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ramel > HTMLE Progress > Flashcards

HTMLE Progress Flashcards

1
Q

First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:

A. San Lazaro Hospital
B. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
C. Manila Public Health Laboratory
D. National Reference Laboratory

A

C. Manila Public Health Laboratory

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2
Q

Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War II:

A. Dr. Pio de Roda
B. Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
C. Dr. Mariano Icasiano
D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

A

D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

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3
Q

RA 5527 consists of:

A. 30 sections
B. 32 sections
C. 50 sections
D. 52 sections

A

B. 32 sections

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4
Q

Which of the following amends RA 5527 on June 11, 1978?

A. RA 6138
B. PD 498
C. PD 1534

A

C. PD 1534

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5
Q

All are sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534, except:

A. Section 3
B. Section 8
C. Section 13
D. Section 18

A

D. Section 18

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6
Q

All are qualifications of the Board of Medical Technology, except:

A. Filipino citizen
B. Good moral character
C. Qualified Pathologist, or a duly registered MT
D. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment
E. Not a member of the faculty of any MT school for at least 2 years prior to appointment

A

E. Not a member of the faculty of any MT school for at least 2 years prior to appointment

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 years prior to his appointment.

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7
Q

Board of Medical Technology term of office:

A. Hold office for ONE (1) YEAR after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
B. Hold office for THREE (3) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. Hold office for FIVE (5) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
D. Hold office for SEVEN (7) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

A

B. Hold office for THREE (3) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

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8
Q

Minor subject (10%) in the MT Board Exam:

A. Clinical Chemistry
B. Hematology
C. Immunology, Serology & Blood Banking
D. Clinical Microscopy

A

D. Clinical Microscopy

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9
Q

In order to pass the MT examination, a candidate must obtain a general average of at least ___ in the written test.

A. General average of at least 50%
B. General average of at least 65%
C. General average of at least 70%
D. General average of at least 75%

A

D. General average of at least 75%

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10
Q

Refresher course for applicants who have failed the Board Examination for the ___ time.

A. First time
B. Second time
C. Third time
D. Fourth time

A

C. Third time

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11
Q

Certificate of Registration as Medical Technologist is issued to any successful applicant who has attained the age of:

A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21

A

D. 21

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12
Q

Revocation:

A. Unanimous vote (3/3)
B. Majority vote (2/3)

A

A. Unanimous vote (3/3)

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13
Q

Suspension:

A. Unanimous vote (3/3)
B. Majority vote (2/3)

A

B. Majority vote (2/3)

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14
Q

Which of the following can only be done in a tertiary category laboratory?

A. Crossmatching
B. Routine chemistry
C. Routine hematology
D. Special hematology

A

D. Special hematology

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15
Q

Start of renewal of Clinical Laboratory License:

A. October 1
B. November 1
C. December 1
D. January 1

A

A. October 1

Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.

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16
Q

The LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) issued to the CLINICAL LABORATORY is valid for:

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

A

A. One year

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16
Q

Acceptable patient identifiers include:

A. Patient’s name, gender, medical record number
B. Patient’s name, gender, date of birth
C. Patient’s name, requesting physician, medical record number
D. Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

A

D. Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

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17
Q

LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) Blood Service Facilities is valid for a period of ____ years.

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

A

C. 3 years

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18
Q

According to DOH A.O. 2020-0031, certificate of accreditation of laboratories for DRINKING WATER ANALYSIS is valid for __ year(s) and expires on the last day of December. TAKE NOTE OF YEAR 2020 DOH REVISION.

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

A

C. Three years

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19
Q

Part of drinking water analysis, except:

A. Calcium
B. Fecal coliform test
C. Sodium
D. Potassium

A

D. Potassium

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20
Q

License and accredit drug testing centers in each province and city:

A. DOH
B. PDEA
C. PNP
D. PRC

A

A. DOH

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21
Q

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA):

A. Shabu
B. Meth
C. Ice
D. Ecstasy

A

D. Ecstasy

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21
Q

Random drug test:

A. Applicants for firearm’s license
B. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
C. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
D. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government

A

C. Students of secondary and tertiary schools

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22
Q

A drug test is valid for:

A. Six weeks
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

A

C. One year

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23
Q

All results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released only to the following persons, except:

A. Person who submitted himself/herself to such test
B. Boyfriend of the patient
C. Either parent of a minor child who has been tested
D. Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans
Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program

A

B. Boyfriend of the patient

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24
Q

The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination. [Currently, to DOLE]

A. Two-man
B. Three-man
C. Four-man
D. Five-man

A

B. Three-man

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25
Q

The current (September 2022) PRC CHAIRPERSON is:

A. Marilyn Barza
B. Teofilo Pilando
C. Charito Zamora
D. Jose Cueto

A

C. Charito Zamora

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26
Q

If a medical technologist was not able to complete the number of CPD units upon renewal of PRC license, he may sign a/an: [ONLY UP TO DECEMBER 2023]

A. Affidavit of undertaking
B. Certificate of exemption
C. Certificate of registration
D. Suspension order

A

A. Affidavit of undertaking

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27
Q

An act done to avoid harming the patients:

A. Beneficence
B. Non-maleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice

A

B. Non-maleficence

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28
Q

Obligation of MT to the patient:

A. Compliance to PRC
B. Compliance to the department of health
C. Comprehensive health education
D. Strive for excellence in professional practice

A

D. Strive for excellence in professional practice

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29
Q

All traits are mentioned in the MT CODE OF ETHICS, except:

A. Honesty
B. Humility
C. Integrity
D. Reliability

A

B. Humility

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30
Q

Fill in the blank (Code of Ethics): Be dedicated to ____.

A. Fairness to all and in a spirit of brotherhood toward other members of the profession
B. Law and shall not participate in illegal work
C. Responsibilities inherent to being a professional
D. Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

A

D. Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

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31
Q

Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016:

A. RA 7719
B. RA 9288
C. RA 10912
D. RA 7170

A

C. RA 10912

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32
Q

Published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE:

A. CDC
B. DOH
C. PRC
D. WHO

A

D. WHO

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33
Q

Components of quality assurance:

A. Pre-analytical variables
B. Analytical variables
C. Post-analytical variables
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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34
Q

An example of cellular adaptation is:

A. Edema
B. Inflammation
C. Neoplasia
D. Dysplasia

A

D. Dysplasia

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35
Q

Low temperature:

A. Enhance fixation
B. Retard fixation
C. Variable
D. No effect

A

B. Retard fixation

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36
Q

Stopping all cellular activities so that the cells can be viewed under the microscope as if they are still in their original living state:

A. Decalcification
B. Embedding
C. Fixation
D. Staining

A

C. Fixation

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37
Q

Fixative for electron microscopy:

A. Carnoy’s
B. Formalin
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Zenker

A

C. Glutaraldehyde

“GOP KZ”
Glutaraldehyde, Osmium tetroxide, Paraformaldehyde, Karnovsky’s, Zamboni

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38
Q

Most common and fastest decalcifying agent used:

A. Formic acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Sulfurous acid

A

C. Nitric acid

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39
Q

For most instances, dehydration starts by placing the fixed specimen in:

A. 70% ethyl alcohol
B. 95% ethyl alcohol
C. Absolute alcohol
D. Xylene

A

A. 70% ethyl alcohol

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40
Q

Transition step between dehydration and infiltration with the embedding medium:

A. Fixation
B. Clearing
C. Infiltration
D. Mounting

A

B. Clearing

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41
Q

Enclosed tissue processor:

A. Mechanical transfer
B. Dip and dunk
C. Fluid transfer
D. Tissue transfer

A

C. Fluid transfer

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42
Q

What are the processes (IN ORDER) done by the automatic tissue processor:

A. Fixation, clearing, dehydration and infiltration
B. Fixation, infiltration, dehydration and clearing
C. Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration
D. Fixation, dehydration, infiltration and clearing

A

C. Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration

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43
Q

These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):

A. Disposal blades
B. Steel knives
C. Diamond or glass knives
D. Magnetic blades

A

C. Diamond or glass knives

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44
Q

Sections fail to form ribbons:

A. Hard spot in tissue due to calcium
B. Sections are too thick
C. Paraffin is impure
D. Knife edge is dirty

A

B. Sections are too thick

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45
Q

Effect of basic pH to ripening process:

A. Slower oxidizing process
B. More rapid oxidizing process
C. Variable
D. No effect

A

B. More rapid oxidizing process

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46
Q

RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain:

A. Black
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Green

A

A. Black

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47
Q

A stain containing silver nitrate for demonstration of spirochetes:

A. Fite-Faraco
B. Warthin-Starry
C. Masson-Fontana
D. Mallory’s PTAH

A

B. Warthin-Starry

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48
Q

Frozen sections are stained by hand because:

A. Staining is more accurate
B. Prevent overstaining
C. Faster for one or a few individual sections
D. Predictable colors

A

C. Faster for one or a few individual sections

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49
Q

_______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with a _______.

A. Antigen, antibody, visual marker
B. Visual marker, antigen, antibody
C. Antibody, antigen, visual marker
D. Visual marker, antibody, antigen

A

C. Antibody, antigen, visual marker

50
Q

Gastrointestinal specimens, except:

A. Gastric lavage
B. Gastric brush
C. Fine needle aspirate (submucosal lesions)
D. Induced vomiting

A

D. Induced vomiting

51
Q

Liquid-based cytology samples:

A. Body fluids
B. Touch imprint
C. Brush sampling
D. Skin scrape

A

A. Body fluids

52
Q

It is considered to be a most sensitive and specific reagent for lipid staining:

A. Sudan III
B. Sudan IV
C. Sudan Black
D. Oil Red O

A

C. Sudan Black

53
Q

One measure of the efficiency of a surgical pathology service:

A. Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians
B. Rapidity of tissue processing
C. Sufficiency of tissue preservation
D. Sufficiency of reagents and standards

A

A. Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians

54
Q

Objective of a quality assurance program in histopathology:

A. Ensure to process the tissues
B. Ensure acceptable service
C. Ensure to follow standards
D. Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

A

D. Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

55
Q

Primary objective in quality and safety control programs in histopathology laboratories:

A. Correctness of interpretation of reports
B. Ensure correct sampling
C. Ensure accurate treatment to patient
D. Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

A

D. Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

56
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid?

A. Zenker
B. Helly
C. Bouin
D. Zamboni

A

C. Bouin

57
Q

The volume of fixative should exceed the volume of the tissue by:

A. 1 to 2 times
B. 5 to 10 times
C. 10 to 20 times
D. 25 to 50 times

A

C. 10 to 20 times

58
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate, and mercuric chloride?

A. Zenker
B. Helly
C. Carnoy
D. Orth

A

B. Helly

59
Q

Precipitate left in tissues that have been fixed in solutions containing mercuric chloride may be removed by immersion in:

A. Running water
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Weak ammonia water
D. Iodine

A

D. Iodine

60
Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:

A. 4% formaldehyde
B. 10% formaldehyde
C. 37 to 40% formaldehyde
D. 98 to 100% formaldehyde

A

C. 37 to 40% formaldehyde

Important:
Commercial stock solution: 37 to 40% formaldehyde
As fixing fluid: 10% formalin

61
Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

A. Running water
B. Alcoholic iodine
C. Alcoholic picric acid
D. Potassium permanganate

A

C. Alcoholic picric acid

62
Q

To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde:

A. 1,000 mL
B. 900 mL
C. 450 mL
D. 10 mL

A

B. 900 mL

Important: 1:10 dilution
1 part 40% formaldehyde
9 parts water
TV = 10

63
Q

Carnoy fluid is prepared with acetic acid, alcohol, and:

A. Chloroform
B. Formalin
C. Acetone
D. Osmium tetroxide

A

A. Chloroform

64
Q

The first and most important procedure in the preparation of a tissue for microscopic examination is the choice of:

A. Fixative
B. Dehydrating agent
C. Clearing agent
D. Staining technique

A

A. Fixative

65
Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:

A. Decreases the tissue autolysis
B. Decreases the fixative penetration
C. Increases the speed of fixation
D. Increases the volume of fixative needed

A

C. Increases the speed of fixation

66
Q

Which of the following may cause tissue to become overhardened?

A. Prolonged fixation
B. Abbreviated fixation
C. Inadequate dehydration
D. Incomplete clearing

A

A. Prolonged fixation

67
Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions?

A. Methyl alcohol
B. Formic acid
C. Paraformaldehyde
D. Sodium phosphate

A

A. Methyl alcohol

68
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?

A. Formalin
B. Xylene
C. Benzene
D. Alcohol

A

D. Alcohol

69
Q

A clearing agent for use in processing tissues for paraffin embedding must be miscible with the:

A. Fixative and paraffin
B. Dehydrant and paraffin
C. Fixative and dehydrant
D. Paraffin and water

A

B. Dehydrant and paraffin

70
Q

Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:

A. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
C. In very small volume ratios
D. For long periods without changing

A

B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

71
Q

A reagent that CANNOT be used for dehydrating tissue is:

A. Benzene
B. Absolute alcohol
C. Dioxane
D. Acetone

A

A. Benzene

72
Q

Which of the following chemicals is NOT a clearing agent?

A. Chloroform
B. Dioxane
C. Ethanol
D. Xylene

A

C. Ethanol

73
Q

The process of removing water from tissue is called:

A. Dehydration
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Clearing

A

A. Dehydration

74
Q

The dehydration and clearing steps can be omitted when using:

A. Celloidin
B. Epoxy resin
C. Glycol methacrylate
D. Water-soluble wax

A

D. Water-soluble wax

75
Q

During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the:

A. Presence of water in the clearing agent
B. pH of the fixative
C. Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
D. Freshness of the reagents on the processor

A

C. Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

76
Q

The temperature of the oven used to maintain a supply of melted paraffin for embedding tissue should be about:

A. 43C
B. 43F
C. 60C
D. 60F

A

C. 60C

77
Q

When using a microscope with a x10 ocular and a x40 objective, the total magnification is approximately:

A. 100
B. 400
C. 1,000
D. 4,000

A

B. 400

Important:
Total magnification (TM)
= magnification of objective x magnification of ocular
= 10 x 40
= 400

78
Q

The microwave oven creates heat in staining solutions by:

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Nonionizing radiation
D. Electrolytic action

A

C. Nonionizing radiation

79
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain:

A. Fat
B. Glycogen
C. Nuclei
D. Cytoplasm

A

C. Nuclei

80
Q

Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:

A. Hydrolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Mordanting
D. Reduction

A

B. Oxidation

81
Q

The active staining ingredient in ripened hematoxylin solutions is:

A. Hematin
B. Hematein
C. Hematoxylin
D. Hemosiderin

A

B. Hematein

82
Q

The most important step in regressive hematoxylin staining is:

A. Postmordanting in picric acid
B. Use of hematoxylin containing acetic acid
C. Differentiation in acid-alcohol
D. Washing in water after the hematoxylin

A

C. Differentiation in acid-alcohol

83
Q

Mordants are used to:

A. Change the refractive index of the tissue
B. Help differentiate stains
C. Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
D. Oxidize staining solutions

A

C. Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

84
Q

The combination of a dye and a mordant is called a/an:

A. Base
B. Accelerator
C. Lake
D. Buffer

A

C. Lake

85
Q

Mercuric oxide (or sodium iodate) is used in Harris hematoxylin to:

A. Form hematein
B. Prevent oxidation
C. Serve as the mordant
D. Stabilize the solution

A

A. Form hematein

86
Q

DNA can be demonstrated with:

A. Eosin
B. Pyronin
C. Feulgen reaction
D. Fast green

A

C. Feulgen reaction

87
Q

The mordant in Weigert hematoxylin is:

A. Iron
B. Aluminum
C. Mercury
D. Tungsten

A

A. Iron

88
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

A. Keep heterochromatin from staining
B. Make nuclear staining more specific
C. Ripen the hematoxylin
D. Form a dye lake

A

B. Make nuclear staining more specific

89
Q

Which of the following is stained rose by the methyl green-pyronin (MGP) technique?

A. Heterochromatin
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Golgi apparatus

A

C. RNA

90
Q

Differentiating in the H&E stain is an example of using:

A. Excess mordant
B. Weak acid
C. Oxidizers
D. Buffers

A

B. Weak acid

91
Q

The Feulgen reaction demonstrates:

A. DNA only
B. RNA only
C. Both DNA and RNA
D. Phosphoric acid groups

A

A. DNA only

92
Q

Sections for special stains have been accidentally stained with hematoxylin. To remove the hematoxylin, place the sections in:

A. Acid alcohol
B. Dilute ammonia
C. Lithium carbonate
D. Isopropyl alcohol

A

A. Acid alcohol

93
Q

Glycogen is best demonstrated by the use of:

A. Crystal violet
B. Mayer mucicarmine
C. PAS with and without diastase
D. Alcian blue with and without hyaluronidase

A

C. PAS with and without diastase

94
Q

Amyloid can be demonstrated with:

A. Congo red
B. Mayer mucicarmine
C. Cresyl echt violet
D. Alcian blue

A

A. Congo red

95
Q

Which of the following methods best demonstrates elastic tissue?

A. Verhoeff
B. Silver impreganation
C. Gomori trichrome
D. PAS

A

A. Verhoeff

96
Q

The oil red O stain requires which of the following sections?

A. Paraffin
B. Celloidin
C. Frozen
D. Plastic

A

C. Frozen

97
Q

The oil red O stain might be used to demonstrate:

A. Rhabdomyosarcomas
B. Leiomyosarcomas
C. Liposarcomas
D. Adenocarcinomas

A

C. Liposarcomas

98
Q

The best stain for the demonstration of Mycobacterium leprae is the:

A. Fite
B. PAS
C. Kinyoun
D. Gram

A

A. Fite

99
Q

The PAS reaction will demonstrate fungi, because the cell wall contains:

A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Reducing substances
D. Argyrophilic protein

A

B. Carbohydrates

100
Q

A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the:

A. Gomori chromium hematoxylin
B. Fontana-Masson
C. von Kossa silver nitrate
D. Schmorl method

A

C. von Kossa silver nitrate

101
Q

The Perl’s stain is used for the detection of:

A. Reducing substances
B. Hemosiderin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Calcium

A

B. Hemosiderin

102
Q

A tissue frequently used as a control for the Fontana-Masson stain is:

A. Skin
B. Lymph node
C. Liver
D. Spleen

A

A. Skin

103
Q

Toluidine blue stains:

A. Helicobacter
B. Legionella
C. Spirochetes
D. Chlamydia

A

A. Helicobacter

104
Q

Acridine orange demonstrates:

A. Cell wall
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleic acid
D. Flagella

A

C. Nucleic acid

105
Q

Spirochetes in fixed tissue are best demonstrated by:

A. Histochemical techniques
B. Vital staining
C. Metallic impregnation
D. Physical methods

A

C. Metallic impregnation

106
Q

Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the fibers is classified as:

A. Smooth
B. Visceral
C. Skeletal
D. Cardiac

A

C. Skeletal

107
Q

The terms “squamous,” “cuboidal,” and “columnar” describe cells that have their origin in which tissue?

A. Connective
B. Muscle
C. Epithelium
D. Bone

A

C. Epithelium

108
Q

Another name for fat cells is:

A. APUD cells
B. Myocytes
C. Adipocytes
D. Histiocytes

A

C. Adipocytes

109
Q

Elastic fibers have an affinity for:

A. Sudan
B. Indigo
C. Brazilin
D. Orcein

A

D. Orcein

110
Q

Transitional epithelium refers to:

A. Endothelium
B. Urothelium
C. Mesothelium
D. Metaplasia

A

B. Urothelium

111
Q

Which of the following histological features is unique to cardiac muscle?

A. Cross-striations
B. Peripherally located nuclei
C. Intercalated discs
D. Non-branching fibers

A

C. Intercalated discs

112
Q

In addition to its ability to stain argentaffin cell granules, the Fontana-Masson technique may also be used to stain:

A. Lipids
B. Collagen
C. Melanin
D. Spirochetes

A

C. Melanin

113
Q

A delicate three-dimensional connective tissue meshwork that forms the framework of organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes, is made of:

A. Elastic fibers
B. Reticular fibers
C. Smooth muscle
D. Basement membrane

A

B. Reticular fibers

114
Q

The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:

A. Plasma cells
B. Mast cells
C. Macrophages
D. Fibroblasts

A

D. Fibroblasts

115
Q

An example of an exogenous pigment is:

A. Argentaffin
B. Melanin
C. Chromaffin
D. Carbon

A

D. Carbon

116
Q

The staining method considered to be most sensitive and specific for COPPER is the:

A. Chloranilic acid
B. Rhodanine
C. Orcein
D. Aldehyde fuchsin

A

B. Rhodanine

117
Q

The nerve process carrying electrical impulses away from the cell body is called a(n):

A. Neuron
B. Dendrite
C. Synapse
D. Axon

A

D. Axon

Dendrites bring electrical signals to the cell body and axons take information away from the cell body.

118
Q

Hemosiderin, hemoglobin, and bile pigment are classified as:

A. Endogenous pigments
B. Artifact pigments
C. Exogenous pigments
D. Extraneous pigments

A

A. Endogenous pigments

119
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:

A. Carcinomas
B. Lipomas
C. Sarcomas
D. Fibromas

A

C. Sarcomas

120
Q

A rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant tumor, skeletal muscle) is suspected in a biopsy submitted to the laboratory. To aid in making a definitive diagnosis, a helpful stain would be the:

A. Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)
B. Gomori aldehyde fuchsin
C. Verhoeff-van Gieson
D. Periodic acid Schiff

A

A. Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)

121
Q

The use of mounting media makes stained tissue components more visible by:

A. Distinguishing only the nuclei
B. Distinguishing only the cytoplasm
C. Destaining after hematoxylin
D. Improving the index of refraction

A

D. Improving the index of refraction

122
Q

Neuritic plaques of Alzheimer’s disease consist of abnormal cell processes often in close proximity to deposits of:

A. Amyloid
B. Phospholipids
C. Neuromelanin
D. Astrocytes

A

A. Amyloid

123
Q

A disorder involving excess iron deposition in tissues, with resultant TISSUE DAMAGE, is known as:

A. Hemosiderosis
B. Hemoglobinemia
C. Hemophilia
D. Hemochromatosis

A

D. Hemochromatosis

ramel (8 decks)

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