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Sir Felix Enhanced Micro Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following microorganism is susceptible to changes in temperature?
    a. N. meningitidis
    b. Shigella
    c. Both A and B
    d. None of the above
A

a. N. meningitidis

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following specimen/s is stored at
    4C?
    a. Stool
    b. Urine
    c. Viral specimens
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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3
Q
  1. Critical or panic value, except:
    a. Positive blood cultures
    b. S. pyogenes in a surgical wound
    c. Negative malaria tests
    d. Positive acid-fast stain
A

c. Negative malaria tests

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the patient’ preparation in obtaining superficial abscess?
    a. Wiping the area with KOH
    b. Wiping area with sterile saline or 70% alcohol
    c. Wiping area with iodine then 70% alcohol
    d. None of the above
A

b. Wiping area with sterile saline or 70% alcohol

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5
Q
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid for microbiologic examination should be transported to laboratory:
    a. <15 minutes
    b. <1 hour
    c. <2 hour
    d. None of the above
A

a. <15 minutes

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6
Q
  1. Patient preparation in obtaining sputum specimen
    a. Have patient gargle Listerine
    b. Have patient brush teeth and then rinse or gargle with water before collection
    c. Have patient gargle with alcohol
    d. Have patient brush teeth then rinse or gargle with Listerine
A

b. Have patient brush teeth and then rinse or gargle with water before collection

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7
Q
  1. The most important diagnostic tool in treating pat with clinical infections in the emergency department is o the:
    a. Acid fast stain
    b. Gram stain
    c. Culture and Sensitivity
    d. None of the above
A

b. Gram stain

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8
Q
  1. All of the following organism contains cell wall wits mycolic acid, except:
    a. Nocardia
    b. Rhodococcus
    c. Streptomyces
    d. Corynebacterium
A

c. Streptomyces

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the reaction of gra positive organism after decolorization?
    a. Stain purple
    b. Remain purple
    c. Remain pink
    d. Become colorless
A

b. Remain purple

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following stains binds to cell walls of fungi?
    a. Calcofluor white
    b. Auramine-Rhodamine
    c. FITC
    d. Acridine orange
A

a. Calcofluor white

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11
Q
  1. In acridine orange staining, bacteria and yeasts will fluoresce ____ against a green-fluorescing or dark background:
    a. Yellow
    b. Orange
    c. Red
    d. Blue
A

b. Orange

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12
Q
  1. Colistin-nalidixic acid agar (CNA) is used primarily for the recovery of:
    A. Neisseria species
    B. Enterobacteriacee
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Staphylococcus aureus
A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

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13
Q
  1. Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar is a highly selective medium used for the recovery of which bacteria?
    A. Staphylococcus spp. from normal flora
    B. Yersinia spp. that do not grow on Hektoen agar
    C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal specimens
    D. Streptococcus spp. from stool cultures
A

C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal specimens

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14
Q
  1. Select the medium best suited for the recovery of Yersinia enterocolitica from a patient with gastroenteritis.
    A. Hektoen agar
    B. Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar
    C. Blood agar
    D. Eosin methylene blue agar
A

B. Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar

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15
Q
  1. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:
    A. Yersinia enterocolitica
    B. Yersinia intermedia
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium difficile
A

D. Clostridium difficile

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16
Q
  1. Incomplete or partial hemolysis; green or brown color surrounding the colony:
    a. Alpha hemolysis
    b. Beta hemolysis
    c. Gamma hemolysis
    d. Alpha prime hemolysis
A

a. Alpha hemolysis

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following grow in the bottom of the broth
    a. Facultative anaerobic
    b. Strictly aerobic
    c. Strictly anaerobic
    d. None of the above
A

c. Strictly anaerobic

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18
Q
  1. Selective media:
    a. May be differential
    b. Allow the growth of all organism
    c. Are utilized for growth of fastidious organisms
    d. Contain dyes or antibiotics to suppress the growth of some organisms
A

d. Contain dyes or antibiotics to suppress the growth of some organisms

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19
Q
  1. All of the following are differential media, except:
    a. Blood agar
    b. Chocolate agar
    c. MacConkey’s agar
    d. Eosin Methylene Blue
A

b. Chocolate agar

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20
Q
  1. Grayish white, transparent to translucent, matte, glossy; large zone of beta hemolysis
    a. S. pyogenes
    b. S. agalactiae
    c. S. pneumoniae
    d. B. anthracis
A

a. S. pyogenes

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21
Q
  1. Translucent to opaque; flat glossy with narrow zone of beta hemolysis; some strains nonhemolytic
    a. S. pyogenes
    b. S. agalactiae
    c. S. pneumoniae
    d. B. anthracis
A

b. S. agalactiae

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22
Q
  1. SITUATION: A group of elementary students became ill after eating undercooked ground beef prepared in the school cafeteria. The suspected pathogen, E. coli serotype 0157:H7, is usually recovered using which of the following media?
    A. XLD agar
    B. MacConkey agar
    C. MacConkey agar with sorbitol
    D. Hektoen agar
A

C. MacConkey agar with sorbitol

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23
Q
  1. The most sensitive method for the detection of B-lactamase in bacteria is by the use of:
    A. Chromogenic cephalosporin
    B. Penicillin
    C. Oxidase
    D. Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
A

A. Chromogenic cephalosporin

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24
Q
  1. The breakpoint of an antimicrobial drug refers to:
    A. The amount needed to cause bacteriostasis
    B. A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of
    16 Mg/mL or greater
    C. A MIC of 64 g/mL or greater
    D. The level of drug that is achievable in serum
A

D. The level of drug that is achievable in serum

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following variables may change the results of an MIC?
    A. Inoculum size
    B. Incubation time
    C. Growth rate of the bacteria
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

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26
Q
  1. According to the Kirby-Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species?
    A. The swarming area should be ignored
    B. The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid
    C. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary
    D. The isolate should be retested after diluting to a 0.05
    McFarland standard
A

A. The swarming area should be ignored

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27
Q
  1. The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits grow a test organism is the:
    A. Minimum inhibitory concentration
    B. Serum inhibitory concentration
    C. Minimum bactericidal titer
    D. Maximum inhibitory titer
A

A. Minimum inhibitory concentration

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28
Q
  1. Susceptibility testing performed on QC organisms using new media lot number vielded zone sites that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previously used lot number, and all zone sizes were acceptable. Which of the following best explains the unacceptable zone sized?
    A. The antibiotic disks were not stored with the proper desiccant
    B. The depth of the media was too thick
    C. The depth of the media was too thin
    D. The antibiotic disks were not properly applied to the media
A

C. The depth of the media was too thin

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29
Q
  1. After satisfactory performance of a daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality control is documented, the frequency of quality control can be reduced to:
    A. Twice a week
    B. Every week
    C. Every other week
    D. Every month
A

B. Every week

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30
Q
  1. Which class of antibiotics is used for the treatment of se gram-negative infections as well as infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
    A. Cephalosporins
    B. Penicillins
    C. Tetracyclines
    D. Aminoglycosides
A

D. Aminoglycosides

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following biosafety cabinets is compl enclosed with negative pressure, afford the most protection. Air coming into and going out of the cabinet is filter sterilized, and the infectious material within is handled with rubber gloves that are attached to cabinet?
    a. Class I cabinet
    b. Class II cabinet
    c. Class III cabinet
    d. None of the above
A

c. Class III cabinet

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32
Q
  1. Process mediated through viruses capable of infe bacteria (bacteriophage); viruses integrate their DNA into the bacterial cell’s chromosome, where viral DNA replication and expression occur?
    a. Transformation
    b. Transduction
    c. Conjugation
    d. None of the above
A

b. Transduction

33
Q
  1. Which of the following B. stearothermophilus component/structure is used as quality control for autoclave?
    a. Cell wall
    b. Spores
    c. Nucleus
    d. Cell membrane
A

b. Spores

34
Q
  1. Which atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective agar at 35°C-37°C and 42°C?
    A. 5% 02, 10% CO2, and 85% N2
    B. 20% 02, 10% CO2, and 70% N2
    C. 20% 02, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
    D. 20% 02, 5% CO2, and 75% N2
A

A. 5% 02, 10% CO2, and 85% N2

35
Q
  1. Most spoilage bacteria grow best at
    A. acid pH
    B. alkaline pH
    C. neutral pH
    D. None of the above
A

C. neutral pH

36
Q
  1. Most common method of treating infectious waste
    A. Filtration
    B. Incineration
    C. Dry heat
    D. Ionizing radiation
A

B. Incineration

37
Q
  1. Exotic agents that are considered high risk and ca life threatening disease; including Marburg virus or Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever are handled in:
    A. Biosafety level 1
    B. Biosafety level 2
    C. Biosafety level 3
    D. Biosafety level 4
A

D. Biosafety level 4

38
Q
  1. Positive result in acetamide, acetate, and citrate utilization test:
    a. Red
    b. Yellow
    c. Blue
    d. Green
A

c. Blue

39
Q
  1. Zone of inhibition in bacitracin susceptibility test: 16 mm:
    a. Bacitracin susceptible; positive
    b. Bacitracin resistant; negative
A

a. Bacitracin susceptible; positive

40
Q
  1. Positive control in the bile esculin test:
    a. E. faecalis
    b. E. coli
    c. S. pyogenes
A

a. E. faecalis

41
Q
  1. Positive result in CAMP test:
    a. Enhancement of hemolysis
    b. No enhancement of hemolysis
A

a. Enhancement of hemolysis

42
Q
  1. Cetrimide agar is used to isolate:
    a. E. coli
    b. P. aeruginosa
A

b. P. aeruginosa

43
Q
  1. Preferred plasma in the coagulase test:
    a. Sheep plasma EDTA
    b. Sheep plasma citrate
    c. Rabbit plasma EDTA
    d. Rabbit plasma citrate
A

c. Rabbit plasma EDTA

44
Q
  1. Free coagulase test detected by the:
    a. Slide test
    b. Tube test
A

b. Tube test

45
Q
  1. pH indicator used in Moeller’s method for the detection decarboxylase:
    a. Phenol red
    b. Bromothymol blue
    c. Bromocresol purple
A

c. Bromocresol purple

46
Q
  1. Positive result in DNA hydrolysis test:
    a. Media remains green
    b. Media turns colorless
A

b. Media turns colorless

47
Q
  1. Positive result in esculin hydrolysis test:
    (1) Blackened medium
    (2) No blackening of medium
    (3) Loss of fluorescence under wood’s lamp
    (4) No loss of fluorescence
    a. 1 and 3
    b. 1 and 4
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 2 and 4
A

a. 1 and 3

48
Q
  1. Fermentation media: BHI w/ bromocresol purple
    (1) Differentiates enteric bacteria from corynebacteria
    (2) Differentiate enterococci from streptococci
    (3) Pink color is the positive result
    (4) Yellow color is the positive result
    a. 1 and 3
    b. 1 and 4
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 2 and 4
A

d. 2 and 4

49
Q
  1. Positive control in the Hippurate test:
    a. S. agalactiae
    b. S. pyogenes
A

a. S. agalactiae

50
Q
  1. Reagent that is more sensitive for detecting small amounts of indole and the technique of choice to detect indole production for anaerobes:
    a. Kovac’s reagent
    b. Ehrlich’s reagent
A

b. Ehrlich’s reagent

51
Q
  1. Which of the following colors indicates a positive acetamide utilization test?
    a. Yellow
    b. Blue
    c. Green
    d. Purple
A

b. Blue

52
Q
  1. The slide coagulase test detects:
    a. Bound coagulase
    b. Clumping factor
    c. Free coagulase
    d. A and B are correct
A

d. A and B are correct

53
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used as positive control in the Hippurate hydrolysis test?
    a. S. agalactiae
    b. S. pyogenes
A

a. S. agalactiae

54
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used as positive control in the Optochin susceptibility test?
    a. S. pneumoniae
    b. S. pyogenes
A

a. S. pneumoniae

55
Q
  1. The test used most often to separate the Micrococcaceae family from the Streptococcacee family is:
    A. Bacitracin
    B. Catalase
    C. Hemolysis pattern
    D. All of these options
A

B. Catalase

56
Q
  1. Which of the following tests will rapidly differentian micrococci from staphylococci?
    A. Catalase
    B. Coagulase
    C. Modified oxidase
    D. Novobiocin susceptibility
A

C. Modified oxidase

57
Q
  1. The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?
    A. Acetoin
    B. Nitrite
    C. Acetic acid
    D. Hydrogen sulfide
A

A. Acetoin

58
Q
  1. positive Simmons citrate test is seen as a:
    A. Blue color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C
    B. Red color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C
    C. Yellow color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C
    D. Green color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C
A

A. Blue color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C

59
Q
  1. Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysine, ornithirie and arginine results in the formation of:
    A. Ammonia
    B. Urea
    C. CO2
    D. Amines
A

D. Amines

60
Q
  1. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?
    A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella
    B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus
    C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
    D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella
A

B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus

61
Q
  1. Cetrimide agar is used as a selective isolation age for which organism?
    A. Acinetobacter spp.
    B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C. Moraxella spp.
    D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
A

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

62
Q
  1. Which reagents) is (are) used to develop the red color indicative of a positive reaction in the nitrate reduction test?
    A. Sulfanilic acid and a-naphthylamine
    B. Ehrlich’s and Kovac’s reagents
    C. o-Nitrophenyl-B-D-galactopyranoside
    D. Kovac’s reagent
A

A. Sulfanilic acid and a-naphthylamine

63
Q
  1. Toxic shock syndrome is attributed to infection with:
    A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    B. Staphylococcus hominis
    C. Staphylococcus aureus
    D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
A

C. Staphylococcus aureus

64
Q
  1. Staphylococcus epidermidis (coagulase negative) is
    recovered from which of the following sources?
    A. Prosthetic heart valves
    B. Intravenous catheters
    C. Urinarv tract
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

65
Q
  1. Staphylococcus aureus recovered from a wound culture gave the following antibiotic sensitivity pattern by the standardized
    Kirby-Bauer method
    (S = sensitive; R = resistant):
    Penicillin = R Ampicillin = S
    Cephalothin = R Cefoxitin = R
    Vancomycin = S Methicillin = R
    Which is the drug of choice for treating this infection?
    A. Penicillin
    B. Ampicillin
    C. Cenhalothin
    D. Vancomycin
A

D. Vancomycin

66
Q
  1. Urine cultured from the catheter of an 18-year-old female patient produced more than 100,000 col/mL on a CNA plate. Colonies were catalase positive, coagulase negative by the latex agglutination slide method as well as the tube coagulas test. The best single test for identification is:
    A. Lactose fermentation
    B. Urease
    C. Catalase
    D. Novobiocin susceptibility
A

D. Novobiocin susceptibility

67
Q
  1. The quellung test is used to identify which
    Streptococcus species?
    A. S. pyogenes
    B. S. agalactiae
    C. S. sanguis
    D. S. pneumoniae
A

D. S. pneumoniae

68
Q
  1. A Gram stain of a urethral discharge from a man showit extracellular and intracellular gram-negative diplococci within segmented neutrophils is a presumptive identification for:
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. Neisseria meningitidis
    C. Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis
    D. Neisseria lactamica
A

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

69
Q
  1. Culture on MTM media of a vaginal swab produced sev colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and Superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification.
    Glucose = + Sucrose = Neg Lactose = +
    Maltose = + Fructose = Neg
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. Neisseria sicca
    C. Neisseria flavescens
    D. Neisseria lactamica
A

D. Neisseria lactamica

70
Q
  1. Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci?
    A. E-test
    B. D-zone test
    C. A-test
    D. Camp test
A

B. D-zone test

71
Q
  1. Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?
    A. Motility and 3-hemolysis on a blood agar plate
    B. Oxidase and -hemolysis on a blood agar plate
    C. Lecithinase and glucose
    D. Lecithinase and catalase
A

A. Motility and 3-hemolysis on a blood agar plate

72
Q
  1. Culture of a finger wound specimen from a meat pack produced short gram-positive bacilli on a blood agar plate With no hemolysis. Given the following test results at 48 hours, what is the most likely identification?
    Catalase = Neg H2S/TSI = +
    Motility (wet prep) = Neg
    Motility (media) = Neg (bottle-brush growth in stab culture)
    A. Bacillus cereus
    B. Listeria monocytogenes
    C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
    D. Bacillus subtilis
A

C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

73
Q
  1. Which Pseudomonas is usually associated with a lung infection related to cystic fibrosis?
    A. P. fluorescens
    B. P. aeruginosa
    C. P. putida
    D. Burkholderia pseudomallei
A

B. P. aeruginosa

74
Q
  1. Which organism is associated with immunodeficiency syndromes and melioidosis (a glanders-like disease in
    Southeast Asia and northern Australia)?
    A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B. Pseudomonas stutzeri
    C. Pseudomonas putida
    D. Burkholderia pseudomallei
A

D. Burkholderia pseudomallei

75
Q
  1. Alcaligenes faecalis (formerly A. odorans) is distinguished from Bordetella bronchiseptica with which test?
    A. Urease (rapid)
    B. Oxidase
    C. Growth on MacConkey agar
    D. Motility
A

A. Urease (rapid)

76
Q
  1. A 20-year-old horse groomer exhibited a “glanders-like” infection. His history indicated he had suffered several open wounds on his hands 2 weeks before the swelling of his lymph nodes. A gram-negative rod was recovered from a blood culture that grew well on blood and MacConkey agars. Most of the biochemical tests were negative, including the cytochrome oxidase test. What is the most likely identification?
    A. Burkholderia mallei
    B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C. Pseudomonas stutzeri
    D. Burkholderia pseudomallei
A

A. Burkholderia mallei

77
Q
  1. A visitor to South America who returned with diarrhea is suspected of being infected with V. cholerae. Select the best medium for recovery and identification of this organism.
    A. MacConkey agar
    B. Blood agar
    C. TCBS agar
    D. XLD agar
A

C. TCBS agar

78
Q
  1. Which group of tests best differentiates
    Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?
    A. Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain
    B. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
    C. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity
    D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis
A

D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

79
Q
  1. Which of the following tests should be done first in order to differentiate Aeromonas spp. from the Enterobacteriaceae?
    A. Urease
    B. OF glucose
    C. Oxidase
    D. Catalase
A

C. Oxidase

ramel (8 decks)

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