LE4 Flashcards

1
Q

Alcohol dependence CAGE Questionnaire includes the following EXCEPT one:
A. Have you ever felt you needed a drink first thing in the morning to steady your nerves or to get rid of a hangover?
B. Have you ever felt you needed more drink to get drunk?
C. Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
D. Have you ever felt you needed to cut down on your drinking?
E. Have you ever felt guilty about drinking?

A

B. Have you ever felt you needed more drink to get drunk?

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire consists of four questions, and the option B is not one of them. The acronym CAGE stands for Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye-opener.

Answer: B. Have you ever felt you needed more drink to get drunk?

Rationale: The CAGE Questionnaire is a brief tool used to screen for alcohol dependence. The acronym “CAGE” stands for:

C - Have you ever felt you should Cut down on your drinking?
A - Have people Annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
G - Have you ever felt Guilty about drinking?
E - Have you ever felt you needed a drink first thing in the morning (Eye-opener) to steady your nerves or to get rid of a hangover?

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2
Q

Blockage of a-adrenoceptor-mediated vascular tone can result to:
A. Fluid sequestration
B. Arrhythmia
C. peripheral vascular collapse
D. CNS depression
E. Hypotension

A

E. Hypotension

Rationale: α-adrenoceptors are found in the smooth muscle of blood vessels, and their activation generally results in vasoconstriction, which increases blood pressure. If you block α-adrenoceptor-mediated vascular tone, you prevent this vasoconstriction. As a consequence, the blood vessels dilate, leading to a decrease in blood pressure, known as hypotension.

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3
Q

To predict the requirement for isoflurane in milliliters of vapor per minute during closed anesthesia, each of the following is necessary EXCEPT
A. MAC of isoflurane
B. cardiac output
C. Duration of administration
D. Blood-Gas partition coefficient
E. oxygen consumption

A

C. Duration of administration.
While the duration of administration might influence the total amount of anesthetic used, it’s not directly used to predict the milliliters of vapor per minute requirement.

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4
Q

Flumazenil should not be used in benzodiazepine toxicity for patients with
A. cardiac ailments
B. seizure disorders
C. history of tricyclic antidepressants use

A

C. history of tricyclic antidepressants use
Rationale: Flumazenil can precipitate seizures, especially in patients with benzodiazepine overdose who have also ingested tricyclic antidepressants.

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5
Q

Alleged to be sex enhancers; can cause dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension, and flushing
A. Sertraline
B. Opioids
C. Metamphetamine
D. Organic nitrates

A

D. Organic nitrates
Rationale: Organic nitrates, like nitroglycerin, can cause vasodilation leading to the mentioned symptoms. They are sometimes misused for their vasodilatory effects.

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6
Q

Which has no specific antidote?
A. NO
B. HCN-
C. CO
D. Hydrogen sulfide

A

D. Hydrogen sulfide

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7
Q

Nystagmus, dysarthria and ataxia may be due to poisoning from (Check ALL that apply)
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenytoin
C. Alcohol

A

A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenyton
C. Alcohol

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8
Q

Molecular mechanisms of GAB-A is potentiated by the following EXCEPT
A. Etomidate
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane
D. Propofol

A

B. Nitrous oxide.
While nitrous oxide has anesthetic properties, it does not potentiate GABA-A receptors in the same manner as some other anesthetics. Etomidate, halothane, and propofol are known to potentiate the effects of GABA at the GABA-A receptor.

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9
Q

Compared with lidocaine, bupivacaine is more likely to cause dysrhythmias because
it
A. produces more prolonged block of sodium channels
B. enhances potassium-hydrogen ion exchange
C. sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines
D. sustains calcium channels open

A

A. produces more prolonged block of sodium channels.
Bupivacaine’s cardiotoxicity is primarily due to its prolonged blockade of sodium channels in the cardiac myocytes, which can lead to dysrhythmias.

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a hallucinogenic?
A. LSD
B. Isobutyl nitrite
C. MDMA
D. Cannabis

A

B. Isobutyl nitrite.
Isobutyl nitrite is a type of “poppers,” which are vasodilators. They can cause a brief sensation of warmth and dizziness but are not hallucinogenic. LSD, MDMA, and cannabis have hallucinogenic properties.

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11
Q

Antidote is naloxone
A. Hallucinogens
B. Opioid
C. Metamphetamine
D. Depressant

A

B. Opioid.

Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist and is used to reverse opioid overdoses.

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12
Q

Flunitrazepam, a potent rapid-onset benzodiazepine with marked amnesic properties has been used in “date-rape
A. Stimulant
B. Opioid
C. Depressant
D. Hallucinogen

A

C. Depressant.
Benzodiazepines, including flunitrazepam, are central nervous system depressants.

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13
Q

Muscular rigidity can be caused by overdosage with (Check all that apply)
A. Theophylline
B. Haloperidol
C. Strychnine

A

B. Haloperidol
C. Strychnine

Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a side effect that includes muscle rigidity. Strychnine, a poison, causes muscle spasms and rigidity.
Theophylline does not typically cause muscular rigidity.

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14
Q

Which general anesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors?
A. Desflurane
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Halothane

A

B. Ketamine

Ketamine is known for its NMDA receptor antagonism, which contributes to its anesthetic and analgesic effects.

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15
Q

True regarding opioids EXCEPT
A. Among health professionals meperidine and fentanyl are commonly misused
B. Overdose can result to nystagmus, marked hypertension, seizures which may be fatal
C. Most commonly used drugs are heroin, morphine, oxycodone
D. Overdose is managed with intravenous naloxone and ventilatory support

A

B. Overdose can result to nystagmus, marked hypertension, seizures which may be fatal

Opioid overdose typically results in respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and unconsciousness. Nystagmus, marked hypertension, and seizures are not typical symptoms of opioid overdose.

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16
Q

This binds to cytochrome A3 to block cellular oxygen use
A. Cyanide
B. Nitric oxide
C. Rotenone
D. Uncoupler

A

A. Cyanide

Cyanide poisoning inhibits cytochrome c oxidase (also known as complex IV), a component of the electron transport chain in mitochondria, thereby preventing cellular respiration.

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17
Q

Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?
A. Whether the substances are regularly used by other family members
B. Whether you are born in the winter
C. Whether you are a twin
D. Whether you are rich and famous

A

A. Whether the substances are regularly used by other family members

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18
Q

An 18-year-old female patient is brought to the emergency department due to drug overdose. Which of the following routes of administration is the most desirable for administering the antidote for the drug overdose?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous

A

C. Intravenous

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19
Q

This drug is alleged to be a sex enhancer which causes dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension and flushing
A. MDMA
B. Caffeine
C. Isobutyl nitrate
D. Psilocybin
E. Diethyl ether

A

C. Isobutyl nitrate.

Rationale: Isobutyl nitrate, commonly known as “poppers”, is sometimes used recreationally for its short-lived rush and is also alleged to be a sex enhancer. It can cause side effects like dizziness, tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and flushing.

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20
Q

Chronic use may lead to psychotic state (with delusions and paranoia) that is difficult to differentiate from schizophrenia
A. Hallucinogens
B. Sedative hypnotics
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants

A

A. Hallucinogens

Rationale: Chronic use of hallucinogens, such as LSD and phencyclidine (PCP), can lead to a psychotic state characterized by delusions and paranoia that can be hard to differentiate from schizophrenia. Stimulants can also induce psychotic symptoms, especially with overdose or prolonged use, but hallucinogens are more classically associated with inducing a state that mimics schizophrenia. Sedative hypnotics and depressants are less likely to produce such symptoms.

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21
Q

Hyperthermia as a result of sustained muscular hyperactivity which may led to
ЕХСЕРТ:
A. Hypokalemia
B. renal failure
C. lactic acidosis
D. none of these

A

A. Hypokalemia

A. Hypokalemia - Possible, but as mentioned earlier, rhabdomyolysis typically first causes hyperkalemia.
B. Renal failure - YES, due to myoglobinuria from rhabdomyolysis.
C. Lactic acidosis - YES, due to anaerobic metabolism.

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22
Q

TRUE regarding initial management in poisoning cases (check all that apply)
A. serum glucose and other determinations can be done from an intravenous line
B. patients with altered mental status should receive a challenge with concentrated dextrose
C. place the patient in lateral decubitus
D. position to move the flaccid tongue out of the airway

A

TRUE:
A. serum glucose and other determinations can be done from an intravenous line
C. place the patient in lateral decubitus
D. position to move the flaccid tongue out of the airway

Rationale:
A. Blood can be drawn from an IV line for various laboratory determinations, including serum glucose.
C. Placing a patient in the lateral decubitus (side-lying) position can help prevent aspiration, especially in unconscious or semi-conscious patients.
D. Positioning can help move a flaccid tongue out of the airway, which can improve airway patency in unconscious patients.

B. While hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) is a common cause of altered mental status, it’s not appropriate to give concentrated dextrose to all patients with altered mental status without first determining the blood glucose level. Administering concentrated dextrose to a patient who doesn’t have hypoglycemia can cause hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and other complications.

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23
Q

The following are factors that may increase МАС EXCEPT one:
A. Hyperthermia
B. Age
C. Catecholamine levels

A

B. Age

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24
Q

Apnea, non-reacted dilated pupils, circulatory failure, and hypertension are most likely associated with this stage of general anesthesia:
A. surgical anesthesia
B. medullary depression
C. amnesia/analgesia
D. delirium

A

B. medullary depression.

Rationale: The stages of general anesthesia were historically described as four stages. Medullary depression, often referred to as Stage IV, is the stage where there is a danger of respiratory and cardiovascular depression. It is marked by apnea, non-reactive dilated pupils, circulatory failure, and often a decrease in blood pressure (hypotension, not hypertension). This stage is considered dangerous and can be lethal; thus, it is important to prevent patients from entering this stage during anesthesia.

  1. Stage I: Analgesia (or Induction)
    • Amnesia
    • Analgesia
    • Euphoria
    1. Stage II: Delirium (or Excitement)
      • Delirium
      • Combative behavior
      • Irregular respiration
      • Involuntary movements
    2. Stage III: Surgical Anesthesia
      • Surgical depth
      • Regular respiration
      • Loss of eyelash reflex
      • Progressive muscular relaxation
    3. Stage IV: Medullary Depression
      • Apnea
      • Non-reactive dilated pupils
      • Circulatory failure
      • Danger of death
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25
Q

Pre-Anesthetic Medication is given
A. to make the anesthetic procedure pleasant and safe
B. to decrease the duration of surgery
C. to maintain blood pressure
D. to control the patient’s comorbidity

A

A. to make the anesthetic procedure pleasant and safe.

Rationale: Pre-anesthetic medication is typically administered to reduce anxiety, prevent adverse responses to the induction of anesthesia, reduce the amount of induction agent needed, and to minimize potential adverse effects of anesthesia. The goal is to make the anesthetic procedure more pleasant for the patient and safer in terms of potential complications.

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26
Q

The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anesthetic is a measure of
A. Efficacy
B. Therapeutic index
C. Diffusibility
D. Potency

A

D. Potency.

Rationale: The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhalational anesthetic represents the concentration of the anesthetic in the alveoli of the lungs at which 50% of subjects do not respond to a standard painful stimulus. It is a measure of the potency of the anesthetic agent, with a lower MAC indicating a more potent agent.

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27
Q

Dissociative anesthesia is induced by
A. midazolam
B. nitrous oxide
C. thiopentone
D. ketamine

A

The answer is:
D. Ketamine

Rationale:
Ketamine is known to induce dissociative anesthesia, a unique state in which the patient feels detached from their environment and may experience hallucinations or dream-like states. While maintaining some level of consciousness, patients often feel disconnected from their pain. This is different from the profound sedation or traditional anesthesia induced by the other agents listed.

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28
Q

Headache, vomiting, seizures, coma are symptoms. Treatment is 100% O2 administration
A. Cyanide poisoning
B. Halothane overdose
C. Methane poisoning
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

A

D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning. CO binds to hemoglobin with a much greater affinity than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This can lead to hypoxia, presenting with symptoms like headache, vomiting, seizures, and in severe cases, coma. The treatment for CO poisoning is to administer 100% oxygen to displace the CO from hemoglobin, allowing it to bind to oxygen instead.

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29
Q

All are true of ether except:
A. Recovery is fast
B. Highly soluble in blood
C. Irritant, inflammable, explosive
D. Potent anesthetic, good muscle relaxant

A

B. Highly soluble in blood

Rationale: Ether is actually poorly soluble in blood, which contributes to its fast induction and recovery. The other options are accurate descriptions of ether: it’s an irritant, inflammable, explosive, a potent anesthetic, and a good muscle relaxant.

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30
Q

Ecstasy toxicity causes (check all that apply)
A. Trismus
B. Dilated pupils
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Hyperreflexia

A

A. Trismus
B. Dilated pupils
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Hyperreflexia

Ecstasy, commonly known as MDMA, can have various effects when consumed in toxic amounts. Let’s evaluate the options:

A. Trismus - Apply (Trismus, or jaw clenching, is commonly associated with Ecstasy use.)
B. Dilated pupils - Apply (Dilated pupils are a known effect of Ecstasy use.)
C. Visual hallucinations - Apply (While Ecstasy is primarily an entactogen, it can sometimes produce hallucinations.)
D. Hyperreflexia - Apply (Hyperreflexia can be a symptom of serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by excessive amounts of MDMA.)

Rationale:
Ecstasy (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception. It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens and can produce feelings of increased energy, pleasure, and distorted sensory perceptions. In toxic amounts, it can cause a range of effects including the ones listed above. Trismus or jaw clenching is notably common with its use. The drug can also cause dilated pupils, visual hallucinations, and hyperreflexia, especially in the context of serotonin syndrome.

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31
Q

The following general anesthetic has good analgesic but poor muscle relaxant action:
A. Ether
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Nitrous oxide

A

D. Nitrous oxide

Rationale: Nitrous oxide (often referred to as “laughing gas”) is a general anesthetic that provides good analgesic properties but has poor muscle relaxant action compared to other anesthetics on the list.

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32
Q

Rationale for use of intravenous (fixed) anesthetic agents with inhalational agents (check all that apply)
A. enable lower doses of inhalational agent to be used
B. enhance or provide analgesia
C. reduce visceral reflex responses

A

A. enable lower doses of inhalational agent to be used
B. enhance or provide analgesia
C. reduce visceral reflex responses

Rationale:
Using intravenous (IV) anesthetic agents in combination with inhalational agents has several advantages:

A. By using IV agents alongside inhalational agents, it’s possible to reduce the dose of the inhalational agent required to achieve the desired depth of anesthesia. This can minimize side effects and complications related to the inhalational agents.

B. Some IV anesthetic agents, like opioids, can provide or enhance analgesia during surgery, which is beneficial for patient comfort and post-operative pain management.

C. Combining IV and inhalational agents can help suppress unwanted physiological reflexes, such as visceral reflex responses, which might occur during surgery.

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33
Q

ANESTHETIC POTENCY
A. MAC values are highly dependent on the nature of the painful stimulus
B. At equilibrium the partial pressure of the anesthetic gas in the lung is usually significantly higher than the partial pressure of the gas in the brain.
C. Concerning anesthetic gases – there is a rapid equilibrium between blood and brain partial pressures
D. MAC values are relatively sensitive to patient gender, height, weight, and anesthesia duration

A

C. Concerning anesthetic gases – there is a rapid equilibrium between blood and brain partial pressures

Rationale: Anesthetic gases tend to have a rapid onset of action because they achieve equilibrium quickly between the blood and the brain. This property allows inhaled anesthetics to induce and reverse anesthesia efficiently. When the anesthetic is inhaled, it quickly passes from the lungs into the bloodstream and then from the blood to the brain, where it exerts its anesthetic effect. This rapid equilibrium is essential for the precise control of the depth of anesthesia during surgical procedures.

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34
Q

What is the best method of GI decontamination with bags of cocaine ingestion?
A. Gastric lavage
B. Cathartics
C. Activated charcoal
D. Ipecac
E. whole bowel irrigation

A

E. whole bowel irrigation

Rationale: In cases where packets or bags of drugs (like cocaine) have been ingested, the primary concern is the rupture of a packet, which can lead to a rapid and potentially lethal absorption of the drug. Whole bowel irrigation (WBI) with polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution is recommended to enhance the passage of the packets through the gastrointestinal tract and prevent rupture. The other options listed, like gastric lavage, cathartics, activated charcoal, and ipecac, are not as effective in this specific scenario or might even be contraindicated.

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35
Q

Nitrous oxide anesthesia (TICK ALL POSSIBLE ANSWERS)
A. relative solubility of nitrous oxide prevents rapid absorption of significant quantities of gas
B. typically used in combination with the inducing agent (e.g. thiopental (Pentothal),
C. the skeletal muscle relaxant, and hyperventilation
D. may be associated with diffusional hypoxia

A

B. typically used in combination with the inducing agent (e.g. thiopental (Pentothal) - TRUE
C. the skeletal muscle relaxant, and hyperventilation - TRUE
D. may be associated with diffusional hypoxia - TRUE

Rationale:
A. Nitrous oxide has a low blood/gas solubility coefficient, which means it’s rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream and quickly eliminated from the body via the lungs. This property allows for quick onset and offset of its anesthetic effects.
B. Nitrous oxide is typically used as part of a balanced anesthesia technique, combined with other agents such as inducing agents like thiopental.
C. Nitrous oxide is often used in combination with skeletal muscle relaxants and can lead to increased ventilation (hyperventilation) due to its stimulatory effects on the sympathetic nervous system.
D. Diffusional hypoxia can occur when nitrous oxide is discontinued, and it rapidly diffuses out of the bloodstream into the alveoli, diluting the oxygen content and leading to a reduced partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli. This is why it’s important to provide patients with 100% oxygen for a few minutes after discontinuing nitrous oxide to prevent this phenomenon.

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36
Q

Concerning measurement of anesthetic potency:
A. anesthetic potency is determined based on alveolar gas concentration
B. anesthetic potency is determined by measuring brain anesthetic concentration

A

A. anesthetic potency is determined based on alveolar gas concentration.

Rationale: Anesthetic potency is typically quantified using the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC), which represents the concentration of an anesthetic agent in the alveoli of the lungs at which 50% of subjects do not respond to a standard painful stimulus. The MAC is a standard measure used for volatile anesthetics, and it provides an estimate of the concentration needed to achieve a clinical effect. While the brain is the target organ for anesthetics, it is currently not practical to measure brain anesthetic concentrations directly in routine clinical practice. Instead, the alveolar gas concentration serves as a surrogate marker because it closely reflects the partial pressure of the anesthetic in the brain.

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37
Q

Malignant hyperthermia may be a complication of the of the following anesthetic
A. Propofol
B. Halothane
C. Ether
D. Nitrous Oxide

A

B. Halothane

Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening reaction that can be triggered by certain anesthetic agents. Halothane, a volatile inhalation anesthetic, is one of the agents known to be associated with a risk of inducing malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals.

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38
Q

Which of the following is derived from the hemp plant “cannabis sativa”?
A. Opium
B. Marijuana
C. MDMA
D. Crack

A

B. Marijuana.

Rationale:
Marijuana (also known as cannabis) is derived from the hemp plant Cannabis sativa. It contains the psychoactive compound THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) among other cannabinoids.
Opium is derived from the opium poppy, MDMA is a synthetic drug, and
Crack is a form of cocaine.

39
Q

It is the relative affinity of an anesthetic agent for blood compared to air. The lower it is, the alveolar concentration during inhalation will rise rapidly, as little drug is taken up into the circulation
A. Blood-gas solubility coefficient
B. Pulmonary blood flow
C. MAC value
D. Arteriovenous concentration gradient

A

A. Blood-gas solubility coefficient

40
Q

With barbiturate and benzodiazepine abuse and dependency, sedative intoxication is generally associated with (Check all that apply)
A. Impairment in attention and memory
B. Uncoordinated motor movements
C. Slurred speech

A

A. Impairment in attention and memory
B. Uncoordinated motor movements
C. Slurred speech

Rationale:
Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are central nervous system depressants. When taken in excessive amounts, they can lead to sedative intoxication. Symptoms of this intoxication can include cognitive impairments such as difficulty with attention and memory. Additionally, physical symptoms can arise such as uncoordinated motor movements (ataxia) and slurred speech. These symptoms arise because these drugs depress the activity of the brain, slowing down both mental and physical processes.

41
Q

All of the following are treatment options for toxic alcohol poisoning EXCEPT
A. Fomepizole
B. Folic acid
C. Thiamine
D. Pyridoxine
E. Hydroxycobalamin

A

E. Hydroxycobalamin

Answer: E. Hydroxycobalamin

Rationale: Toxic alcohol poisoning refers to poisoning from substances such as methanol, ethylene glycol, and isopropanol. The treatment options for these poisonings include:

A. Fomepizole - an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor, used as an antidote primarily for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning.

B. Folic acid - given as an antidote for methanol poisoning to enhance the metabolism of formic acid, the toxic metabolite of methanol.

C. Thiamine - given as an adjunct to treat or prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy in those with ethylene glycol poisoning.

D. Pyridoxine - used as an antidote for isoniazid overdose, not specifically for toxic alcohol poisoning, but it’s more relevant to this context than hydroxycobalamin.

E. Hydroxycobalamin - used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning, not toxic alcohol poisoning.

42
Q

A higher blood:gas partition coefficient (e.g., 2.0 equals a 2% blood concentration and a 1% lung concentration at equilibrium) shows lesser affinity for the blood.
A. False
B. True

A

Answer: A. False

Rationale: The blood:gas partition coefficient is a measure of how soluble an anesthetic gas is in the blood relative to the alveolar air (lungs). A higher blood:gas partition coefficient indicates that the gas is more soluble in the blood compared to the lungs. Thus, a higher value means the gas has a greater affinity for the blood.

43
Q

Growing evidence to suggest that nicotine has its effects by:
A. Releasing dopamine in the mesolimbic system of the brain
B. Releasing acetylcholine into the diencephalons
C. Releasing serotonin into the cerebellum
D. Releasing GABA into the hypothalamus
E. Releasing atropine into cerebral cortex

A

Answer: A. Releasing dopamine in the mesolimbic system of the brain

Rationale: Nicotine primarily exerts its effects by binding to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs). When these receptors are activated, they increase the release of various neurotransmitters. One of the most notable effects of nicotine is the release of dopamine in the mesolimbic system (often referred to as the brain’s reward pathway). This dopamine release contributes to the pleasurable and reinforcing properties of nicotine, which can lead to addiction.

44
Q

Central gaze, constricted pupils, regular aspirations, and the anesthetic depth is sufficient that noxious stimuli does not cause reflexes or excessive autonomic effects
A. delirium
B. analgesia/amnesia
C. surgical anesthesia
D. medullary depression

A

C. surgical anesthesia

Rationale: The description provided aligns with the stage of surgical anesthesia. During this stage, the patient exhibits central gaze, constricted pupils, and regular respiration. The depth of anesthesia is sufficient so that noxious stimuli, like surgical incisions, do not cause unwanted reflex responses or produce excessive autonomic effects. At this stage, surgeries can be performed without causing pain or distress to the patient.

45
Q

Berlin who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by intern Nairobi. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
A. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
B. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
C. Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
D. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting

A

Answer: A. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy

Rationale: Thiamin (Vitamin B1) deficiency is commonly seen in chronic alcohol abusers. The central nervous system (CNS) is particularly affected by thiamin deficiency, leading to conditions like Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which presents with symptoms such as ataxia (unsteady gait), ophthalmoplegia (eye muscle paralysis), and confusion. If not treated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s psychosis, which is characterized by memory loss and confabulation. Additionally, thiamin deficiency can result in peripheral neuropathy.

46
Q

The Lower the blood: gas co-efficient, faster the induction and recovery example is Nitrous oxide
A. False
B. true

A

B. True

Rationale: The blood:gas partition coefficient is a measure of an anesthetic’s solubility in the blood relative to its solubility in alveolar gas (lungs). An anesthetic with a lower blood:gas partition coefficient has less solubility in the blood, which means that it equilibrates faster between the lungs and the blood. As a result, its onset of action (induction) and offset (recovery) are quicker. Nitrous oxide has a low blood:gas partition coefficient, making it a rapidly acting inhalational anesthetic agent.

47
Q

Mechanism of action of organophosphate toxicity
A. Inhibition of acetyl- cholinesterase through phosphorylation of the esteratic site
B. Binds to Hb, reducing O2 supply to tissue interfere w/ inactivation of the sodium channel in excitable membranes
C. Toxic doses cause stimulation rapidly followed by blockade of transmission

A

Answer: A. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase through phosphorylation of the esteratic site

Rationale: Organophosphates exert their toxic effects primarily through the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the synapses. When acetylcholinesterase is inhibited by organophosphates, acetylcholine accumulates, leading to prolonged stimulation of cholinergic receptors. This results in the characteristic symptoms of organophosphate poisoning, which include excessive salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal cramps, and emesis (often referred to by the acronym SLUDGE). It can also affect the respiratory and cardiovascular systems, potentially leading to respiratory failure and death.

48
Q

Treated by administration of humidified O2 and bronchodilators
A. CO poisoning
B. Cyanide poisoning
C. Nitric oxide toxicity
D. Hydrogen sulfide poisoning

A

C. Nitric oxide toxicity

Rationale: Nitric oxide (NO) is used as a pulmonary vasodilator, especially in cases of persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns. However, prolonged exposure or high concentrations can lead to nitric oxide toxicity. This can result in methemoglobinemia, where the iron in hemoglobin is oxidized, reducing its oxygen-carrying capacity. One of the side effects of NO inhalation is also airway inflammation and bronchospasm. In cases of nitric oxide toxicity, treatment includes discontinuing NO, administering humidified O2 to help with mucosal dryness, and using bronchodilators to reverse bronchospasm.

49
Q
  1. A compound which possess affinity for a receptor, but elicits a partial pharmacological response at the receptor involved.

A. Antagonist
B. Partial Agonist
C. Full Agonist
D. Inverse Agonist

A

B. Partial Agonist
Rationale: A partial agonist binds to and activates a receptor, but only produces a partial response compared to a full agonist.

50
Q
  1. This is the final common pathway of all reward and reinforcement, including normal reward and artificial reward of substance abuse.

A. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebral Cortex
C. Caudate Putamen
D. Nucleus Accumbens

A

D. Nucleus Accumbens
Rationale: The nucleus accumbens is a key component of the brain’s reward circuitry and plays a central role in the reinforcement and reward system.

51
Q
  1. Pleasure center

A. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebral Cortex
C. Caudate Putamen
D. Nucleus Accumbens

A

D. Nucleus Accumbens
Rationale: The nucleus accumbens, often referred to as the “pleasure center” of the brain, is associated with feelings of reward and pleasure.

52
Q
  1. Gold standard for efficacy in schizophrenia

A. Clozapine
B. Olanzapine
C. Quetiapine
D. Asenapine

A

A. Clozapine
Rationale: Clozapine is often considered the gold standard for treatment-resistant schizophrenia due to its superior efficacy.

53
Q
  1. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition with 5HT7, 5HT2C and alpha 2 antagonism with 5HT1A partial agonism results to robust antidepressant effect of this drug
    A. Clozapine
    B. Olanzapine
    C. Quetiapine
    D. Asenapine
A

D. Asenapine

Rationale:
Asenapine is an atypical antipsychotic with a unique receptor profile. In addition to its norepinephrine reuptake inhibition, it has actions on multiple serotonin receptors (5HT7, 5HT2C, 5HT1A) and antagonism at the alpha-2 receptor. This diverse pharmacological profile not only contributes to its antipsychotic effects but also to its potential antidepressant effects. This makes it different from the other choices, which have varying receptor profiles but not the combination described in the question.

54
Q
  1. For children and adolescents with psychotic disorders

A. Quetiapine
B. Risperidone
C. Amisulpride
D. Paliperidone

A

B. Risperidone
Rationale: Risperidone is approved for the treatment of schizophrenia in adolescents and for the short-term treatment of manic or mixed episodes of bipolar I disorder in children and adolescents.

55
Q
  1. Developed in Europe prior to full appreciation of the concept of dopamine partial agonism. It causes improvement of negative symptoms of depression

A. Quetiapine
B. Risperidone
C. Amisulpride
D. Paliperidone

A

C. Amisulpride
Rationale: Amisulpride is an atypical antipsychotic that was developed in Europe and is known for its effectiveness in treating the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

56
Q
  1. Most common residual symptoms of patients who do not achieve remission from Major depressive disorder

A. depressed mood
B. suicidal ideation
C. insomnia
D. psychomotor retardation

A

C. insomnia
Rationale: Among patients with major depressive disorder who do not achieve full remission, insomnia is one of the most commonly reported residual symptoms.

57
Q
  1. True about FLUOXETINE, except

A. SSRI, NRI, 5HT2C antagonist
B. Energizing and fatigue-reducing effect
C. improves concentration and attention
D. cannot be combined with olanzapine

A

A. SSRI, NRI, 5HT2C antagonist
Rationale: Fluoxetine is primarily an SSRI. It does not have significant NRI or 5HT2C antagonist properties.

58
Q
  1. This drug has a dopamine reuptake inhibition and sigma 1 receptor binding in addition to serotonin reuptake inhibition action.
    A. Fluoxetine
    B. Paroxetine
    C. Risperidone
    D. Sertraline
A

D. Sertraline
Rationale: Sertraline has dopamine reuptake inhibition properties, especially at higher doses, in addition to its primary action as an SSRI.

59
Q
  1. In addition to serotonin reuptake inhibition, this drug has mild anticholinergic actions (M1) which can be calming or possibly sedating, weak norepinephrine reuptake inhibition that may further contribute to antidepressant actions,

A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Risperidone
D. Sertraline

A

B. Paroxetine
Rationale: Paroxetine has mild anticholinergic effects and can also inhibit norepinephrine reuptake at higher doses.

60
Q
  1. Potent inhibitor of CYP 2D6

A. Olanzapine
B. Paroxetine
C. Risperidone
D. Sertraline

A

B. Paroxetine
Rationale: Paroxetine is known to be a potent inhibitor of the CYP2D6 enzyme.

61
Q
  1. SSRI with sigma 1 binding for psychotic and delusional depression
    A. Citalopram
    B. Paroxetine
    C. Fluvoxamine
    D. Fluoxetine
A

The answer is:
C. Fluvoxamine

Rationale:
Fluvoxamine, an SSRI, has been shown to have significant binding affinity for the Sigma-1 receptor. The Sigma-1 receptor has been implicated in several neuropsychiatric conditions, and drugs that interact with it may have potential in treating conditions like psychotic or delusional depression. While all the options are SSRIs, fluvoxamine is particularly noted for its Sigma-1 binding property.

62
Q
  1. Antidepressant for elderly with antihistamine properties

A. Citalopram
B. Paroxetine
C. Fluvoxamine
D. Fluoxetine

A

B. Paroxetine
Rationale: Paroxetine has antihistaminic properties, which can lead to sedation, making it potentially useful for elderly patients with insomnia.

63
Q
  1. Serotogenic at low doses and noradrenergic at high doses

A. Vilazodone
B. Paroxetine
C. Flumazenil
D. Venlafaxine

A

D. Venlafaxine
Rationale: Venlafaxine acts primarily as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor at lower doses and also inhibits norepinephrine reuptake at higher doses.

64
Q
  1. Reduces vasomotor symptoms in perimenopausal women
    A. Milnacipran
    B. Duloxetine
    C. Desvenlafaxine
    D. Venlafaxine
A

The answer is:
D. Venlafaxine

Rationale:
Venlafaxine, a Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI), has been shown to be effective in reducing vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes, in perimenopausal women. While other SNRIs might also provide some relief, venlafaxine has been specifically studied and used for this indication.

65
Q
  1. Addresses cognitive symptoms of depression in geriatric patients

A. Milnacipran
B. Duloxetine
C. Desvenlafaxine
D. Venlafaxine

A

B. Duloxetine
Rationale: Duloxetine has been shown to have benefits in addressing cognitive symptoms in geriatric patients with depression.

66
Q
  1. Most potent metabolite of Bupropion

A. NAPQI
B. Radafaxine
C. ODV
D. imipramine

A

Answer: B. Radafaxine

Rationale: Bupropion is metabolized in the liver, and one of its primary active metabolites is hydroxybupropion, also known as radafaxine. This metabolite contributes to the therapeutic effects of bupropion and has a similar pharmacological profile. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite of acetaminophen, ODV is the active metabolite of venlafaxine, and imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant itself and not a metabolite of bupropion.

67
Q
  1. Mirtazapine
    A. blocks alpha 2 receptor
    B. blocks beta 2 receptor
    C. potent antagonist of 5H2A
    D. H1 receptor agonist
A

A. blocks alpha 2 receptor

Rationale: Mirtazapine is known to block alpha-2 adrenergic receptors, which results in increased release of norepinephrine and serotonin. Additionally, Mirtazapine is also an antagonist at the serotonin 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors and has strong antihistamine activity, leading to its sedative properties. However, it does not act as an H1 receptor agonist; rather, it is an H1 antagonist. The option “potent antagonist of 5HT2A” is also correct, but based on the provided choices, “blocks alpha 2 receptor” is the most characteristic action of Mirtazapine.

68
Q

Serotonin Antagonist and Reuptake Inhibitor (SARI) : 5HT2 ANTAGONIST
1. Acts like 2 different drugs at different doses
2. SARI that causes liver toxicity
3. multifunctional neurotransmitter antagonist
4. Hypnotic

A. Trazodone
B. Nefazodone

A
  1. Acts like 2 different drugs at different doses:
    Answer: Trazodone
    Rationale: At lower doses, Trazodone acts primarily as a serotonin antagonist and has sedative effects, making it useful as a sleep aid. At higher doses, it inhibits serotonin reuptake and acts as an antidepressant.
  2. SARI that causes liver toxicity (Heptotoxicity):
    Answer: Nefazodone
    Rationale: Nefazodone has been associated with rare but serious cases of liver toxicity, leading to its decreased usage.
  3. multifunctional neurotransmitter antagonist:
    Answer: Trazodone
    Rationale: Trazodone antagonizes several receptors, including serotonin 5-HT2A/C and alpha-1 adrenergic receptors.
  4. hypnotic:
    Answer: Trazodone
    Rationale: Due to its sedative properties at lower doses, Trazodone is often prescribed off-label as a sleep aid or hypnotic.
69
Q

MAO Subtypes:

  1. Brain
  2. Placenta
  3. Platelets
  4. Liver
  5. Dopamine
  6. Tyramine
  7. Serotonin
  8. Norepinephrine

A. MAO-A
B. МАО-В
C. Both

A

BOTH:
(Breakdown Substrate)
-Dopamine
-Tyramine
(Tissue Distribution)
-Brain

MOA-A
(Breakdown Substrate)
-5-HT
-NE
(Tissue Distribution)
-Gut
-Liver
-Placenta
-Skin

MOA-B
(Breakdown Substrate)
-Phenylethylamine
(Tissue Distribution)
-Platelets
-Lymphocyte

70
Q

Mood Stabilizers
1. Treatment of Mania
2. Prophylactic and acute mania
3. for Bipolar depression
4. blocks voltage sensitive sodium and calcium channels

A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine

A
  1. Treatment of Mania - A. Lithium
  2. Prophylactic and acute mania - B. Valproate
  3. for Bipolar depression - C. Lamotrigine
  4. blocks voltage sensitive sodium and calcium channels - D. Carbamazepine

Treatment of Mania:
• Lithium is the first line of treatment for acute episodes of mania and hypomania.

Prophylactic and acute mania:
• Lithium is the first psychotropic agent used as a mood stabilizer and can prevent episodes of depression in patients with bipolar disorder.
• Valproic Acid (Valproate) is also a first-line treatment for bipolar disorders and can be combined with lithium for refractory cases, rapid cycling, and mixed episodes.

For Bipolar depression:
• Lamotrigine appears effective in reducing the frequency of recurrent depressive cycles and is approved as a maintenance treatment for bipolar disorder.

Blocks voltage-sensitive sodium and calcium channels:
• Carbamazepine enhances GABA function, potentially in part through actions on sodium and/or potassium channels.

71
Q

MAOi

  1. Amphetamine
  2. Phenelzine, Tranycypromine, Isocarboxazid

A. Irreversible enzyme inhibitor
B. Reversible inhibitor

A

Amphetamine:
B. Reversible inhibitor: Amphetamine is not primarily an MAOi, but it can reversibly inhibit monoamine oxidase, which can contribute to its stimulant effects by increasing the levels of neurotransmitters like dopamine.

Phenelzine, Tranycypromine, Isocarboxazid:
A. Irreversible enzyme inhibitor: These are classic MAOis that irreversibly inhibit the monoamine oxidase enzyme. This means that once the enzyme is inhibited, it cannot function again, and the body must produce new enzymes. This irreversible action is why dietary and drug restrictions are crucial when taking these medications, as they can lead to hypertensive crises when combined with tyramine-rich foods or certain medications.

72
Q
  1. Which of the following ion channels generate excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)?

A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Glutamate

A

D. Glutamate.
Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. When glutamate binds to its receptors, it often results in the opening of ion channels that allow positively charged ions (like sodium and calcium) to enter the neuron, leading to depolarization and an EPSP.

73
Q
  1. Which of the following medications act on voltage gated ion channels?

A. Donepezil
B. Levodopa
C. Carbamazepine
D. Memantine

A

C. Carbamazepine.
Carbamazepine primarily acts by stabilizing the inactivated state of voltage-gated sodium channels, inhibiting repetitive neuronal firing.

74
Q
  1. The following are characteristics of sedative hypnotic drugs except

A. Water soluble and well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Metabolized rapidly by liver enzymes
C. Converted to active metabolites by hepatic enzymes
D. Well absorbed in GI tracts and metabolized in liver

A

C. Converted to active metabolites by hepatic enzymes

Rationale: While many sedative-hypnotic drugs are water-soluble, well absorbed in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, and metabolized rapidly by liver enzymes, not all of them are converted to active metabolites by hepatic enzymes. Some sedative-hypnotics are metabolized to inactive compounds. The presence of active metabolites can prolong the effects of the drug, which isn’t always the case with all sedative-hypnotic drugs.

75
Q
  1. 30/F rushed to the emergency room and was suspected to have benzodiazepine overdose. Which of the following medications may be used to treat her?

A. Flumazenil
B. Zolpidem
C. Atropine
D. Vigabatrin

A

A. Flumazenil.
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose.

76
Q
  1. 70/male presented with resting tremors. On physical examination, there was noted slow movement and postural instability. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely affected in this condition?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Norepinephrine

A

B. Dopamine.

The described symptoms are characteristic of Parkinson’s disease, which is primarily caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the basal ganglia.

77
Q
  1. Which inhibitory neurotransmitter is found mainly in the interneurons of the spinal cord and brainstem?

A. Glutamate
B. Acetylcholine
C. Glycine
D. Serotonin

A

C. Glycine. Glycine is a primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and brainstem.

78
Q
  1. Which of the following anti seizure medications is not metabolized by hepatic enzymes?
    A. Gabapentin
    B. Valproic Acid
    C. Phenytoin
    D. Carbamazepine
A

The answer is:
A. Gabapentin

Rationale:
Gabapentin is primarily excreted unchanged in the urine and is not metabolized by hepatic enzymes to a significant extent. In contrast, Valproic Acid, Phenytoin, and Carbamazepine are all metabolized by the liver.

79
Q
  1. Which of the following medications exhibit non linear metabolism?

A. Pregabalin
B. Levetiracetam
C. Zonisamide
D. Phenytoin

A

D. Phenytoin.
Phenytoin exhibits saturable (non-linear) metabolism, meaning that as the dose increases, the proportion metabolized decreases, leading to disproportionately higher blood levels.

80
Q

Anti seizure
1 Lamotrigine
2 Phenobarbital
3 Pregabalin
4 Carbamazepine
5 Levetiracetam

A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Sodium channel blocker
C. SV2A receptor antagonist
D. Enhances GABA activity
E. NMDA receptor blocker

A

Lamotrigine:
B. Sodium channel blocker: Lamotrigine primarily acts by stabilizing the inactivated state of voltage-gated sodium channels, thereby inhibiting repetitive firing of action potentials.

Phenobarbital:
D. Enhances GABA activity: Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA, the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.

Pregabalin:
A. Calcium channel blocker: Pregabalin binds to the alpha2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels, reducing the release of excitatory neurotransmitters.

Carbamazepine:
B. Sodium channel blocker: Carbamazepine acts by stabilizing the inactivated state of voltage-sensitive sodium channels, thereby inhibiting repetitive firing of action potentials.

Levetiracetam:
C. SV2A receptor antagonist: Levetiracetam’s exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is known to bind to the synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, which may contribute to its anti-seizure properties.

81
Q
  1. Drug of choice for absence seizures

A. Felbamate
B. Carbamazepine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Valproic Acid

A

D. Valproic Acid.

Valproic Acid (also known as valproate) is a commonly prescribed drug for absence seizures. Ethosuximide is also a drug of choice for absence seizures, but it’s not one of the options provided.

82
Q
  1. The following are considered new or third generation anti-seizure medications
    except
    A. Pregabalin
    B. Levetiracetam
    C. Ethusuximide
    D. Peramanel
A

C. Ethosuximide.

Ethosuximide is an older, first-generation anti-seizure medication primarily used for absence seizures. The other options listed are newer or third-generation anti-seizure medications.

1st Generation (Traditional) AEDs:

1.	Phenytoin (Dilantin): Used for partial and tonic-clonic seizures.
2.	Carbamazepine (Tegretol): Used for partial and tonic-clonic seizures.
3.	Valproic acid/Valproate (Depakote): Broad-spectrum, used for various seizure types including absence, tonic-clonic, and partial seizures.
4.	Ethosuximide (Zarontin): Specifically for absence seizures.

2nd Generation AEDs:

1.	Gabapentin (Neurontin): Used for partial seizures.
2.	Lamotrigine (Lamictal): Broad-spectrum, used for various seizure types including partial, tonic-clonic, and absence.
3.	Topiramate (Topamax): Broad-spectrum, used for various seizure types.
4.	Levetiracetam (Keppra): Broad-spectrum, used for various seizure types.

3rd Generation AEDs:

1.	Lacosamide (Vimpat): Used for partial-onset seizures.
2.	Perampanel (Fycompa): Used for partial and tonic-clonic seizures.
3.	Ezogabine/Retigabine (Potiga): Used for partial-onset seizures.
4.	Rufinamide (Banzel): Used for Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.
83
Q

ADVERSE EFFECTS
1. Most teratogenic (ie neural tube defects)
2. Stevens-Johnson syndrome esp. for those with HLA 1502 allele
3. Gingival hyperplasia
4. Weight loss
5. Dyskinesia

A. Levodopa
B. Valproic Acid
C. Phenytoin
D. Topiramate
E. Carbamazepine

A

Most teratogenic (i.e., neural tube defects):
Answer: B. Valproic Acid.
Valproic acid is known to be teratogenic and can increase the risk of neural tube defects when taken during pregnancy.

Stevens-Johnson syndrome especially for those with HLA 1502 allele:
Answer: E. Carbamazepine.
Individuals with the HLA-B*1502 allele are at an increased risk for
Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis when treated with carbamazepine.

Gingival hyperplasia:
Answer: C. Phenytoin.
Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of the gums) is a known side effect of phenytoin.

Weight loss:
Answer: D. Topiramate.
Topiramate can cause weight loss as a side effect.

Dyskinesia:
Answer: A. Levodopa.
Dyskinesias are a common side effect of levodopa, especially with long-term use in Parkinson’s disease treatment.

84
Q
  1. A schizophrenic patient has been treated with Haloperidol, Loxapine, Thiothixene and lithium. If paranoid delusion persist, what other drug might be tried?
    A. Benztropine
    B. Clozapine
    C. Molindone
    D. Trifluoperazine
A

Answer: B. Clozapine

Rationale: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic that is particularly effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It is often considered for patients who do not respond adequately to standard antipsychotic treatments. Clozapine has been shown to be effective in reducing both positive symptoms (like paranoid delusions) and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. However, its use is limited due to potential side effects, including agranulocytosis (a significant decrease in white blood cells), which requires regular blood monitoring.

85
Q
  1. Patient treated with Fluphenazine presents the following day with unilateral stiff, sore neck and back. What was the neurological reaction - which drug treatments might be appropriate?
    A. Acute dystonia: L-DOPA
    B. Acute dystonia: Benztropine
    C. Acute dystonia: Diphenhydramine
    D. Tardive Dyskinesia: Reduce Fluphenazine dosage
A

B. Acute dystonia: Benztropine

Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with acute dystonia, which is an extrapyramidal side effect that can be seen after administration of antipsychotic medications like Fluphenazine. Acute dystonia involves sudden, often painful, muscle spasms commonly affecting the neck (“torticollis”), eyes (“oculogyric crisis”), and other parts of the body.

Treatment for acute dystonia includes anticholinergic agents like benztropine (Cogentin) or antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Both of these medications can provide rapid relief from the symptoms. So, options B and C would both be appropriate treatments. However, since the question is asking for a singular answer, option B is the best choice.

86
Q
  1. Antipsychotic most appropriate in elderly patients with prostatic hypertrophy and chronic constipation.
    A. Clozapine
    B. Thioridazine
    C. Chlorpromazine
    D. Haloperidol
A

Answer: D. Haloperidol

Rationale: Among the options provided, Haloperidol is the antipsychotic with the least anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic effects can exacerbate conditions like prostatic hypertrophy and chronic constipation. Clozapine, Thioridazine, and Chlorpromazine have more pronounced anticholinergic properties, making them less suitable for elderly patients with these specific conditions. Haloperidol, being a typical antipsychotic with fewer anticholinergic side effects, would be a more appropriate choice in this context.

87
Q
  1. Threshold toxicity for Lithium
    A. 1 meq/L
    B. 2 meq/L
    C. 3 meg/L
    D. 4 meq/L
A

Answer: B. 2 meq/L

Rationale: The therapeutic range for lithium (used primarily for bipolar disorder) is typically between 0.6 to 1.2 meq/L, although some sources might mention up to 1.5 meq/L for acute mania. Levels above 1.5 meq/L are considered to be potentially toxic, with the risk of toxicity increasing as levels rise. Levels at or above 2 meq/L are commonly associated with increased signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity. However, clinical signs of toxicity can vary among individuals, and some might experience symptoms even at lower levels. It’s essential to monitor lithium levels and adjust the dosage accordingly.

88
Q
  1. TCA Overdose
    A. Convulsion, Coma, Cardiotoxicity
    B. Neurotoxicity, Nephrotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity
    C. Hyperthermia, Hypovolemia, Hypernatremia
    D. Ototoxicity, Orthostatic Hypotension, Odynophagia
A

A. Convulsion, Coma, Cardiotoxicity

89
Q
  1. Indicated for Major depressive disorder (1st line), OCD, anxiety, panic attacks, phobias, PTSD,Bulimia, Prementrual dysphoria, Alcohol dependence
    A. Imipramine
    B. Fluoxetine
    C. Lithium
    D. Clonazepam
A

B. Fluoxetine

Rationale: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is commonly used as a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder. Additionally, it has FDA indications for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), panic disorder, bulimia nervosa, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). It is also used off-label for anxiety, phobias, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and alcohol dependence.

90
Q
  1. Life threatening syndrome characterized by every muscle rigidity, myoclonus, hyperthermia, cardiovascular instability, and marked CNS stimulatory effects, including seizures
    A. TCA Overdose
    B. Lithium Toxicity
    C. Serotonin Syndrome
    D. SNRI Withdrawal Syndrome
A

C. Serotonin Syndrome

91
Q
  1. The following drugs cause priapism, EXCEPT
    A. Trazodone
    B. Sildenafil
    C. Bupropion
    D. Imipramine
A

Answer: C. Bupropion

Rationale: Priapism is a prolonged and often painful erection not related to sexual arousal. Among the options provided:
A. Trazodone, an antidepressant, is known to be associated with priapism as a rare side effect.
B. Sildenafil, a PDE5 inhibitor used for treating erectile dysfunction, can cause priapism in situations where the erection becomes prolonged.
D. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, has priapism as a rare but documented side effect.
C. Bupropion, an atypical antidepressant primarily used for depression and smoking cessation, is not commonly associated with priapism.

92
Q
  1. Barbiturate that acts within seconds, and their duration of action is 30min.
    A. Ultra- short acting: Thiopental
    B. Intermediate acting: Amobarbital
    C. Ultra-short-acting: Amobarbital
    D. Intermediate Acting: Thiopental
A

A. Ultra- short acting: Thiopental

93
Q
  1. Anti-psychotic drug with has 5HT2 Affinity
    A. Haloperidol
    B. Lithium
    C. Clozapine
    D. Clonazepam
A

Answer: C. Clozapine

Rationale: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic that has a high affinity for the 5HT2 (serotonin) receptor. Atypical antipsychotics, in general, often have significant serotonergic activity, which differentiates them from the older typical antipsychotics like haloperidol. This serotonergic activity is thought to contribute to their efficacy, especially in treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia, and might also be associated with a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics.