M1 Flashcards
Mrs Patel, a 37-year-old patient, visits her GP and is
diagnosed with acute otitis media. She has a penicillin
allergy and develops a rash when she takes penicillin, she
is 25 weeks pregnant. What is the most appropriate
treatment for her acute otitis media?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Co-amoxiclav
C. Clarithromycin
D. Erythromycin
E. Vancomycin
Penicillin Allergy Consideration:
Since Mrs. Patel has a rash with penicillin, a macrolide (Erythromycin or Clarithromycin) is preferred.
Pregnancy Consideration (25 weeks):
Erythromycin is the preferred macrolide in pregnancy as it has the most safety data.
Clarithromycin is generally avoided unless no other options are available, as some studies suggest a potential risk in pregnancy.
Mr Ivory has been prescribed doxycycline for the
treatment of cellulitis.
Which of the following is not a side effect of doxycycline?
A. Photosensitivity reaction
B. Nausea
C. Increased appetite
D. Benign intracranial hypertension
E. Oral disorders
Increased appetite
Mr Manchester brings in a dental prescription to your
community pharmacy.
Which of the following medications can not be
prescribed by a dental practitioner on a FP10D
prescription?
A. Aciclovir cream
B. Amoxicillin capsules
C. Cefalexin tablets
D. Temazepam tablets
E. Vancomycin capsules
A. Aciclovir cream ✅ Yes Used for oral herpes simplex (cold sores).
B. Amoxicillin capsules ✅ Yes Used for dental infections.
C. Cefalexin tablets ✅ Yes Alternative antibiotic for penicillin-allergic patients.
D. Temazepam tablets ✅ Yes Can be prescribed for dental anxiety (but needs CD prescription requirements).
E. Vancomycin capsules ❌ No Not in the Dental Practitioners’ Formulary.
Mr Allen, a 25-year-old patient, presents at the accident
and emergency department with a dog bite. He is
assessed and the decision has been made by the medical
team to prescribe him antibiotics, he has no medication
allergies. Which of the following would be the first-line
treatment for a dog bite?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Co-amoxiclav
C. Clarithromycin
D. Erythromycin
E. Doxycycline
Co-Amoxiclav
Mrs London brings in a prescription for methadone
hydrochloride. In the 2001 regulations, drugs are divided
into five schedules.
Which schedule does methadone belong to?
A. Schedule 1
B. Schedule 2
C. Schedule 3
D. Schedule 4
E. Schedule 5
Schedule 2
Mrs Williams is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus
and commenced on insulin.
She is counselled on the side effects of insulin, which of
the following is not a side effect of insulin?
A. Oedema
B. Lipodystrophy
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Skin reactions
E. Weight loss
Insulin does NOT cause weight loss—in fact, it is associated with weight gain because it promotes glucose uptake and storage in fat and muscle cells.
Mr Smith has been prescribed long-term steroids.
Which of the following is not a side effect of
corticosteroid use?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Osteoporosis
C. Weight gain
D. Addison’s disease
E. Muscle wastage
Addison disease
A 56-year-old patient, Andrew Smith, presents to the
cardiorespiratory ward with chest pain that occurs on
exertion.
He is diagnosed with stable angina,
Which of the following would be the most suitable
treatment option to prevent further episodes of chest
pain?
A. Clopidogrel
B. Apixaban
C. Ranolazine
D. Bisoprolol
E. Glyceryl trinitrate
Bisoprolol
A 47-year-old patient, Mark Wright, is admitted into
hospital following a paracetamol overdose.
Mr Wright presents with severe nausea and vomiting.
What is the most appropriate treatment for paracetamol
overdose?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Procyclidine hydrochloride
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Naloxone hydrochloride
E.Methylthioninium chloride
Acetylcysteine
Mr Andews, a 67-year-old patient is admitted for the
acute admissions ward due to a fall, the medical team
believe it was due to one of his newly started
medications.
Which of the following medications is likely to have
caused his fall?
A. Adcal D3
B. Canagliflozin
C. Bisoprolol
D. Metformin
E. Prednisolone
Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker, and its main side effects include:
Bradycardia (slow heart rate) → can cause dizziness and fainting.
Hypotension (low blood pressure) → increases fall risk, especially in older adults.
Postural (orthostatic) hypotension → blood pressure drops when standing, leading to dizziness and falls.
Fatigue and weakness → can contribute to instability.
Given that Mr. Andrews is 67 years old, his body may not compensate as well for blood pressure drops, making him more prone to falls when taking a beta-blocker.
Mrs Washingston, a 74-year old patient, calls your
community pharmacy.
She has noticed that she is extremely shaky and sweaty
since starting a new medication.
Which of her medication is likely to be responsible for her
symptoms?
A. Metformin
B. Glibenclamide
C. Bendroflumethiazide
D. Losartan
E. Adcal D3
Glibenclamide is a sulfonylurea, a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin release from the pancreas. A major side effect of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar), which can cause:
Shakiness
Sweating
Dizziness
Palpitations
Confusion
Since Mrs. Washington is 74 years old, she is at higher risk of hypoglycaemia because:
Elderly patients have reduced kidney function, slowing the clearance of glibenclamide.
They may eat irregularly, increasing the risk of hypoglycaemia.
Mr Adams walks into your pharmacy and complains his
new inhaler has led to him experiencing soreness in his
mouth and he has noticed white patches on his tongue.
Which of the following inhalers is likely to be responsible
for his symptoms?
A. Fostair ®
B. Ventolin Evohaler ®
C. Serevent Evohaler ®
D. Spiriva ®
E. Atrovent ®
Fostair
A patient brings in a prescription for Temazepam 10mg
tablets. How long is the prescription valid for from the
date stated on the prescription?
A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 30 days
D. 6 months
E. 12 months
28 days
Mrs Joshua has been started on digoxin for the
maintenance of atrial fibrillation.
Which of the following is not a side effect of digoxin?
A. Vision disorders
B. Arrhythmias
C. Diarrhoea
D. Increased appetite
E. Skin reactions
Increased appetite
Mrs Doris brings in a prescription for pethidine
hydrochloride. In the 2001 regulations, drugs are divided
into five schedules.
Which schedule does pethidine belong to?
2
Mr Patel has been started on a new medication for type 2
diabetes mellitus that mainly exerts its effect by
decreasing gluconeogenesis and by increasing peripheral
utilisation of glucose.
Which of the following medications is likely to have been
A. Acarbose
B. Metformin
C. Gliclazide
D. Glibenclamide
E. Canagliflozin
Metformin
patient brings in a prescription for Zopiclone 7.5mg
tablets.
How long is the prescription valid for from the date
stated on the prescription?
A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 30 days
D. 6 months
E. 12 months
28 days
Mrs Smith has been started on a new medication that
has to be prescribed by brand.
Which of the following medications should preferably
be prescribed by brand?
A. Metformin MR
B. Gliclazide
C. Nifedipine MR
D. Ramipiril
E. Losartan
Nifedipine MR
Mrs Hand attends a Medicines Use Review (MUR) in your
community pharmacy.
She has noticed that her blood glucose is higher since
starting a new medication.
Which of her medication is likely to be responsible for her
hyperglycaemia?
QUESTION 19
A. Metformin
B. Gliclazide
C. Bendroflumethiazide
D. Losartan
E. Adcal D3
Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and fluid retention. It can cause hyperglycaemia by:
Reducing insulin sensitivity (making the body’s cells less responsive to insulin).
Increasing glucose production in the liver.
Depleting potassium levels, which is important for insulin secretion.
Thiazide diuretics, especially at higher doses, can worsen blood sugar control in diabetic patients.
Mr Andrews has been started on a new antifungal
medication in hospital.
The doctor initially prescribed a test dose for Mr Andews
due to the risk of anaphylaxis.
Which of the following antifungals was likely prescribed
for Mr Andrews?
A. Voriconazole
B. Isavuconazole
C. Clotrimazole
D. Amphotericin B
E. Caspofungin
Amphotericin B is known for its high risk of hypersensitivity reactions, including anaphylaxis, fever, chills, and hypotension, especially when given intravenously. Because of this, a test dose is often given before administering the full dose to check for severe reactions.
It is a broad-spectrum antifungal used for serious systemic fungal infections like cryptococcal meningitis and invasive aspergillosis.
Common side effects include infusion-related reactions, nephrotoxicity, electrolyte imbalances (hypokalaemia & hypomagnesaemia), and anaemi
Miss Obama has been started on an ultra-rapid-acting
insulin.
How long before a meal should an ultra-rapid-acting
insulin be given?
A. At the time of, or immediately after, eating
B. 15 minutes before
C. 30 minutes before
D. 40 minutes before
E. 60 minutes before
At the time of, or immediately after eating
Mr Jenkinson has visited his diabetes specialist nurse and
has been started on a rapid-acting insulin.
Which of the following insulin preparations is rapid-
acting?
A. Insulatard®
B. Lyumjev®
C. Toujeo®
D. Tresiba®
E. Actrapid®
Lyumjev
Miss Washington has been started on a new insulin and
has noticed it is cloudy in appearance.
Which of the following insulin preparations is cloudy in
appearance?
QUESTION 23
A. Insulatard®
B. Lantus®
C. Novorapid®
D. Fiasp®
E. Humalog®
Insulatard
Mr Khan has been started on doxycycline for the
treatment of cellulitis.
Which of the following foods can likely reduce the
absorption of doxycycline?
A. Apple
B. Pomelo
C. Milk
D. Beef
E.Grapefruit
Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic, and milk (and other dairy products) can reduce the absorption of doxycycline. This happens because calcium in milk binds to doxycycline, forming an insoluble complex that makes the drug less available for absorption into the bloodstream.