silver Flashcards
The MHRA issued an alert, after an EU-wide review concluded that on rare occasions, the use of drug X can lead to calciphylaxis—patients are advised to consult their doctor if they develop a painful skin rash. If calciphylaxis is diagnosed, then appropriate treatment should be started, and consideration should be given to stopping treatment with drug X. Which of the following options is most likely drug X?
Warfarin
Digoxin
Rivaroxaban
Vancomycin
Liothyronine
Calciphylaxis (also called calcific uremic arteriolopathy) is a rare but serious condition characterized by vascular calcification and skin necrosis, most commonly seen in patients with end-stage renal disease. However, it has also been reported in patients taking warfarin, which inhibits the activation of vitamin K-dependent proteins, including matrix Gla protein—a key inhibitor of vascular calcification
In England, all of the following drugs can be supplied in instalments on an FP10MD form except:
Suboxone
Buprenorphine
Diazepam
Morphine
Codeine
Codiene
In England, an FP10MDA form (blue prescription) allows instalment dispensing of certain Schedule 2 and 3 Controlled Drugs, mainly for opioid dependence treatment.
Oral retinoids (including acitretin, alitretinoin and isotretinoin) are used for severe skin conditions. They are described in their Summary of Product Characteristics (SPCs) as ‘a powerful human teratogen inducing a high frequency of severe and life-threatening birth defects’ and therefore contraindicated in pregnant women and women of childbearing potential unless all of the conditions of the PPP are met. Under the PPP, prescriptions are valid only for ________ and ideally should be dispensed on the date the prescription is written
5 days
7 days
14 days
28 days
6 months
7 days
Oral retinoids (including acitretin, alitretinoin and isotretinoin) are used for severe skin conditions. They are described in their Summary of Product Characteristics (SPCs) as ‘a powerful human teratogen inducing a high frequency of severe and life-threatening birth defects’ and therefore contraindicated in pregnant women and women of childbearing potential unless all of the conditions of the PPP are met. The quantity supplied can only be for a maximum of _________ supply. A quantity for more than this can only be dispensed if the patient is confirmed by the prescriber as not being under the PPP.
7 days
14 days
28 days
30 days
56 days
30 days
All macrolides are associated with QT interval prolongation. However, the MHRA has issued an alert for ________ in particular as there is an increased risk of cardiotoxicity
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Roxithromycin
Vancomycin
Erythromycin
n the event of renal impairment, the dose of Erythromycin should not exceed ____ in adults.
1g
1.5g
2g
2.5g
3g
1.5g
Sell Mrs Payne Ibuprofen 400mg tablets; to be taken up to 4 four times a day as necessary.
Sell Mrs Payne Ibuprofen 200mg tablets; to be taken up to 4 four times a day as necessary
Sell Mrs Payne Paracetamol 500mg tablets; 2 tablets to be taken up to 4 four times a day as necessary
Sell Mrs Payne Paracetamol 500mg tablets; 2 tablets to be taken up to 2 four times a day as necessary
Refer Mrs Payne to the GP
Refer
Mrs Lek Payne’s leg is red, swollen and painful, the skin is warm and tender to the touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Possible folliculitis infection
Possible impetigo infection
Possible cellulitis infection
Possible shingles infection
Possible erysipelas infection
Cellulitis
After visiting the GP, Mrs Payne was confirmed to have cellulitis; most likely caused by the scratch as a result of the fall. She was prescribed 500mg Erythromycin to be taken 4 times a day for 5-7 days (and then a review). Which of Mrs Payne’s regular medicines would be a cause for concern due to a potential interaction with Erythromycin?
Ramipril
Amlodipine
Lansoprazole
Simvastatin
Naproxen
Erythromycin is a strong inhibitor of CYP3A4, the enzyme responsible for metabolizing Simvastatin. This interaction can increase Simvastatin levels, leading to a higher risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis (muscle breakdown that can cause kidney damage).
Lower urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection of the bladder (also known as cystitis) usually caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract. Which of the following is not a risk factor for complicated UTI’s?
Pregnancy
Urinary catheterisation
Co-morbidities such as immunosuppression
Structural abnormalities
Smoking
Smoking
Which of the following options correctly identifies the antidote for opioid toxicity?
Naloxone
Suboxone
Naltrexone
Cortexone
Copaxone
Naloxone
Lower urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection of the bladder (also known as cystitis) usually caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract. Lower urinary tract infections are most commonly caused by which of the following organisms?
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Escherichia coli
Pesudomonas maltophilia
Clostridium kluyveri
E.Coli
What should be done in the event of concomitant treatment of Digoxin and Amiodarone?
The dose of Amiodarone should be halved
The dose of Digoxin should be halved
The dose of Digoxin should be reduced by 20-33%
The dose of Amiodarone should be reduced by 20-33%
No change needs to be made
dose should be halved
Amiodarone inhibits P-glycoprotein, which is responsible for Digoxin elimination.
This reduces Digoxin clearance, leading to increased serum Digoxin levels.
Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning small increases in concentration can lead to toxicity (nausea, bradycardia, visual disturbances).
Which of the following options correctly identifies the reversal agent for Dabigatran?
Abciximab
Adalimumab
Idaricuzumab
Bezlotoxumab
Basiliximab
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin (Factor IIa) inhibitor, used as an anticoagulant.
In cases of life-threatening bleeding or urgent surgery, Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is used as a specific reversal agent for Dabigatran.
It is a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds to Dabigatran with high affinity, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects within minutes.
Which of the following options correctly identifies the reversal agent for Heparin?
Penicillamine
Protamine
Paragrad
Percocet
Protonic
Protamine sulfate is a positively charged molecule that binds to the negatively charged Heparin, forming a stable complex and neutralizing its anticoagulant effect.
Mrs Wheek Neez (54) popped into the pharmacy today for some advice. She tells you she has been experiencing some ear pain and noticed some discharge too this morning. PMR: Simvastatin 20mg daily, Lisinopril 20mg daily, Alendronic acid 70mg once weekly, Bisoprolol 10mg daily, Paracetamol 500mg QDS PRN. How do you proceed?
Sell Mrs Neez Ibuprofen 200mg tablets; to be taken up to 4 four times a day as necessary.
Sell Mrs Neez Paracetamol 500mg tablets; 2 tablets to be taken up to 4 four times a day as necessary.
Sell Mrs Neez Olive oil ear drops
Sell Mrs Neez Otomize ear spray
Refer Mrs Neez to the GP
Refer
Glycopeptide antibiotics are a class of drugs of microbial origin that are composed of glycosylated cyclic or polycyclic nonribosomal peptides. Which of the following is an example of a glycopeptide antibiotic?
Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Gentamicin
Teicoplanin
Amoxicillin
Teicoplanin
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors work by delaying the digestion and absorption of starch & sucrose by inhibiting alpha glucosidase enzymes and thus lower blood glucose levels. Which of the following drugs is an example of an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor?
Glimepiride
Repaglinide
Metformin
Pioglitazone
Acarbose
Acarbose
Class X of anti-diabetic drugs work by blocking the re-absorption of glucose in the kidneys and promoting the excretion of excess glucose in the urine; due to this common side effects of this drug class include genital infections, polyuria and thirst. Of the following options which is most likely to be class X?
SGLT2 inhibitors
Meglitinides
Incretin mimetics
DPP4 inhibitors
Biguanides
SGLT2
Mrs Tipe Tew (52) has been commenced on a new anti-diabetic medication. She informs you that her friend told her that this particular diabetes medicine often causes people to gain substantial weight and she was quite worried about this. You provide Mrs Tew with reassurance that this medicine will not cause weight gain as a side effect. Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs was Mrs Tew most likely prescribed?
Gliclazide
Nateglinide
Linagliptin
Glimepiride
Repaglinide
Linagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to manage type 2 diabetes.
One of the key benefits of DPP-4 inhibitors (like Linagliptin) is that they are weight-neutral, meaning they do not typically cause weight gain or weight loss.
Which of the following class of drugs or drug should be used with caution in people of black African or Caribbean origin, or with primary aldosteronism — as these groups of people respond less well?
Beta blockers
Spironolactone
ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers
Tramadol
ACE
Which of the following drugs/drug classes is not known to induce acute kidney injury?
Ibuprofen
Alendronic acid
Gentamicin
Quinapril
Furosemide
Alendronic acid
The MHRA advises patients and carers to seek medical attention if changes in speech or behaviour occur following administration of which of the following drugs?
Montelukast
Levothyroxine
Gentamicin
Tramadol
Amlodipine
Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist commonly used to manage asthma and allergic rhinitis.
The MHRA has issued a warning about neuropsychiatric side effects associated with Montelukast, which may include changes in speech, behavior, and other neuropsychiatric symptoms (e.g., aggression, agitation, depression, suicidal thoughts).
Ms Dee Joxin (82) was recently admitted to the hospital after taking too many digoxin tablets due to a mechanical error with her dossete box and it dispensing too many tablets. Which of the following symptoms would Ms Joxin most likely have not experienced?
Nausea
Yellow/green visual disturbances
Confusion
Loss of appetite
Speech disturbances e.g., stutter
Speech disturbances (e.g., stutter) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. While neurological symptoms can occur, they are more likely to manifest as confusion, disorientation, or even arrhythmias (e.g., bradycardia, ventricular arrhythmias) rather than speech problems.