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ramel > CM Progress > Flashcards

CM Progress Flashcards

1
Q

(6) Variables in the Cockroft and Gault formula. (4)

Urine ceatinine
Serum creatinine
Age
Race
Gender
Body weight in kilograms
BUN
Albumin

A

Serum creatinine
Age
Gender
Body weight in kilograms

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2
Q

(6) Variables in the MODIFICATION OF DIET IN RENAL DISEASE (MDRD) formula.

Urine creatinine
Serum creatinine
Age
Race
Gender
Body weight in kilograms
BUN
Albumin

A

Serum creatinine
Age
Race
Gender
BUN
Albumin

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3
Q

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:

a. Patients
b. Needlesticks
c. Specimens
d. Biohardous wastes

A

c. Specimens

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4
Q

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:

a. Urine specimen containers
b. Towels used for decontamination
c. Disposable lab coats
d. Blood collection tubes

A

a. Urine specimen containers

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5
Q

An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body fluid decontamination is:

a. Sodium hydroxide
b. Antimicrobial soap
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Sodium hypochlorite

A

d. Sodium hypochlorite

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6
Q

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:

a. Vectors
b. Sharps contamination
c. Aerosols
d. Specimen contamination

A

c. Aerosols

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7
Q

The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:

a. Rescue person in danger
b. Activate the alarm system
c. Close doors to other areas
d. Extinguish the fire if possible

A

a. Rescue person in danger

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8
Q

If a red rash is observed after removing gloves, the employee:

a. May be washing her hands too often
b. May have developed a latex allergy
c. Should apply cortisone cream
d. Should not rub the hands so vigorously

A

b. May have developed a latex allergy

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9
Q

The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is:

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

A

a. Class A

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10
Q

Employers are required to provide free immunization for:

a. HIV
b. HTLV-1
c. HBV
d. HCV

A

c. HBV

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11
Q

The current routine infection control policy developed by CDC and followed in all health-care settings is:

a. Universal precautions
b. Isolation precautions
c. Blood and body fluid precautions
d. Standard precations

A

d. Standard precations

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12
Q

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?

a. Urobilinogen
b. Ketones
c. Protein
d. Nitrite

A

c. Protein

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13
Q

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?

a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Descending loop of Henle
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Distal convoluted tubule

A

c. Ascending loop of Henle

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14
Q

Decreased production of ADH: (two possible answers)

a. Produces a large volume of urine
b. Produces high urine volume
c. Increases ammonia excretion
d. Affects active transport of sodium

A

a. Produces a large volume of urine

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15
Q

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:

a. Secretion of creatinine
b. Improperly timed urine specimens
c. Refrigeration of the urine
d. Time of collecting blood sample

A

b. Improperly timed urine specimens

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16
Q

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:

a. Serum creatinine
b. Weight
c. Age
d. Gender

A

b. Weight

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17
Q

A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been:

a. Treated for urinary tract infection
b. Taking vitamin B
c. Eating fresh carrots
d. Taking antidepressants

A

a. Treated for urinary tract infection

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18
Q

Orange in alkaline urine, colorless in acid urine.

a. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
b. Phenindione
c. Methyldopa
d. Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A

b. Phenindione

PHENINDIONE
Anticoagulant, orange in alkaline urine, colorless in acid urine

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19
Q

The principle of refractive index is to compare:

a. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids
b. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
c. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
d. Light scattering by particles in solution

A

b. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

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20
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered:

a. Hyposthenuric
b. Not urine
c. Hypersthenuric
d. Isosthenuric

A

b. Not urine

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21
Q

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will:

a. Cause run-over between reagent pads
b. Alter the color of the specimen
c. Cause reagents to leach from the pads
d. Not affect the chemical reactions

A

a. Cause run-over between reagent pads

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22
Q

Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect:

a. Enzymatic reactions
b. Dye-binding reactions
c. Sodium nitroprusside reaction
d. Diazo reactions

A

a. Enzymatic reactions

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23
Q

Quality control of reagent strips is performed:

a. Using positive and negative controls
b. When results are questionable
c. At least once every 24 hours
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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24
Q

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except:

a. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
b. Storing in an opaque bottle
c. Storing at room temperature
d. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

A

a. Removing the desiccant from the bottle

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25
Q

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0:

a. Indicates metabolic acidosis
b. Should be recollected
c. May contain calcium oxalate crystals
d. Is seen after drinking cranberry juice

A

b. Should be recollected

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26
Q

The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:

a. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant
b. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
c. Indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin
d. Albumin changes the pH of the urine

A

b. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator

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27
Q

Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for early detection of kidney disease and monitoring patients with:

a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cardiovascular disease risk
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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28
Q

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:

a. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
b. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
c. Check for newborn galactosuria
d. Confirm a negative glucose reading

A

c. Check for newborn galactosuria

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29
Q

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:

a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria
d. All of the above

A

a. Hematuria

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30
Q

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:

a. Cirrhosis
b. Hemolytic disease
c. Hepatitis
d. Biliary obstruction

A

d. Biliary obstruction

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31
Q

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:

a. Dilute random specimen
b. Specimen with lysed leukocytes
c. Vaginal yeast infection
d. Specimen older than 2 hours

A

d. Specimen older than 2 hours

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32
Q

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:

a. 4x
b. 10x
c. 40x
d. 100x

A

b. 10x

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33
Q

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

a. Hyposthenuric
b. Hypersthenuric
c. Highly acidic
d. Highly alkaline

A

b. Hypersthenuric

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34
Q

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following except:

a. Observation of budding in yeast cells
b. Increased refractility of oil droplets
c. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
d. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

A

c. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

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35
Q

When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of:

a. RBCs
b. Bacteria
c. Hyaline casts
d. Mucus

A

b. Bacteria

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36
Q

The largest cells in the urine sediment are:

a. Squamous epithelial cells
b. Urothelial epithelial cells
c. Cuboidal epithelial cells
d. Columnar epithelial cells

A

a. Squamous epithelial cells

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37
Q

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:

a. Bilirubin
b. Hemosiderin granules
c. Porphobilinogen
d. Myoglobin

A

b. Hemosiderin granules

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38
Q

A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure:

a. Contains cholesterol
b. Is not an oval fat body
c. Contains neutral fats
d. Is contaminated with immersion oil

A

a. Contains cholesterol

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39
Q

The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:

a. Cystitis
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Liver disorders

A

b. Diabetes mellitus

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40
Q

All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:

a. Protein concentration
b. pH
c. Solute concentration
d. Temperature

A

a. Protein concentration

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41
Q

Casts and fibers can usually be differentiated using:

a. Solubility characteristics
b. Patient history
c. Polarized light
d. Fluorescent light

A

c. Polarized light

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42
Q

Three-dimensional images:

a. Bright-field microscope
b. Phase contrast microcope
c. Interference contrast microscope
d. Fluorescent microscope

A

c. Interference contrast microscope

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43
Q

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:

a. IgA nephropathy
b. Wegener granulomatosis
c. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
d. Goodpasture syndrome

A

b. Wegener granulomatosis

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44
Q

The only protein produced by the kidney is:

a. Albumin
b. Uromodulin
c. Uroprotein
d. Globulin

A

b. Uromodulin

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45
Q

The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an indication of:

a. Acute interstitial nephritis
b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
c. Minimal change disease
d. Acute tubular necrosis

A

d. Acute tubular necrosis

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46
Q

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it showed:

a. Heavy proteinuria
b. Low specific gravity
c. Uric acid crystals
d. Microscopic hematuria

A

d. Microscopic hematuria

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47
Q

False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:

a. Meat
b. Carbohydrates
c. Starch
d. Bananas

A

d. Bananas

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48
Q

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?

a. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL of 6N HCl
b. 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
c. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
d. Random urine preserved with formalin

A

c. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration

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49
Q

In automated microscopy, Sysmex UF series, the DNA within the cells is stained by the orange dye:

a. Carbocyanine
b. Phenathridine
c. Eosin
d. Bromcresol green

A

b. Phenathridine

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50
Q

In automated microscopy, Sysmex UF series, the nuclear membranes, mitochondria, and negatively charged cell membranes are stained with a green dye:

a. Carbocyanine
b. Phenathridine
c. Eosin
d. Bromcresol green

A

a. Carbocyanine

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51
Q

The UF-100 and UF-50 use laser-based flow cytometry along with:

a. Impedance detection
b. Imedance detection and forward light scatter
c. Impedance detection and fluorescence
d. Impedance detection and forward light scatter
e. Impedance detection, forward light scatter and fluorescence

A

e. Impedance detection, forward light scatter and fluorescence

52
Q

Graphic display of size distribution of any small sediment particles (ranging from 1 to 6 um2) found during the microscopic examination; helps to decide whether bacteria are present in these small ranges or if the detected particles are small crystals or amorphous.

a. Near-infrared reflectance spectroscopy
b. Reflectance photomtery
c. Small-particle histogram
d. Mass gravity meter

A

c. Small-particle histogram

53
Q

The functions of the CSF include all of the following except:

a. Removing metabolic wastes
b. Producing an ultrafiltrate of plasma
c. Supplying nutrients to the CNS
d. Protecting the brain and spinal cord

A

b. Producing an ultrafiltrate of plasma

54
Q

What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely sent to?

a. Hematology
b. Chemistry
c. Microbiology
d. Serology

A

a. Hematology

55
Q

The presence of xanthochromia can be caused by all of the following except:

a. Immature liver function
b. RBC degradation
c. A recent hemorrhage
d. Elevated CSF protein

A

c. A recent hemorrhage

56
Q

A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates:

a. Tubercular meningitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Primary CNS malignancy
d. Viral meningitis

A

a. Tubercular meningitis

57
Q

CSF total cell count is diluted with:

a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Acetic acid
d. Hypotonic saline

A

b. Normal saline

58
Q

A CSF WBC count is diluted with:

a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Acetic acid
d. Hypotonic saline

A

c. Acetic acid

59
Q

A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be:

a. Reported as normal
b. Not reported
c. Diluted with normal saline
d. Counted undiluted

A

d. Counted undiluted

60
Q

The purpose of adding 30% albumin to CSF before cytocentrifugation is to:

a. Increase the cell yield
b. Decrease the cellular distortion
c. Improve cellular staining
d. Increase cell yield and decrease cellular distortion

A

d. Increase cell yield and decrease cellular distortion

61
Q

Neutrophils with pyknotic nuclei may be mistaken for:

a. Lymphocytes
b. Nucleated RBCs
c. Malignant cells
d. Spindle-shaped cells

A

b. Nucleated RBCs

62
Q

Macrophages appear in the CSF after:

a. Hemorrhage
b. Repeated spinal taps
c. Diagnostic procedures
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

63
Q

Nucleated RBCs are seen in the CSF as a result of:

a. Elevated blood RBCs
b. Treatment of anemia
c. Severe hemorrhage
d. Bone marrow contamination

A

d. Bone marrow contamination

64
Q

Myeloblasts are seen in the CSF:

a. In bacterial infections
b. In conjunction with CNS malignancy
c. After cerebral hemorrhage
d. As a complication of acute leukemia

A

d. As a complication of acute leukemia

65
Q

The reference range for CSF protein is:

a. 6 to 8 g/dL
b. 15 to 45 g/dL
c. 6 to 8 mg/dL
d. 15 to 45 mg/dL

A

d. 15 to 45 mg/dL

66
Q

Elevated CSF protein values can be caused by all of the following except:

a. Meningitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Fluid leakage
d. CNS malignancy

A

c. Fluid leakage

67
Q

The integrity of the blood–brain barrier is measured using the:

a. CSF/serum albumin index
b. CSF/serum globulin ratio
c. CSF albumin index
d. CSF IgG index

A

a. CSF/serum albumin index

68
Q

Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?

a. Ammonia
b. Lactate
c. Glucose
d. Alpha-ketoglutarate

A

a. Ammonia

69
Q

Determining CSF ________ provides an indirect test for the presence of excess ammonia in the CSF.

a. Alpha-ketoglutarate
b. Glucose
c. Glutamine
d. Lactate

A

c. Glutamine

70
Q

Before performing a Gram stain on CSF, the specimen must be:

a. Filtered
b. Warmed to 37C
c. Centrifuged
d. Mixed

A

c. Centrifuged

71
Q

Particular attention should be paid to the Gram stain for the CLASSIC STARBURST PATTERN produced by:

a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Neisseria meninigitidis
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Coccidioides immitis

A

c. Cryptococcus neoformans

72
Q

Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the:

a. Sertoli cells
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Epidiymis
d. Seminal vesicles

A

c. Epidiymis

73
Q

Enzymes for the coagulation and liquefaction of semen are produced by the:

a. Seminal vesicles
b. Bulbourethral glands
c. Ductus deferens
d. Prostate gland

A

d. Prostate gland

74
Q

If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have which of the following?

a. Decreased pH
b. Increased viscosity
c. Decreased sperm count
d. Decreased sperm motility

A

c. Decreased sperm count

75
Q

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. This indicates:

a. Decreased fructose
b. Antispermicide in the condom
c. Increased semen viscosity
d. Increased semen alkalinity

A

b. Antispermicide in the condom

76
Q

Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place within:

a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours

A

a. 1 hour

77
Q

Proteolytic enzymes may be added to semen specimens to:

a. Increase the viscosity
b. Dilute the specimen
c. Decrease the viscosity
d. Neutralize the specimen

A

c. Decrease the viscosity

78
Q

The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen before performing a sperm concentration is to:

a. Immobilize the sperm
b. Facilitate chamber count
c. Decrease the viscosity
d. Stain the sperm

A

a. Immobilize the sperm

79
Q

For determination of sperm concentration, both sides of the Neubauer hemocytometer are loaded and allowed to settle for 3 to 5 minutes; then they are counted, and the counts should agree within ___%.

a. Agree within 5%
b. Agree within 10%
c. Agree within 20%
d. Agree within 30%

A

b. Agree within 10%

80
Q

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to:

a. Penetrate the ovum
b. Protect the the nucleus
c. Create energy for tail movement
d. Protect the neckpiece

A

a. Penetrate the ovum

81
Q

The sperm part containing a mitochondrial sheath is the:

a. Head
b. Neckpiece
c. Midpiece
d. Tail

A

c. Midpiece

82
Q

All of the following are associated with sperm motility except the:

a. Head
b. Neckpiece
c. Midpiece
d. Tail

A

a. Head

83
Q

Additional parameters measured by Kruger’s strict morphology include all of the following except:

a. Vitality
b. Presence of vacuoles
c. Acrosome size
d. Tail length

A

a. Vitality

84
Q

Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis are:

a. Leukocytes
b. Spermatids
c. RBCs
d. Leukocytes and spermatids

A

d. Leukocytes and spermatids

85
Q

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered?

a. Fructose level
b. Zinc level
c. Mixed agglutination reaction
d. Eosin-nigrosin stain

A

d. Eosin-nigrosin stain

86
Q

Follow-up testing for a low sperm concentration would include testing for:

a. Antisperm antibodies
b. Seminal fluid fructose
c. Sperm vitality
d. Prostatic acid phosphatase

A

b. Seminal fluid fructose

87
Q

Measurement of alpha-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the:

a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Epididymis
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral glands

A

b. Epididymis

88
Q

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:

a. Prostatic infection
b. Presence of antisperm antibodies
c. A possible rape
d. Successful vasectomy

A

c. A possible rape

89
Q

Following a negative postvasectomy wet preparation, the specimen should be:

a. Centrifuged and reexamined
b. Stained and reexamined
c. Reported as no sperm seen
d. Detect presence of male antibodies

A

a. Centrifuged and reexamined

90
Q

Normal synovial fluid resembles:

a. Egg white
b. Normal serum
c. Dilute urine
d. Lipemic serum

A

a. Egg white

91
Q

When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable except:

a. Acetic acid
b. Isotonic saline
c. Hypotonic saline
d. Saline with saponin

A

a. Acetic acid

92
Q

Synovial fluid crystals associated with inflammation in dialysis patients are:

a. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
b. Calcium oxalate
c. Corticosteroid
d. Monosodium urate

A

b. Calcium oxalate

93
Q

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be examined as a/an:

a. Wet preparation
b. Wright’s stain
c. Gram stain
d. Acid-fast stain

A

a. Wet preparation

94
Q

The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is:

a. Total protein
b. Uric acid
c. Calcium
d. Glucose

A

d. Glucose

95
Q

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an:

a. Exudate
b. Transudate
c. Effusion
d. Malignancy

A

c. Effusion

96
Q

Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:

a. When malignancy is suspected
b. To classify transudates and exudates
c. To determine the type of serous fluid
d. When a traumatic tap has occurred

A

b. To classify transudates and exudates

97
Q

A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is:

a. Increased neutrophils
b. Decreased lymphocytes
c. Decreased mesothelial cells
d. Increased mesothelial cells

A

c. Decreased mesothelial cells

98
Q

A pleural fluid pH of 6.0 indicates:

a. Esophageal rupture
b. Mesothelioma
c. Malignancy
d. Rheumatoid effusions

A

a. Esophageal rupture

99
Q

Plasma cells seen in pleural fluid indicate:

a. Bacterial endocarditis
b. Primary malignancy
c. Metastatic lung malignancy
d. Tuberculosis infection

A

d. Tuberculosis infection

100
Q

The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the:

a. Fluid:serum albumin ratio
b. Serum ascites albumin gradient
c. Fluid:serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
d. Absolute neutrophil count

A

b. Serum ascites albumin gradient

101
Q

Differentiation between bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis is done by performing a/an:

a. WBC count
b. Differential
c. Absolute neutrophil count
d. Absolute lymphocyte count

A

c. Absolute neutrophil count

102
Q

Ascitic fluid TRANSUDATE:

a. Bacterial peritonitis
b. Cirrhosis
c. Intestinal perforation, ruptured appendix
d. Malignancy

A

b. Cirrhosis

103
Q

Detection of the CA 125 tumor marker in peritoneal fluid indicates:

a. Colon cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Gastric malignancy
d. Prostate cancer

A

b. Ovarian cancer

104
Q

What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses?

a. Fetal cell metabolism
b. Fetal swallowing
c. Fetal urine
d. Transfer of water across the placenta

A

c. Fetal urine

105
Q

How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the laboratory?

a. Delivered on ice and refrigerated
b. Immediately centrifuged
c. Kept at room temperature
d. Delivered in a vacuum tube

A

a. Delivered on ice and refrigerated

106
Q

Why are amniotic specimens for cytogenetic analysis incubated at 37°C prior to analysis?

a. To detect the presence of meconium
b. To differentiate amniotic fluid from urine
c. To prevent photo-oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin
d. To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity

A

d. To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity

107
Q

Plotting the amniotic fluid OD on a Liley graph represents the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn. A value that is plotted in zone II indicates what condition of the fetus?

a. No hemolysis
b. Mildly affected fetus
c. Moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring
d. Severely affected fetus that requires intervention

A

c. Moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring

108
Q

When severe HDN is present, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the physician NOT ORDER to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery?

a. AFP levels
b. Foam stability index
c. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
d. Phosphatidyl glycerol detection

A

a. AFP levels

109
Q

Amniocentesis may be indicated at 15 to 18 weeks’ gestation for the following conditions to determine early treatment or intervention: (4)

  • Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
  • Earlier pregnancy or child with birth defect
  • Fetal lung maturity
  • HDN caused by Rh blood type incompatibility
    -Elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
    -Abnormal triple marker screening test
A
  • Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
  • Earlier pregnancy or child with birth defect
    -Elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
    -Abnormal triple marker screening test
110
Q

Amniocentesis is indicated later in the pregnancy (20 to 42 weeks) to evaluate: (2)

  • Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
  • Earlier pregnancy or child with birth defect
  • Fetal lung maturity
  • HDN caused by Rh blood type incompatibility
    -Elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
    -Abnormal triple marker screening test
A
  • Fetal lung maturity
  • HDN caused by Rh blood type incompatibility
111
Q

When performing an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography, a mature fetal lung will show:

a. Sphingomyelin twice as concentrated as lecithin
b. No sphingomyelin
c. Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin
d. Equal concentrations of lecithin and sphingomyelin

A

c. Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin

112
Q

A rapid immunologic test for FLM that does not require performance of thin-layer chromatography is:

a. AFP levels
b. Amniotic acetylcholinesterase
c. Aminostat-FLM
d. Bilirubin scan

A

c. Aminostat-FLM

113
Q

The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when:

a. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is present
b. The mother has maternal diabetes
c. Amniotic fluid is contaminated by hemoglobin
d. Neural tube disorder is suspected

A

a. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is present
b. The mother has maternal diabetes

114
Q

OD 650 nm:

a. Bilirubin
b. Lamellar bodies
c. Lecithin
d. Oxyhemoglobin

A

b. Lamellar bodies

115
Q

A lamellar body count of 50,000 correlates with:

a. Absent phosphatidyl glycerol and L/S ratio of 1.0
b. L/S ratio of 1.5 and absent phosphatidyl glycerol
c. OD at 650 nm of 1.010 and an L/S ratio of 1.1
d. OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ratio of 2.0

A

d. OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ratio of 2.0

116
Q

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except:

a. Bacteria
b. Blood
c. Electrolytes
d. Water

A

b. Blood

117
Q

The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:

a. Cellulose
b. Pancreatic enzymes
c. Undigested foodstuffs
d. Urobilin

A

d. Urobilin

118
Q

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?

a. Bile duct obstruction
b. Colitis
c. Intestinal constriction
d. Malignancy

A

c. Intestinal constriction

119
Q

What is the fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen?

a. Fecal occult blood
b. APT test
c. Elastase 1
d. Quantitative fecal fat testing

A

d. Quantitative fecal fat testing

120
Q

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide?

a. Fecal fat is present
b. Fetal hemoglobin is present
c. Fecal trypsin is present
d. Vitamin C is present

A

b. Fetal hemoglobin is present

121
Q

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:

a. Bacterial dysentery
b. A duodenal ulcer
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Lactose intolerance

A

c. Cystic fibrosis

122
Q

A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a:

a. Positive APT test
b. Negative trypsin test
c. Positive Clinitest
d. Negative occult blood test

A

c. Positive Clinitest

123
Q

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result?

a. One random specimen
b. Two samples taken from different parts of three stools
c. Three samples taken from the outermost portion of the stool
d. Three samples taken from different parts of two stools

A

b. Two samples taken from different parts of three stools

124
Q

A positive amine (Whiff) test is observed in which of the following syndromes?

a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Vulvovaginal candidiasis
c. Atrophic vaginitis
d. Desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

A

a. Bacterial vaginosis

125
Q

The presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation is associated with:

a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Desquamative inflmmatory vaginitis
d. Preterm delivery

A

d. Preterm delivery

ramel (8 decks)

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