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CC Progress Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Levels may become elevated as one changes position from supine to upright:

A. ACTH and cortisol
B. Aldosterone and insulin
C. Growth hormone and ACP
D. Albumin and calcium

A

D. Albumin and calcium

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2
Q

Peaks early to late morning; decreases up to 30% during the day:

A. Growth hormone
B. Acid phosphatase
C. Calcium
D. Iron

A

D. Iron

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3
Q

Methods used to measure the concentrations of large particles such as antigen–antibody complexes, prealbumin, and other serum proteins:

A. Nephelometry
B. Turbidimetry
C. Nephelometry and turbidimetry
D. Nephelometry, turbidimetry and absorption spectroscopy

A

C. Nephelometry and turbidimetry

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4
Q

The measurement of voltage between two electrodes in a solution forms the basis for a variety of procedures for measuring analyte concentration:

A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Amperometry
D. Voltammetry

A

A. Potentiometry

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5
Q

It is based on fragmentation and ionization of molecules using a suitable source of energy:

A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Chromatography
D. Mass spectrometry

A

D. Mass spectrometry

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6
Q

Generally it is used to detect gamma radiation:

A. Crystal scintillation counter
B. Liquid scintillation counter
C. Crystal and liquid scintillation counter
D. None of these

A

A. Crystal scintillation counter

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7
Q

A technique for determining the structure of organic compounds; it is nondestructive, although it does require a larger sample volume:

A. Mass spectroscopy
B. Nuclear magnetic resonanance
C. Capillary electrophoresis
D. Mass spectroscopy and nuclear magnetic resonance

A

B. Nuclear magnetic resonanance

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8
Q

Common causes of hypernatremia, EXCEPT:

A. Dehydration
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Cushing’s disease or syndrome
D. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) secretion

A

D. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) secretion

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9
Q

In all forms of hyponatremia, the chloride ion concentration is also generally ____ because chloride is the chief counterion for sodium.

A. High
B. Low
C. Variable
D. Cannot be determined

A

B. Low

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10
Q

Low anion gaps:

A. Uremia/renal failure
B. Uremia/renal failure, ketoacidosis and salicylate poisoning
C. Hypoalbuminemia and severe hypercalcemia
D. Hypoalbuminemia, hypercalcemia and multiple myeloma

A

D. Hypoalbuminemia, hypercalcemia and multiple myeloma

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11
Q

In panhepatic cirrhosis there is destruction of _____ of liver tissue.

A. Less than 50%
B. More than 50%
C. Less than 80%
D. More than 80%

A

D. More than 80%

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12
Q

A definitive test for congestive heart failure and appears to be an excellent marker for early heart failure:

A. CK and AST
B. CK, AST and LD
C. CK-MB and troponin
D. B-type natriuretic peptide

A

D. B-type natriuretic peptide

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13
Q

The main waste product of nitrogen-containing chemicals in the body:

A. Ammonia
B. Creatinine
C. Urea
D. Uric acid

A

C. Urea

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14
Q

This protein appears in the urine when reabsorption is incomplete because of the proximal tubular damage as in acute kidney injury:

A. Urea
B. Creatinine
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
D. Beta2-microglobulin

A

D. Beta2-microglobulin

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15
Q

It is characterized by a sudden onset of hematuria and proteinuria and a decrease in glomerular filtration rate characterized by a rise in plasma creatinine and a fall in creatinine clearance compared with reference ranges:

A. Acute glomerular nephritis
B. Chronic glomerular nephritis
C. Diabetic nephropathy
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

A. Acute glomerular nephritis

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16
Q

Chronic glomerular nephritis

A. Slower developing disease and may be idiopathic
B. Characterized by gradual uremia
C. Loss of functioning nephrons
D. Slower developing disease and may be idiopathic, and is characterized by gradual uremia and loss of functioning nephrons

A

D. Slower developing disease and may be idiopathic, and is characterized by gradual uremia and loss of functioning nephrons

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17
Q

A substance that increases the concentration of hydrogen ion (H+) when dissolved in water:

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Neutral
D. Buffer

A

A. Acid

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18
Q

A substance that increases the concentration of hydroxyl ion (OH–) when dissolved in water:

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Neutral
D. Buffer

A

B. Base

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19
Q

The combination of a weak acid or weak base and its salt, is a system that resists changes in pH:

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Neutral
D. Buffer

A

D. Buffer

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20
Q

The role of the lungs and kidneys in maintaining pH is depicted with the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation. The numerator denotes:

A. Kidney function
B. Lung function
C. Either kidney or lung function
D. None of these

A

A. Kidney function

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21
Q

The role of the lungs and kidneys in maintaining pH is depicted with the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation. The denominator denotes:

A. Kidney function
B. Lung function
C. Either kidney or lung function
D. None of these

A

B. Lung function

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22
Q

Lung diseases such as chronic obstructive lung disease, advanced interstitial lung disease and acute asthma are causes of:

A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

A

A. Respiratory acidosis

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23
Q

The fifth most common element and is the most prevalent cation in the human body:

A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

A

A. Calcium

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24
Q

The fourth most abundant cation in the body and the second most prevalent intracellular cation:

A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

A

B. Magnesium

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25
Q

There usually is an autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of the pancreas, causing an absolute deficiency in insulin production.

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. Type 1 and 2 diabetes
D. Gestational diabetes

A

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

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26
Q

Most widely used to assess short-term(3- to 6-week) glycemic control:

A. Plasma glucose levels
B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
C. Fructosamine
D. Ketone testing

A

C. Fructosamine

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27
Q

It plays a key role in role in reverse cholesterol transport, the process by which excess cholesterol is returned from tissues to the liver, where it is reused or excreted in bile:

A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. HDL

A

D. HDL

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28
Q

An abnormal lipoprotein found in patients with obstructive biliary disease and in patients with familial lecithin/cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) deficiency:

A. Intermediate-density lipoproteins
B. Lipoprotein (a)
C. LpX lipoprotein
D. LDL

A

C. LpX lipoprotein

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29
Q

Lipoprotein(s) have a density of less than 1.006 kg/L (density measurement):

A. HDL
B. LDL
C. LDL and HDL
D. Chylomicrons and VLDL

A

D. Chylomicrons and VLDL

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30
Q

A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by complete absence of HDL:

A. LCAT deficiency
B. Hepatic lipase deficiency
C. Familial hypoalphalipoproteinemia
D. Tangier disease

A

D. Tangier disease

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31
Q

It plays a significant role in the metabolism of vitamin A by complexing with the retinol-binding protein (RBP), which, in turn, complexes with vitamin A to transport it through the body:

A. Albumin
B. Alpha1-antitrypsin
C. Prealbumin
D. Transferrin

A

C. Prealbumin

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32
Q

This protein, also known as orosomucoid, has a very high carbohydrate content, which minimizes its visualization by standard protein stains:

A. Gc-globulin
B. Hemopexin
C. C-reactive protein
D. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein

A

D. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein

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33
Q

A striking elevation of transferrin in the β-region sometimes occurs in patients suffering from:

A. Acute inflammation
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Iron deficiency anemia

A

D. Iron deficiency anemia

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34
Q

Enzymes _____ the activation energies of the chemical reactions that they catalyze, so as to cause greatly enhanced rates of reaction.

A. Elevate
B. Lower
C. Affect variably
D. Produces no effect

A

B. Lower

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35
Q

Different forms of enzymes that catalyze the same reaction:

A. Activators
B. Coenzymes
C. Isoenzymes
D. Substrates

A

C. Isoenzymes

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36
Q

A nonprotein molecule necessary for enzyme activity:

A. Activators
B. Apoenzymes
C. Coenzymes
D. Cofactors

A

D. Cofactors

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37
Q

Stated as E + S = ES = E + P

A. Catalytic mechanism
B. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
C. Lineweaver-Burk plot
D. Combination reaction

A

A. Catalytic mechanism

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38
Q

In liver or skeletal muscle disease, which LD isozymes become elevated predominantly in serum?

A. LD1 and LD2
B. LD2 and LD3
C. LD3 and LD4
D. LD4 and LD5

A

D. LD4 and LD5

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39
Q

This probably represents alcohol dehydrogenase:

A. LD1
B. LD3
C. LD5
D. LD6

A

D. LD6

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40
Q

(3) Causes of elevated serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin:

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Biliary obstruction
C. Hemolysis
D. Gilbert’s syndrome
E. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

A

C. Hemolysis
D. Gilbert’s syndrome
E. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

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41
Q

(2) Causes of elevated serum levels of conjugated bilirubin:

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Biliary obstruction
C. Hemolysis
D. Gilbert’s syndrome
E. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

A

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Biliary obstruction

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42
Q

Given the common practice of dismissing mother and newborn baby within 48 hours of the mother’s admission, it is likely that the neonate’s thyroxine levels may:

A. Increase above the normal reference ranges due to starvation
B. Increase above the normal reference ranges due to hyperthyroidism
C. Fall below normal references ranges due to congenital hypothyroidism
D. Fall below normal references ranges due to inadequate protein feeding

A

D. Fall below normal references ranges due to inadequate protein feeding

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43
Q

It usually associated with a single, short-term exposure to a substance, the dose of which is sufficient to cause immediate toxic effects:

A. Acute toxicity
B. Chronic toxicity
C. Either acute or chronic toxicity
D. None of these

A

A. Acute toxicity

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44
Q

It is usually associated with repeated frequent exposure for extended periods for greater than 3 months and possibly years, at doses that are insufficient to cause an immediate response:

A. Acute toxicity
B. Chronic toxicity
C. Acute and chronic toxicity
D. None of these

A

B. Chronic toxicity

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45
Q

This drug is traded on the streets under the name of angel dust or angel hair:

A. Cocaine
B. Amphetamine
C. Phencyclidine
D. Benzodiazepine

A

C. Phencyclidine

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46
Q

Panic reactions—a bad trip—are the most common adverse reactions.

A. Methaqualone
B. Marijuana
C. Phencyclidine
D. Lysergic acid diethylamide

A

D. Lysergic acid diethylamide

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47
Q

The drug of choice for absence (petit mal) seizures unaccompanied by other types of seizures:

A. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C. Primidone (Mysoline)
D. Valproic Acid (Depakene)

A

A. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

It is preferred over valproic acid, at least initially, because hepatotoxicity is a rare but serious side effect of valproic acid.

48
Q

Anti-asthmatic drugs:

A. Digoxin
B. Digoxine and procainamide
C. Theophylline
D. Theophylline and theobromine

A

D. Theophylline and theobromine

49
Q

The most common drug of abuse and is frequently responsible for the presentation of patients with altered mental status to hospitals and emergency rooms:

A. Cocaine
B. Marijuana
C. Ethanol
D. Methanol

A

C. Ethanol

50
Q

Lead is generally measured in:

A. CSF
B. Serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood

A

D. Whole blood

51
Q

In an institution, a comprehensive program in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:

A. Quality assessment
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Quality systems

A

D. Quality systems

52
Q

An indication of error in the analysis, detected by a progressive drift of control values in one direction for at least 5 consecutive runs:

A. Dispesion
B. Shift
C. Trend
D. Random error

A

C. Trend

53
Q

Centrifuge used when rapid centrifugation of solutions containing small particles is needed:

A. Horizontal-head centrifuge
B. Swinging-bucket centrifuge
C. Fixed-angle centrifuge
D. Cytocentrifuge

A

C. Fixed-angle centrifuge

54
Q

Components of Quality Systems Program:

A. Personnel qualifications, training, and competency
B. Quality Assessment components including pre-analytical, analytical and post-analytical factors
C. Proficiency testing
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

55
Q

An example of analytical factor affecting laboratory test result:

A. Patient identification procedure
B. Specimen labeling and transport
C. Reporting and charting of test results
D. Instrument maintenance and calibration

A

D. Instrument maintenance and calibration

56
Q

A method of monitoring accurate outcome; in which test samples from an external source are analyzed and results compared to those of reference laboratories and scored for accuracy:

A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Proficiency testing
D. Material safety data sheet

A

C. Proficiency testing

57
Q

Tests that are very simple or pose no reasonable risk of harm to the patient if the test is performed incorrectly:

A. Waived
B. Nonwaived

A

A. Waived

58
Q

Complex tests that require skill to perform and interpret and are therefore regulated:

A. Waived
B. Nonwaived

A

B. Nonwaived

59
Q

A procedure with minimal complexity, instrumentation, and personnel requirements so that the results can be quickly determined:

A. Definitive test
B. Presumptive test

A

B. Presumptive test

60
Q

Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can be used as legal evidence:

A. Definitive test
B. Presumptive test

A

A. Definitive test

61
Q

It measures light blocked as a decrease in the light transmitted through the solution; dependent on particle size and concentration:

A. Nephelometry
B. Turbidimetry
C. Fluorometry
D. Chromatography

A

B. Turbidimetry

62
Q

Ultraviolet (UV) light has _______ wavelengths.

A. Slightly short wavelengths
B. Very short wavelengths
C. Slightly long wavelengths
D. Very long wavelengths

A

B. Very short wavelengths

63
Q

Which of the following represents a primary advantage of performing fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis?

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity
B. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity
C. Purity of reagents used not as critical
D. Ease of performing assays

A

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity

64
Q

Large particles scattering light predominantly a in the forward direction:

A. Mie scatter
B. Raleigh scatter

A

A. Mie scatter

65
Q

Small particles scattering light in all directions with maximum scatter forward and backward:

A. Mie scatter
B. Raleigh scatter

A

B. Raleigh scatter

66
Q

Increasing temperature:

A. Fluorescence intensity increases
B. Fluorescence intensity decreases
C. Variable fluorescence
D. No relationship

A

B. Fluorescence intensity decreases

67
Q

Pipettes have a cylindrical glass bulb near the center of the pipette that helps to distinguish them from other types of transfer pipettes:

A. Serological measuring pipettes
B. Mohr pipettes
C. Volumetric transfer pipettes
D. Ostwald-Folin transfer pipettes

A

C. Volumetric transfer pipettes

68
Q

Pipettes used for delivering small volumes of viscous solutions such as protein or whole blood standards:

A. Serological measuring pipettes
B. Mohr pipettes
C. Volumetric transfer pipettes
D. Ostwald-Folin transfer pipettes

A

D. Ostwald-Folin transfer pipettes

69
Q

High-speed centrifuges generally used for research projects, but for certain clinical uses, a small air-driven ultracentrifuge is available that operates at 90,000 to 100,000 rpm and generates a maximum RCF of 178,000 g; often refrigerated:

A. Horizontal-head centrifuge
B. Fixed angle-head centrifuge
C. Ultracentrifuge
D. Cytocentrifuge

A

C. Ultracentrifuge

70
Q

A very high-torque and low-inertia motor to spread monolayers of cells rapidly across a special slide for critical morphologic studies:

A. Horizontal-head centrifuge
B. Fixed angle-head centrifuge
C. Ultracentrifuge
D. Cytocentrifuge

A

D. Cytocentrifuge

71
Q

Fist pumping during venipuncture:

A. Decreased potassium and calcium
B. Decreased potassium, increased calcium
C. Increased potassium and calcium
D. Increased potassium, decreased calcium

A

C. Increased potassium and calcium

72
Q

Hemolysis is graded based on visible presence of hemoglobin, when greater than _____ mg/dL.

A. 2 mg/dL
B. 10 mg/dL
C. 12 mg/dL
D. 20 mg/dL

A

D. 20 mg/dL

73
Q

Glucose measurements can be _______by reducing methods than by more accurate enzymatic methods that are highly specific for glucose.

A. 1 to 5 mg/dL erroneously higher
B. 1 to 5 mg/dL erroneously lower
C. 5 to 15 mg/dL erroneously higher
D. 5 to 15 mg/dL erroneously lower

A

C. 5 to 15 mg/dL erroneously higher

74
Q

Simple but nonspecific assay for creatinine:

A. Enzymatic
B. Colorimetric: endpoint
C. Colorimetric: kinetic
D. None of these

A

B. Colorimetric: endpoint

75
Q

Assay for uric acid that deals with turbidity problems and drug interferences:

A. Colorimetric
B. Enzymatic: UV
C. Enzymatic: H2O2
D. None of these

A

A. Colorimetric

76
Q

Using standard serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) methods, serum proteins appear in ____ bands.

A. Four bands
B. Five bands
C. Six bands
D. Twelve bands

A

B. Five bands

77
Q

What may be the cause of NEONATAL PHYSIOLOGICAL JAUNDICE of the hepatic type?

A. Hemolytic episode caused by an ABO incompatibility
B. Structure of the common bile duct
C. Hemolytic episode caused by an Rh incompatibility
D. Deficiency in the bilirubin conjugation enzyme system

A

D. Deficiency in the bilirubin conjugation enzyme system

78
Q

Which of the following is not a type of support media used for serum protein electrophoresis?

A. Agarose gel
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Acrylamide
D. Celite

A

D. Celite

79
Q

What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis?

A. Fat red 7B
B. Sudan black B
C. Ponceau S
D. Oil red O

A

C. Ponceau S

Amido black 10B, Coomassie brilliant blue, and Ponceau S = proteins

Oil red O and fat red 7B = LPP

80
Q

Using standard SPE, which protein travels farthest to the anode?

A. Alpha1-globulins
B. Alpha2-globulins
C. Beta-globulins
D. Gamma-globulins
E. Albumin

A

E. Albumin

81
Q

Which term describes a congenital disorder that is characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis?

A. Analbuminemia
B. Anodic albuminemia
C. Prealbuminemia
D. Bisalbuminemia

A

D. Bisalbuminemia

82
Q

All but one protein are components of the BETA-GLOBULINS:

A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Transferrin
C. Hemopexin
D. Complement components

A

A. Ceruloplasmin

83
Q

Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of albumin?

A. Bromcresol green (BCG)
B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
C. Tetrabromosulfonthalein
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

A

B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)

84
Q

The physician is concerned that a pregnant patient may be at risk for delivering prematurely. What would be the best biochemical marker to measure to assess the situation?

A. Inhibin A
B. Alpha-fetoprotein
C. Fetal fibronectin
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

A

C. Fetal fibronectin

85
Q

In which of the following disorders would the maternal serum level of alpha-fetoprotein not be elevated?

A. Neural tube defect
B. Spina bifida
C. Fetal distress
D. Down syndrome

A

D. Down syndrome

86
Q

Which of the following is not quantified in the triple test for Down syndrome?

A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Unconjugated estriol
C. Progesterone
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

A

C. Progesterone

SCREENING FOR BIRTH DEFECTS
1. Triple test: AFP, HCG and ESTRIOL
2. Quadruple (QUAD) screen: AFP, HCG, ESTRIOL and INHIBIN-A

87
Q

All antigen diffuse from the well and the concentration of the antigen is related to the square of the diameter of the precipitin ring:

A. Fahey-McKelvey or the kinetic RID
B. Mancini or the endpoint RID

A

B. Mancini or the endpoint RID

88
Q

It requires that all rings be measured at a fixed time of 18 hours; diameter of the precipitin ring is plotted against the antigen concentration on a logarithmic scale:

A. Fahey-McKelvey or the kinetic RID
B. Mancini or the endpoint RID

A

A. Fahey-McKelvey or the kinetic RID

89
Q

To produce reliable results, when should blood specimens for lipid studies be drawn?

A. Immediately after eating
B. Anytime during the day
C. In the fasting state, approximately 2 to 4 hours after eating
D. In the fasting state, approximately 12 hours after eating

A

D. In the fasting state, approximately 12 hours after eating

90
Q

Direct measurements of T4, except:

A. Dialysis
B. Immunoassay
C. Ultrafiltration
D. Uptake

A

D. Uptake

91
Q

Errors in LDL-C become noticeable at triglycerides > _____ mg/dL and become unacceptably large at triglyceride levels > _____ mg/dL.

A. > 50 mg/dL, > 150 mg/dL
B. > 100 mg/dL, > 200 mg/dL
C. > 200 mg/dL, > 400 mg/dL
D. > 300 mg/dL, > 600 mg/dL

A

C. > 200 mg/dL, > 400 mg/dL

92
Q

The Friedewald formula for computation of LDL-cholesterol is not valid for triglycerides over ___ mg/dL.

A. Over 100 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 300 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL

A

D. Over 400 mg/dL

93
Q

Compete with the substrate for the active site of the enzyme and prevent formation of product, but have a higher Km than the preferred substrate and can be overcome by addition of more substrate:

A. Competitive inhibitors
B. Noncompetitive inhibitors
C. Unncompetitive inhibitors

A

A. Competitive inhibitors

94
Q

Bind on a different active site of the enzyme than the substrate and so cannot be overcome by addition of more substrate, but prevent formation of product despite the enzyme-substrate complex:

A. Competitive inhibitors
B. Noncompetitive inhbitors
C. Uncompetitive inhibitors

A

B. Noncompetitive inhbitors

95
Q

Bind to the enzyme-substrate complex and prevent the formation of product:

A. Competitive inhibitors
B. Noncompetitive inhibitors
C. Uncompetitive inhibitors

A

C. Uncompetitive inhibitors

96
Q

The reactants are combined, the reaction proceeds for a designated time, the reaction is stopped (usually by inactivating the enzyme with a weak acid),and a measurement of the amount of reaction that has occurred is made:

A. Kinetic method
B. Fixed-time method

A

B. Fixed-time method

97
Q

Multiple measurements, usually of absorbance change, are made during the reaction, either at specific time intervals (usually every 30 or 60 seconds) or continuously by a continuous-recording spectrophotometer:

A. Kinetic method
B. Fixed-time method

A

A. Kinetic method

98
Q

Most labile LD isoenzyme; loss of activity occurs more quickly at 4°C than at 25°C.

A. LD-1
B. LD-2
C. LD-3
D. LD-4
E. LD-5

A

E. LD-5

99
Q

The International Federation for Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) recommends the use of methods such as the Bessey-Lowry-Brock method for determining alkaline phosphatase activity. The substrate used in this type of method is:

A. Monophosphate
B. Phenylphosphate
C. Disodium phenylphosphate
D. Para-nitrophenylphosphate

A

D. Para-nitrophenylphosphate

100
Q

Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately what percent?

A. 8%
B. 45%
C. 92%
D. 98%

A

C. 92%

101
Q

Hepatic cirrhosis:

A. Hypernateremia due to excess water loss
B. Hypernatremia due to decreased water intake
C. Hyponatremia due to increased sodium loss
D. Hyponatremia due to increased water retention

A

D. Hyponatremia due to increased water retention

102
Q

Diabetes insipidus:

A. Hypernatremia due to decreased water intake
B. Hypernatremia due to excess water loss
C. Hyponatremia due to increased sodium loss
D. Hyponatremia due to increased water retention

A

B. Hypernatremia due to excess water loss

103
Q

Artifactual hyperkalemia:

A. Sample hemolysis
B. Sample hemolysis, thrombocytosis
C. Sample hemolysis, excessive fist clenching
D. Sample hemolysis, thrombocytosis, prolonged tourniquet use or excessive fist clenching

A

D. Sample hemolysis, thrombocytosis, prolonged tourniquet use or excessive fist clenching

104
Q

Hormonal regulation of calcium:

A. Calcitonin, parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin, vitamin D
C. Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D
D. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin and vitamin D

A

D. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin and vitamin D

105
Q

It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing vasodilation of the afferent arterioles and constriction of the efferent arterioles, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the proximal convoluted tubules, and triggering the release of the sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hypothalamus:

A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin I
C. Angiotensin II
D. Renin

A

C. Angiotensin II

106
Q

Increased antidiuretic hormone:

A. Fluid loss, low serum sodium
B. Fluid loss, high serum sodium
C. Fluid retention, low serum sodium
D. Fluid retention, high serum sodium

A

C. Fluid retention, low serum sodium

107
Q

Decreased anion gaps of less than 10 mmol/L

A. Decreased measured cations or increased measured anions
B. Decreased unmeasured cations or decreased unmeasured anions
C. Increased measured cations or decreased measured anions
D. Increased unmeasured cations or decreased unmeasured anions
E. Increased unmeasured cations and anions
F. Decreased unmeasured cations and anions

A

D. Increased unmeasured cations or decreased unmeasured anions

108
Q

Serum osmolality increases by about ____ mOsm/kg for each 60 mg/dL increase in serum ethanol.

A. 1 mOsm/kg
B. 10 mOsm/kg
C. 15 mOsm/kg
D. 20 mOsm/kg

A

B. 10 mOsm/kg

109
Q

Blood received in the laboratory for blood gas analysis must meet which of the following requirements?

A. On ice, thin fibrin strands only, no air bubbles
B. On ice, no clots, fewer than 4 air bubbles
C. On ice, no clots, no air bubbles
D. Room temperature, no clots, no air bubbles

A

C. On ice, no clots, no air bubbles

110
Q

For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will ____ and pCO2 will ______.

A. pO2 an pCO2 will fall 7% and 3% respectively
B. pO2 and pCO2 will rise 3% and 7% respectively
C. pO2 will rise 7% and pCO2 will fall 3%
D. pO2 will fall 7% and pCO2 will rise 3%

A

D. pO2 will fall 7% and pCO2 will rise 3%

111
Q

What is the predominant form of thyroid hormone in the circulation?

A. Thyroxine
B. Triiodothyronine
C. Diiodotyrosine
D. Monoiodotyrosine

A

A. Thyroxine

112
Q

The recommended initial thyroid function test for either a healthy, asymptomatic patient or a patient with symptoms which may be related to a thyroid disorder is:

A. Free thyroxine (free T4)
B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Total thyroxine (T4)
D. Triiodothyronine (T3)

A

B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

113
Q

Patient has signs and symptoms suggestive of acromegaly. The diagnosis would be confirmed if the patient had which of the following?

A. An elevated serum phosphate concentration
B. A decreased serum growth hormone releasing factor concentration
C. No decrease in serum growth hormone concentration 90 minutes after oral glucose administration
D. An increased serum somatostatin concentration

A

C. No decrease in serum growth hormone concentration 90 minutes after oral glucose administration

114
Q

The target DNA must be denatured to ____ before it can serve as a template for the PCR reaction.

A. Double-stranded DNA
B. Single-stranded DNA
C. Either dsDNA or ssDNA
D. None of these

A

B. Single-stranded DNA

115
Q

An isotonic saline solution contains 0.85% NaCl. How many grams of NaCl are needed to prepare 5 L of this solution?

A. 4.25 grams
B. 8.5 grams
C. 42.5 grams
D. 425 grams

A

C. 42.5 grams

ramel (8 decks)

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