxorudine
D. Foscarnet
C. Idoxuridine
Idoxuridine is specifically used for the treatment of herpes simplex keratitis, a condition affecting the eye.
Hepatotoxic guanine analog *
A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciclovir
C. Amantadine
D. Vidarabine
B. Ganciclovir
Ganciclovir is a guanine analog known to have potential hepatotoxic effects.
The following aminoglycosides are given intravenously EXCEPT *
A. Amikacin
B. Neilmicin
C. Neomycin
D. Gentamicin
C. Neomycin
All given intravenously (IV) except Neomycin, which is used topically.
Vitamin that is given with Isoniazid in patents with PTB
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
Pyridoxine, also known as Vitamin B6, is often administered alongside Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a potential side effect of Isoniazid therapy.
Cytochrome P450 Inhibitor except*
A. Rifampin
B. Metronidazole
C. Isoniazid
D. all of the above
A. Rifampin
What is the purpose of the carbapenem-cilastatin combination?
A. Cilastatin protects carbapenem from dehydropeptidase I in the kidney, prolonging its antibacterial effects.
B. Carbapenem protects cilastatin from dehydropeptidase I, prolonging its antibacterial effects.
C. Cilastatin induces the activity of dehydropeptidase I.
D. Carbapenem causes seizures when given as monotherapy
A. Cilastatin protects carbapenem from dehydropeptidase I in the kidney, prolonging its antibacterial effects.
Cilastatin is combined with carbapenems like imipenem to inhibit the enzyme dehydropeptidase I in the kidneys. This enzyme would otherwise degrade the carbapenem, reducing its effectiveness. By inhibiting this enzyme, cilastatin prolongs the antibacterial effect of the carbapenem.
Bacitracin is given topical because this could happen when taken internally
A. hepatotoxicity
B. neurotoxicity
C. nephrotoxicity
D. ototoxicity
C. Nephrotoxicity
Adverse Effects:
-Highly nephrotoxic when administered systemically.
-Poorly absorbed through the skin, which limits its action to local antibacterial activity.
Empiric therapy for pharyngitis is
A. Ampicillin
B. Terbinafine
С. Chloroquine
A. Ampicillin
Ampicillin is a broad-spectrum penicillin antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial pharyngitis, especially when the causative agent is suspected to be Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus).
The other options, B. Terbinafine (an antifungal medication) and C. Chloroquine (an antimalarial and anti-inflammatory medication), are not typically used for treating pharyngitis.
70-75. Antiviral Nucleotide analog *
A. thymidine
B. adenosine
C. cytosine
D. non-nucleoside
- Zidovudine
- Didanosine
- Zalcitabine
- Stavudine
- Nevirapine
- Delavirdine
Nucleotide Analog:
Thymidine analog
Zidovudine (AZT)
Stavudine (d4T)
Adenosine analog:
Didanosine (ddI)
Cytosine analog:
Zalcitabine (ddC)
Non-Nucleoside Analogs:
Nevirapine
Delavirdine
94-100. Protein synthesis inhibitors
A. Formation of initiation complex
B. Amino Acid Incorporation
C. Formation of Peptide Bond
D. Translocation
- Azithromycin
- Chloramphenicol
- Clarithromycin
- Clindamycin
- Netilmicin
- Tetracycline
- Erythromycin
Aminoglycosides:
* Netilmicin
Tetracyclines:
Chloramphenicol:
* Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
Macrolides:
* Erythromycin (prototype)
* Clarithromycin
* Azithromycin
Lincosamide:
* Clindamycin
