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ramel > CC Assessment 2 > Flashcards

CC Assessment 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A pre-analytical error can be introduced by:

A. Drawing a coagulation tube before an EDTA tube
B. Mixing an EDTA tube 8 to 10 times
C. Transporting the specimen in a biohazard bag
D. Vigorously shaking the blood tube to prevent clotting

A

D. Vigorously shaking the blood tube to prevent clotting

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2
Q

In quality control, ± 2 standard deviations from the mean includes what percentage of the sample population?

A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 95%
D. 98%

A

C. 95%

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3
Q

The acceptable limit of error in the chemistry laboratory is 2 standard deviations. If you run the normal control of 100 times, how many of the values would be out of the control range due to random error?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20

A

B. 5

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4
Q

The following data were calculated on a series of 30 determinations of serum uric acid control: mean = 5.8 mg/dL, 1 standard deviation = 0.15 mg/dL. If confidence limits are set at ± 2 SD, which o f the following represents allowable limits for the control?

A. 5.65 to 5.95 mg/dL
B. 5.35 to 6.25 mg/dL
C. 5.50 to 6.10 mg/dL
D. 5.70 to 5.90 mg/dL

A

C. 5.50 to 6.10 mg/dL

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5
Q

A delta check is a method that:

A. Determines the mean and variance of an instrument
B. Monitors the testing system for precision
C. Monitors patient sample day by day
D. Is determined by each laboratory facility

A

C. Monitors patient sample day by day

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6
Q

(3) Measures of center.

A. Coefficient of variation
B. Mean
C. Median
D. Mode
E. Range
F. Standard deviation

A

B. Mean
C. Median
D. Mode

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7
Q

(3) Measures of spread.

A. Coefficient of variation
B. Mean
C. Median
D. Mode
E. Range
F. Standard deviation

A

A. Coefficient of variation
E. Range
F. Standard deviation

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8
Q

Systematic errors include: (3)

  • Calibrator reconstitution
  • Electro-optical mechanism
  • Environmental conditions
  • Fluctuations in line voltage
  • Instability of instrument
  • Reagent dispensing
  • Reagent lot variability
  • Sample evaporation
  • Temperature of analyzer
  • Variation in handling techniques: pipetting, mixing, timing
  • Variation in operators
  • Wear and tear of instrument
A

Fluctuations in line voltage
Reagent lot variability
Wear and tear of instrument

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9
Q

Random errors include: (3)

  • Aging reagents
  • Aging calibrators
  • Calibration differences
  • Instrument components
  • Fluctuations in line voltage
  • Optical changes
  • Reagent lot variability
  • Reagent dispensing
  • Technologist interactions
  • Variation in handling techniques: pipetting, mixing, timing
  • Variation in operator
  • Wear and tear of instrument
A
  • Reagent dispensing
  • Variation in handling techniques: pipetting, mixing, timing
  • Variation in operator
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10
Q

Most frequently occurring value in a dataset:

A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range

A

C. Mode

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11
Q

Type of systemic error in the sample direction and magnitude; the magnitude of change is constant and not dependent on the amount of analyte.

A. Constant systematic error
B. Proportional systematic error

A

A. Constant systematic error

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12
Q

Type of systemic error where the magnitude changes as a percent of the analyte present; error dependent on analyte concentration.

A. Constant systematic error
B. Proportional systematic error

A

B. Proportional systematic error

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13
Q

Difference between the observed mean and the reference mean:

A. Bias
B. Confidence interval
C. Parametric method
D. Nonparametric method

A

A. Bias

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14
Q

Ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition.

A. Analytic sensitivity
B. Analytic specificity
C. Diagnostic sensitivity
D. Diagnostic specificity

A

C. Diagnostic sensitivity

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15
Q

Ability of a test to correctly identify the absence of a given disease or condition.

A. Analytic sensitivity
B. Analytic specificity
C. Diagnostic sensitivity
D. Diagnostic specificity

A

D. Diagnostic specificity

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16
Q

Ability of a method to detect small quantities of an analyte.

A. Analytic sensitivity
B. Analytic specificity
C. Diagnostic sensitivity
D. Diagnostic specificity

A

A. Analytic sensitivity

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17
Q

Ability of a method to detect only the analyte it is designed to determine.

A. Analytic sensitivity
B. Analytic specificity
C. Diagnostic sensitivity
D. Diagnostic specificity

A

B. Analytic specificity

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18
Q

Positive predictive value:

A. Ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition.
B. Ability of a test to correctly identify the absence of a given disease or condition.
C. Chance of an individual having a given disease or condition if the test is abnormal.
D. Chance an individual does not have a given disease or condition if the test is within the reference interval.

A

C. Chance of an individual having a given disease or condition if the test is abnormal.

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19
Q

Negative predictive value:

A. Ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition.
B. Ability of a test to correctly identify the absence of a given disease or condition.
C. Chance of an individual having a given disease or condition if the test is abnormal.
D. Chance an individual does not have a given disease or condition if the test is within the reference interval.

A

D. Chance an individual does not have a given disease or condition if the test is within the reference interval.

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20
Q

What percentage of values will fall between ±2 s in a Gaussian (normal) distribution?

A. 34.13%
B. 68.26%
C. 95.45%
D. 99.74%

A

C. 95.45%

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21
Q

Two (2) consecutive control values exceed the same 2 standard deviation limit:

A. 1:2S
B. 2:2S
C. R:4S
D. 4:1S

A

B. 2:2S

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22
Q

The term R:4S means that:

A. Four consecutive controls are greater than ±1 standard deviation from the mean
B. Two controls in the same run are greater than 4s units apart
C. Two consecutive controls in the same run are each greater than ±4s from the mean
D. There is a shift above the mean for four consecutive controls

A

B. Two controls in the same run are greater than 4s units apart

23
Q

Error always in one direction:

A. Random error
B. Systematic error

A

B. Systematic error

24
Q

Which of the following terms refers to deviation from the true value caused by indeterminate errors inherent in every laboratory measurement?

A. Random error
B. Standard error of the mean
C. Parametric analysis
D. Nonparametric analysis

A

A. Random error

25
Q

A trend in QC results is most likely caused by:

A. Deterioration of the reagent
B. Miscalibration of the instrument
C. Improper dilution of standards
D. Electronic noise

A

A. Deterioration of the reagent

26
Q

Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors?

A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

A

A. Levy–Jennings

27
Q

Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories?

A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

A

B. Tonks–Youden

28
Q

Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend?

A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Histogram

A

C. Cusum

29
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the closeness with which the measured value agrees with the true value?

A. Random error
B. Precision
C. Accuracy
D. Variance

A

C. Accuracy

30
Q

Relatively easy to measure and maintain:

A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
E. Feedback

A

B. Precision

31
Q

Which of the following describes the ability of an analytical method to maintain both accuracy and precision over an extended period of time?

A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Probability
D. Sensitivity

A

A. Reliability

32
Q

Which of the following statistical tests is used to compare the means of two methods?

A. Student’s t test
B. F distribution
C. Correlation coefficient (r)
D. Linear regression analysis

A

A. Student’s t test

33
Q

Only carbohydrate directly used for energy:

A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Fructose
D. Lactose

A

A. Glucose

34
Q

In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after:

A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes (1 hour)
D. 120 minutes (2 hours)

A

D. 120 minutes (2 hours)

35
Q

Glucose measurements can be ____ mg/dL erroneously higher by reducing methods than by more accurate enzymatic methods.

A. 1 to 5 mg/dL
B. 5 to 15 mg/dL
C. 20 to 25 mg/dL
D. 30 to 35 mg/dL

A

B. 5 to 15 mg/dL

36
Q

Select the enzyme that is most specific for beta D-glucose:

A. Glucose oxidase
B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Hexokinase
D. Phosphohexose isomerase

A

A. Glucose oxidase

37
Q

Select the coupling enzyme used in the hexokinase method for glucose:

A. Glucose dehydrogenase
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. Peroxidase

A

C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

38
Q

Which of the following is a potential source of error in the HEXOKINASE METHOD?

A. Galactosemia
B. Hemolysis
C. Sample collected in fluoride
D. Ascorbic acid

A

B. Hemolysis

39
Q

Gross hemolysis and extremely elevated bilirubin may cause ______ in HEXOKINASE RESULTS.

A. False increase
B. False decrease
C. No effect
D. Variable

A

B. False decrease

40
Q

VERY LOW OR UNDETECTABLE C-peptide:

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

41
Q

DETECTABLE C-peptide:

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

42
Q

A 62-year-old patient presents to the physician with report of increased thirst and increased urination, particularly at night. The physician requests a series of tests over the next few days. The following data are received: RANDOM GLUCOSE: 186 mg/dL; FASTING GLUCOSE: 114 mg/dL; 2-HOUR OGTT: 153 mg/dL HbA1c: 5.9%. Which of the following conclusions may be made regarding these data?

A. Data represents normal glucose status
B. Data represents an impaired glucose status
C. Data represents the presence of insulinoma
D. Data represents diagnosis of diabetes

A

B. Data represents an impaired glucose status

43
Q

What is the recommended cutoff value for adequate control of blood glucose in diabetics as measured by glycated hemoglobin?

A. 5%
B. 6.5%
C. 9.5%
D. 11%

A

B. 6.5%

44
Q

A factor, other than average plasma glucose values, that can affect the HbA1c level is:

A. Serum ketone bodies
B. Red blood cell life span
C. Ascorbic acid intake
D. Increased triglyceride levels

A

B. Red blood cell life span

45
Q

LONG-TERM estimation of glucose concentration can be followed by measuring:

A. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
B. Fructosamine

A

A. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)

46
Q

Most widely used to assess SHORT-TERM (3 to 6 weeks) glycemic control:

A. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
B. Fructosamine

A

B. Fructosamine

47
Q

Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources:

A. Glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Glycogenesis

A

B. Gluconeogenesis

48
Q

HYPERGLYCEMIC FACTOR produced by the pancreas is:

A. Epinephrine
B. Glucagon
C. Growth hormone
D. Insulin

A

B. Glucagon

49
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIC FACTOR produced by the pancreas is:

A. Epinephrine
B. Glucagon
C. Growth hormone
D. Insulin

A

D. Insulin

50
Q

What would an individual with CUSHING SYNDROME tend to exhibit?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Normal blood glucose level
D. Decreased 2-hour postprandial glucose

A

A. Hyperglycemia

51
Q

Symptoms of HYPOGLYCEMIA usually occur when blood glucose has fallen below ___ mg/dL.

A. Below 50 mg/dL
B. Below 60 mg/dL
C. Below 70 mg/dL
D. Below 80 mg/dL

A

A. Below 50 mg/dL

52
Q

Beta cell destruction, usually leading to absolute insulin deficiency:

A. Type 1 DM
B. Type 2 DM

A

A. Type 1 DM

53
Q

May range from predominantly insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency to a predominantly secretory defect with insulin resistance:

A. Type 1 DM
B. Type 2 DM

A

B. Type 2 DM

54
Q

Usual dose of LACTOSE in the oral lactose tolerance test is:

A. 25 grams
B. 50 grams
C. 75 grams
D. 100 grams

A

B. 50 grams

ramel (8 decks)

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