rps22 Flashcards
A 15-year-old boy asks to speak to you about his eye. You notice that his left eye
appears red and is watering. The boy informs you that his eye has been like this since
waking up this morning. His vision has not been affected but his eye is causing him
some pain and he is squinting due to the lights in the pharmacy.
A Advise him that his symptoms are self-limiting and will resolve in a few days
B Refer him to the GP
C Sell chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops
D Sell hypromellose 0.3% eye drops
E Sell sodium cromoglycate 2% eye drops
Conjunctivitis is usually associated with a yellow sticky discharge and is described as feeling ‘gritty’ rather than being painful. Red watery eyes can be signs of dry eye or hay fever;however,eye pain and photophobia are red flag symptoms and require referral to either an optician or a GP for assessment.
A 63-year-old man with a history of advanced throat cancer with bone metastases has
been referred to you for a review of his pain control. Due to his condition, he is now
struggling to swallow, and a decision has been made to switch him from tablets to
patches.
He currently takes the following medicines:
* Zomorph (morphine sulphate) 10mg capsules, TWO capsules TWICE daily
* Zomorph (morphine sulphate) 30mg capsules, ONE capsule TWICE daily
* Oramorph (morphine sulphate) 10mg/5mL, 2.5mL FOUR times a day
Information about fentanyl has been provided below.
A Durogesic DTrans (fentanyl) 50mcg/hr transdermal patch
B Fencino (fentanyl) 75mcg/hr transdermal patch
C Matrifen (fentanyl) 25mcg/hr transdermal patch
D Mezolar (fentanyl) 12mcg/hr transdermal patch
E Victanyl (fentanyl) 100mcg/hr transdermal patch
A
Total daily dose of morphine: 120mg2 x 10mg capsules BD = 40mg30mg capsules BD = 60mg2.5mL Oramorph = 5mg, 5mg QDS = 20mg120mg morphine salt is equivalent to fentanyl 50 patch
A 35-year-old woman has presented to accident and emergency with signs of
haemolytic anaemia secondary to G6PD deficiency.
Which one of her medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?
A Amlodipine 5mg tablets
B Bisoprolol 2.5mg once daily
C Cetirizine hydrochloride 10mg tablets
D Fentanyl 12mcg/hr patches
E Nitrofurantoin 100mg modified-release capsules
Nitrofurantoin
G6PD deficiency is a genetic disorder that some individuals may have, it is common in males and those originating from Asia, Africa, the Middle East and the Mediterranean region. G6PD is an enzyme that supports the functioning of red blood cells. Individuals with this deficiency are susceptible to haemolytic anaemia when they take a number of common drugs. From the options, nitrofurantoin is the only medication that is contra-indicated in G6PD deficiency.
A patient is admitted into accident and emergency with Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
(SJS). You check the patient’s medication record to look for possible causes.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to have caused Stevens-Johnson
Syndrome in this patient?
A Beclometasone 100 microgram inhaler
B Codeine 15 mg tablets
C Lamotrigine 100 mg tablets
D Paracetamol 500 mg tablet
E Salbutamol 100 microgram inhaler
Lamotrigine is the only medication in this section which has the potential to cause SJS
A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension, glaucoma and iron deficiency
anaemia is coming into your clinic for his annual hypertension review. He currently
takes the following medicine:
* Amlodipine 5mg once daily
* Atorvastatin 20mg once daily
* Ferrous sulphate 200mg twice a day
* Latanoprost 50microgram/ml eye drops 1 drop at night to both eyes
* Ramipril 5 mg once daily
Ahead of the review, he has had blood tests taken, the results of which are shown
below, his last results three months ago were all normal.
Urea 6.5 mmol/l (2.5-7.8 mmol/L)
Creatinine 80 micromol/L (59-104 micromol/L)
Alkaline phosphatase 40 U/L (30-130 U/L)
Alanine aminotransferase 240 U/L (<45 U/L)
Gamma glutamyl transferase 45 U/L (<70 U/L)
Which of the patient’s regular medication is most likely to have caused the change in
blood tests?
A Amlodipine
B Atorvastatin
C Ferrous sulphate
D Latanoprost
E Ramipril
Atorvastatin
BNF states: NICE suggests that liver enzymes should be measured before treatment andrepeated within 3 months and at 12 months of starting treatment. Those with serum transaminases that are raised, but less than 3 times the upper limit of the reference range, should not be routinely excluded from statin therapy. Those with serum transaminases of more than 3 times the upper limit of the reference range should discontinue statin therapy
A 28-year-old man presents in the pharmacy asking for information about the smoking
cessation service.
Which one of the following is most suitable to advise regarding smoking cessation?
A A quit date should be agreed to keep the patient motivated
B A single intervention is better than a combination
C Bupropion is first line for smoking cessation
D E-cigarettes are licensed for use in smoking cessation
E The patient should purchase varenicline for smoking cessation
A
The only correct and appropriate option is for a quit date to be agreed to keep the patient motivated.Combination intervention is better than single intervention when considering smoking cessation options. It should be noted that bupropion is not first line treatment for smoking cessation; various options should be explored included non-pharma logical interventions. E-cigarettes are not licensed for use in smoking cessation, and varenicline is a POM therefore cannot be supplied to the patient over the counter.Drug treatments for smoking cessation should be made on an individual basis, and consider:The individual’s previous experience of smoking cessation drugs.Their preference for treatment.*Contraindications, cautions, possible interactions andrisk of adverse effects of the treatments.
The next two questions relate to a 63-year-old man, who comes into your
pharmacy to ask about a rash that has developed over the past 24 hours.
You take him into the consultation room, and he shows you the rash on the left side of
his abdomen. He says that he is recovering from a heavy cold and feels a bit run down.
He has no spots anywhere else on his body. He describes the area as itchy, painful
and burning. You check his medication records and find that he currently takes
amlodipine 5mg daily and indapamide M/R 1.5mg daily for hypertension.
What is the most likely cause of the patient’s rash?
A Allergy to his medication
B Scabies mites
C Streptococcus pyogenes
D Tinea corporis
E Varicella-zoster
The symptoms suggest shingles rash caused by varicella zoster. There is usually a prodromal phase with abnormal skin sensations and pain in the affected dermatome (area of skin served by an individual nerve). Within 2–3 days, a rash typically appears in a dermatomal distribution. It starts as maculopapular lesions then develops into clusters of vesicles, with new vesicles continuing to form over 3–5 days. The rash is usually painful, itchy, and/or tingly, and, unlike other rashes, does not cross the midline of the body.
You refer the patient to his GP for treatment for shingles and after two weeks he returns to see you.
He says that the rash has faded, but he still has a lot of pain from the site.
What is the most appropriate treatment for the patient?
A Amitriptyline 10mg tablets 1-2 at night
B Buprenorphine 5mcg/hr patch applied directly to the site and changed every 7
days
C Hydrocortisone cream 1% applied to the area 3 times a day for 7 days
D Ibuprofen 400mg tablets 3 times a day
E Nefopam 30mg tablets 1-2 tablets 3 times a day
Patient is experiencing post-herpetic neuralgia. Amitriptyline would be the most appropriate treatment for this.
A 58-year-old woman is admitted to hospital following persistent chest pains. After
routine investigations, she is diagnosed with angina and prescribed glyceryl trinitrate
400 microgram sublingual spray. You have been asked by the nurse to counsel the
patient on how to use the glyceryl trinitrate spray.
Which of the following instructions are you most likely to advise the patient?
A Use one spray under the tongue at the onset of symptoms. The dose may be
repeated after 5 minutes if required.
B Use one spray under the tongue at the onset of symptoms. The dose may be
repeated after 15 minutes if required
C Use one spray under the tongue at the onset of symptoms. The dose should not
be repeated.
D Use two sprays under the tongue at the onset of symptoms. The dose may be
repeated after 10 minutes if required.
E Use two spra
A
A three-year-old girl is prescribed aspirin as an antiplatelet following cardiac surgery to
prevent thrombus formation. The junior doctor would like to know if there are any
precautions around its use in children.
Which of the following statements regarding aspirin in paediatric patients would be
most suitable to highlight to the doctor?
A Aspirin is licensed for use in under 16-year-olds
B Aspirin is safe to prescribe in those with a previous history of hypersensitivity to
NSAIDs
C Aspirin is safe to use in asthmatic patients
D The manufacturer states that aspirin should be avoided in under 16-year-olds due
to risk of Kawasaki disease
E The manufacturer states that aspirin should be avoided in under 16-year-olds due
to risk of Reyes syndrome
E
Aspirin should be used with caution in asthmatic patients. It can be used as an exception in Kawasaki disease; however, it is contraindicated ifthe patient hashad previous hypersensitivity. It is alsounlicensed in under 16-year-olds.
You receive the below prescription for a three-year-old child. On the Pro-D3 (vitamin
D3) box, it states that there is a dropper built into the top of the bottle that dispenses
drops that are 50 microlitres in size.
How many drops of Pro-D3 is most appropriate to administer per dose?
A 4 drops
B 8 drops
C 10 drops
D 20 drops
E 40 drops
4 drops
Each drop is 50 microlitres. 1 mL = 1000 microlitres. 1000/50 = 20 drops per mL.2,000 iu / 20 drops = 100 iu per dropDose = 400 iu = 4 dropsExtract (if applicble)
A patient has had a reaction after being given an overdose of ferric carboxymaltose
(Ferinject).
What would be the most appropriate action in which to investigate this?
A Complete a yellow card for the patient’s reaction
B Complete an audit of patients administered with Ferinject
C Report the practitioners involved to their appropriate governing bodies
D Complete the ‘near miss log’ in the pharmacy
E Use a root cause analysis tool to investigate why the error happened
The most appropriate action for this would be to complete an analysis tool, such as a Root Cause Analysis (RCA) tool
You receive a private prescription for a controlled drug and note that the prescriber is
based in Portugal.
Which of the following controlled drugs can legally be supplied on this prescription?
A Codeine
B Ketamine
C Morphine
D Oxycodone
E Pethidine
The address of prescriber is required to be within the UK on prescriptions for controlled drugs, but not for Schedule 4 (part 1 and 2) or Schedule 5 controlled drugs. Codeine is Schedule 5 controlled drug, all other options are Schedule 2 controlled drugs
A 58-year-old woman is currently taking digoxin 125micrograms daily for the past two
months. She has no known drug allergies. She has also been taking furosemide 40mg
tablets twice a day for the past two weeks. The patient tells you that she has not been
feeling very well and has been experiencing nausea, diarrhoea, palpitations and feeling
faint.
What is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?
A She is experiencing a side-effect of digoxin, and whilst safe to continue taking it,
she may wish to see her GP for a review
B She should see her GP as the dose of furosemide may need to be decreased
C She should see her GP so that a digoxin plasma concentration level can be taken
D Stop taking digoxin straight away and see her GP as soon as possible
E Stop taking furosemide straight away and continue taking the digoxin
Advise the patient to stop taking digoxin and refer for medical review urgently. The BNF monograph recommends that if toxicity occurs, digoxin should be withdrawn as serious manifestations can occur requiring urgent specialist management. A digoxin plasma concentration within the therapeutic range does not exclude digoxin toxicity.
You meet a patient on the oncology ward in your hospital who is about to undergo their
first round of chemotherapy. They are worried about being sick with chemotherapy.
Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is most likely to cause vomiting?
A Bleomycin
B Cisplatin
C Etoposide
D Fludarabine
E Vincristine
Cisplatin
One of your regular patients visits you complaining of acute gout. He has a history of
myocardial infarction 2 years ago and has no known drug allergies. He currently takes
the following medication:
- Aspirin 75mg once a day
- Bisoprolol 10mg once a day
- Ramipril 5mg once a day
- Simvastatin 20mg once a day
Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment?
A Allopurinol
B Colchicine
C Diclofenac
D Paracetamol
E Tramadol
Colchicine
Allopurinol is used to prevent gout, not to treat it. Diclofenac is contra-indicated due to the history of MI and paracetamol and tramadol are not anti-inflammatory so ineffective in gout.
A patient calls the pharmacy at noon and asks for your advice on emergency contraception. She takes desogestrel regularly but forgot to take a tablet this morning. She took it yesterday morning at 8am as normal, and last night had unprotected intercourse. She is on day 13 of the pack of tablets
A- As long as the missed pill is no more than 12 hours late it can be taken straight away with no changes to dose timings. No further protection will beneeded.
B- As long as the missed pill is no more than 12 hours late it can be taken straight away with no changes to dose timings. The patient will need to use barrier methods for the next 7 days.
C- As long as the missed pill is no more than 24 hours late it can be taken straight away with no changes to dose timings. No further protection will be needed
D- As long as the missed pill is no more than 24 hours late it can be taken straight away with no changes to dose timings. The patient will need to use barrier methods for the next 7 days.
E- As long as the missed pill is no more than 72 hours late it can be taken straight away with no changes to dose timings. The patient will need to use barrier methods for the next 7 days
The SmPC section 4.2 states:Management of missed tabletsContraceptiveprotection may be reduced if more than 36 hours have elapsed between two tablets. If the user is less than 12 hours late in taking any tablet, the missed tablet should be taken as soon as it is remembered,and the next tablet should be taken at the usual time. If she is more than 12 hours late, she should use an additional method of contraception for the next 7 days. If tablets were missed in the first week after initiation of Cerazette and intercourse took place in the week before the tablets were missed,the possibility of a pregnancy should be considered
patient visits the pharmacy and asks to purchase some chloramphenicol eye drops
for bacterial conjunctivitis.
How would you advise the patient to store the eye drops for the course they are on?
A Store in the refrigerator until opened and then can be left at room temperature and
used until the expiry date
B Store in a secure cupboard out of the light. Once opened can be used until the
expiry date.
C Store upright in a refrigerator between 2-8oC. Protect from light and discard four
weeks after opening.
D Store upright in a refrigerator between 2-8oC. Protect from light and discard four
weeks after the expiry date.
E Store upright in a refrigerator between 2-8oC. Once opened can be kept at room
temperature, protect from light and discard four weeks after opening
Chloramphenicalinformation leaflet states that the medicine needs to be stored upright between 2-8oC in a refrigeratorand protected from light and must be used within four weeks of opening.
Responsible Pharmacist (RP) regulations mean that the owner of a retail pharmacy
business must appoint an RP to be in charge of the registered pharmacy.
You are discussing the regulations with your pre-registration trainee pharmacist to help
them with their revision.
Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to the RP
regulations?
A The pharmacy record detailing the RP information must be kept for a period of
three years
B The RP can only be the RP for one pharmacy at any given time
C The RP may be absent for a maximum of four hours in the pharmacies business
hours
D The RP only needs to display the RP notice when they are absent
E The sale of GSL medicines does not require a RP to be in charge of the pharmac
B
Pharmacy record needs to be kept for 5 years. The RP can beabsent for maximum of2 hours.The sale of GSL medicines do need an RP to be in charge. The RP needs to display a notice whilst RP
A 70-year-old man with advanced Parkinson’s disease is being started on apomorphine
therapy. He has recently been experiencing nausea and vomiting as a result of the
apomorphine.
Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate for nausea and
vomiting?
A Domperidone
B Haloperidol
C Metoclopramide
D Ondansetron
E Prochlorperazine
Domperidone
Metoclopramide, haloperidol and prochlorperazine should not be used in Parkinson’s disease as they cross the blood brain barrier and cause dopamine blockade, resulting in worsening of symptoms. Ondansetron is contraindicated with apomorphine due to additive QTc prolongation and risk of serious arrhythmia. The manufacturers of apomorphine recommend the use of domperidone to control nausea and vomiting, however there is still a risk of QT prolongation with this combination, hence an assessment of cardiac riskfactors and ECG monitoring is recommended to ensure that the benefits outweigh the risks.
You are reviewing a patient as part of a ward round. You check their blood results
which were taken the day before.
The results are:
Haemoglobin 100g/L (115–165g/L)
Platelets 230 x 109/L (150–450 x 109/L)
Red blood count 4.3 x 1012/L (3.8–5.8 x 1012/L)
Mean corpuscular volume 110fL (80–100fL)
Hematocrit0.4L/L (0.37–0.47L/L)
Folate <2ng/mL (2–20ng/mL)
B12 500pg/mL (180–1000pg/mL)
Which of the following is most appropriate to recommend for this patient?
A Cyanocobalamin 50 micrograms daily
B Ferrous sulphate 200 mg daily for 3 months
C Folic acid 400 micrograms daily for 3 months
D Folic acid 5 mg daily for 4 months
E Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg once every three months
The blood results are suggestive of a folate deficiency. For folate deficiencies, NICE recommends supplementation with folic acid 5 mg daily for 4 months. Folic acid 400 micrograms is usually recommended to women of child-bearing age, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy, for the prevention of neural tube defects.
A 65-year-old man has been admitted into hospital after a referral from his GP. He is
suffering from symptoms that have been getting gradually worse. These include but are
not limited to: swollen ankles, which are worse in the evening; breathlessness, which is
worse after walking for 30 minutes; fatigue, which has not improved with multivitamins.
What would be the most appropriate diagnostic test to request for this patient?
A B12 levels
B CT pulmonary angiogram
C HbA1c
D Pro B-type natriuretic peptide
E Thyroid function test
This patients’symptoms indicate they have developed heart failure. A pro B-type natriuretic peptidewill measure cardiac function and will be raised in heart failure.HbA1cis adiagnostic for diabetes. Thyroid function test will indicatehyper or hypothyroidism. A CT pulmonary angiogramwill help diagnosea pulmonary embolism(PE). Patient does not have any chest pain which may indicate a PE. B12levels will help identify deficiencies –patient does not have any symptoms which may indicate B12deficiency
A patient with diabetes and hypertension presents at her GP for a review. She takes
several medicines to manage her conditions. Her most recent blood test revealed that
her potassium level was 5.6 mmol/L (range 3.5 – 5.1 mmol/L).
Which of the following medicines is most likely to increase potassium levels?
A Amlodipine
B Bendroflumethiazide
C Gliclazide
D Losartan
E Metformin
Losartan
Angiotensin ii receptors such as Losartan cause hyperkalaemia. This is noted as a common adverse effect.
You are the responsible pharmacist at a community pharmacy. A 24-year-old patient
visits your pharmacy and complains that they have been given the wrong medication.
Upon further investigation you find the prescription and notice that the incorrect
medicine was supplied the previous day when another pharmacist was on duty as the
responsible pharmacist.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial actions to take?
A Apologise for the error made and make a correct supply of the medicine
B Ask the patient to come back when the regular pharmacist is in as they need to
know about the error
C Explain that the error is not very serious, so the patient does not complain further
D Find out who made the error and escalate the issue to senior colleagues
E Never apologise, as this is an admission of guilt
It would be most appropriate to apologise to the patient and rectify the error by supplying the correct medicine. It is important to investigate the error and share information with colleagues, escalating where appropriate, however these are not steps you should immediately take and could delay the patient getting the right treatment. Also,it is clear that an error has been made and it would be professional to acknowledge this and apologise (even if the error was not made by you)