Bronze Flashcards
Which of the following is an example of a schedule 2 controlled drug?
A)Tramadol
B)Zolpidem
C)Zopiclone
D)Diazepam
E)Methadone
E
Which of the following is an example of a cardiac glycoside?
Ranolazine
Warfarin
Rivaroxaban
Spironolactone
Digoxin
Digoxin
Which of the following is an example of a macrolide?
Gentamicin
Streptomycin
Vancomycin
Neomycin
Azithromycin
Azithromycin
Which of the following is an example of a long-acting insulin?
Humulin I
Fiasp
Novorapid
Humulin M3
Tresiba
Tresiba
Which of the following is not a side effect of doxycycline?
Photosensitivity
Skin reaction
Tooth discolouration
Constipation
Headache
Constipation
Which of the following antibiotics may aggravate myasthenia gravis?
Amoxicillin
Flucloxacillin
Gentamicin
Fidaxomicin
Piperacillin/Tazobactam
Gentamicin
Which of the following is an example of a loop diuretic?
Indapamide
Bendroflumethiazide
Furosemide
Spironolactone
Eplerenone
Furosemide
Which of the following is an example of an ACE inhibitor?
Digoxin
Losartan
Bendroflumethiazide
Lisinopril
Bisoprolol
Lisinopril
Which of the following is an example of an aldosterone receptor antagonist?
Furosemide
Indapamide
Spironolactone
Digoxin
Warfarin
Spironolactone
Which of the following is an example of thiazide diuretic?
Bisoprolol
Ranolazine
Spironolactone
Bendroflumethiazide
Ramipril
Bendro
Which antibiotic class does neomycin belong to?
Penicillins
Aminoglycosides
Glycopeptides
Lincosamides
Macrolides
Aminoglycoside
Which antibiotic class does amikacin belong to?
Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Penicillins
Glycopeptides
Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycoside
Which of the following insulin brands is intermediate-acting?
Novorapid
Humulin I
Toujeo
Insuman Rapid
Actrapid
Humulin I
Miss Sweet, 45, has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her HbA1c level has increased since her last diabetes review despite an improvement in diet and exercise. Her general practitioner would like to commence her on a new antidiabetic medication. She is currently on Metformin monotherapy. PMH: Type 2 diabetes mellitus, LVHF. Which of the following agents is contraindicated for Miss Smith?
Acarbose
Gliclazide
Pioglitazone
Saxagliptin
Canagliflozin
Pioglitazone
Master Ova Dosin (7) was recently admitted to the hospital for an Iron overdose which resulted from being left alone at home unattended. He has since then recovered due the quick instincts of the neighbour and a speedy hospital admission. Which of the following antidotes was Master Dosin most likely to have been given?
Phytomenadione
Protamine
Desferrioxamine
Dicobalt
Activated Charcoal
Desferrioxamine
You are the pre-registration pharmacist delivering a presentation to your fellow colleagues on drug antidotes during lunch break. You explain that the antidote for opioids, has a high affinity for μ-opioid receptors, where it acts as an inverse agonist, causing the rapid removal of any other drugs bound to these receptors. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
Nefopam
Naloxone
Nabumetone
Penicillamine
Protamine
Naloxone
Wilson’s disease is a rare inherited disorder which causes the accumulation of copper in vital organs such as the brain and liver. In healthy functioning individuals, copper is excreted through bile; however, in people with Wilson’s disease this mechanism is impaired leading to accumulation of copper, possibly to a life-threatening level. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?
Protamine
Flumazenil
Idarucizumab
Penicillamine
Activated Charcoal
Penicillamine
Mrs T (52) had recently undergone surgery for a total knee replacement surgery. Following the surgery, the consultant initiated Mrs Kni on Dabigatran 220 mg once daily for 10 days as a prophylactic measure for venous thromboembolism. On today’s ward rounds Mrs T tells you that she has been reading up on Dabigatran and saw on Google that the antidote for Dabigatran is a drug called Dicobalt. How should you respond to her statement?
Confirm this is correct
Confirm this is incorrect and the antidote is Phytomenadione
Confirm this is incorrect and the antidote is Protamine
Confirm this is incorrect and the antidote is Idarucizumab
Confirm this is incorrect and the antidote is Naloxone
D
Of the following options, correctly identify the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.
Flumazenil
Methylene Blue
Fomepizole
Folinic acid
Naloxone
Flumazenil
Mrs Williams, a regular customer at your local pharmacy comes in today looking particularly worried. She tells you that her daughter lizzy (7) has recently developed a sore tongue. Upon examination you notice that tongue is red and bumpy and has a “strawberry” like appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Measles
Scarlet fever
Fifth’s disease
Roseola
Red man syndrome
Scarlet
Which of the following conditions is caused by a bacterial infection?
Scarlet fever
Pityriasis versicolor
Erythema infectiosum
Roseola infantum
Covid pneumonitis
Scarlet
Skin condition X is a chronic condition characterised by a red butterfly pattern which appears predominantly over the nose, cheeks and chin. The patient may describe a burning or stinging feeling when using water or skincare products. What is the likely diagnosis?
Roseola
Rubella
Rosacea
Rubeola
Psoriasis
Rosaeca
Which of the following options is NOT a typical trigger for rosacea?
Cheese
Aerobic exercise
Spicy foods
Cold drinks
Alcohol
Cold drinks
Mrs jones (57) a regular customer at your pharmacy comes in today for some advice. You note that she appears rather embarrassed and thus offer her a seat in the consultation room. After which, Mrs jones reveals that yesterday night when she went to the bathroom she passed very dark (almost black) stools. PMR: Ramipril 10mg OD (initiated 07/12/2018), Bisoprolol 10mg OD (initiated 21/08/2018), Ferrous Sulfate 200mg OD (initiated 7/7/21). What should you advise Mrs jones to do?
Advice Mrs jones that this is a normal side effect of her ferrous sulphate
Advice Mrs jones that this is a normal side effect of her bisoprolol
Advice Mrs jones to see her GP immediately
Refer Mrs jones to A&E
Sell mrs jones a 2 week supply of OTC Senna
Normal SE of iron
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause a yellow brown urine discolouration?
Triamterene
Entacapone
Nitrofurantoin
Levodopa
Ramipril
Nitro
Nefopam is most likely to cause a _______ urine discolouration?
Yellow-brown
Blue
Orange-red
Pink
Black
Pink
Mr Evans (42) rushes into the pharmacy looking extremely worried. He tells you that he was having particularly bad heartburn after drinking a little too much alcohol at his son’s graduation party. His friend recommended him drug X which he took a few doses of, only to wake up this morning with a black tongue; which drug has Mr Evans most likely to have taken?
Pepto-bismol
Lansoprazole
Omeprazole
Gaviscon advance
Ranitidine
Pepto
QUESTION 8
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause an orange-red urine discolouration?
Doxorubicin
Rifampicin
Triamterene
Senna
Nefopam
Rifampicin
Mrs Jenny Smith is a new counter assistant in training at the pharmacy. She tells you today that last night she was reading up on the limitations on selling Pseudoephedrine and Ephedrine OTC but couldn’t quite remember what these exact strengths were. What is the maximum amount of Pseuodephedrine or Ephedrine that can be sold OTC with a prescription?
720mg Ephedrine OR 180mg Pseudoephedrine
720mg Pseudoephedrine OR 180mg Ephedrine
720mg Ephedrine OR 120mg Pseudoephedrine
120mg Ephedrine OR 720mg Pseudoephedrine
120mg Ephedrine OR 180mg Pseudoephedrine
720mg Pseudoephedrine OR 180mg Ephedrine
Daktarin (Miconazole) oral gel is indicated for the treatment of candidiasis of the oropharynx. What is the minimum age limit the Daktarin oral gel can be used in?
2 years and over
4 months and over
1 year and over
10 months and over
6 years and over
4 months +
Mrs Rida Kan (43), was prescribed a 1 week antibiotic course to treat a mild foot infection which resulted as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Since completing the course of antibiotics, Mrs Rida has started to feel unwell, and is looking paler than usual. Upon further questioning she reveals that her stools are also significantly paler than usual but she thought nothing of it. Based on this information, which of the following antibiotics was Mrs Rida most likely to have been prescribed?
Benzylpenicillin
Flucloxacillin
Pivmecillinam
Amoxicillin
Meropenem
Flucoxacillin
Her symptoms of looking paler than usual and having significantly paler stools suggest a possible liver-related issue, such as cholestatic jaundice, which is a known adverse effect of flucloxacillin.
Mrs Anx Ziyatee (32) pregnant has been prescribed Amoxicillin 500 mg 3 times a day for 7 days for a lower urinary tract infection. As you’re preparing to hand out the bagged prescription, Mrs Ziyatee tells you that she has been particularly worried whether it would be safe for her to take this medicine as she has been reading up on google that many medicines can cause harm to the baby. How would you respond?
Confirm that it is safe for her to take the Amoxicillin
Confirm that she is correct and you will contact her GP to amend to the prescription.
Confirm that that she is correct and she should contact her GP to ask for a new prescription.
Confirm that it is unsafe for her to take the medicine.
Refer her to the accident and emergency department
Confirm that it is safe for her to take the amoxicillin
Of the following options, which drug is an example of an antibiotic from the tetracycline drug class?
Clindamycin
Chloramphenicol
Levofloxacin
Doxycycline
Vancomycin
Doxy
Of the following options, which drug is an example of an antibiotic from the macrolide drug class?
Piperacillin/Tazobactam
Gentamicin
Lymecycline
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Erythromycin
Which of the following drugs is an example of an antibiotic from the quinolone drug class?
Ofloxacin
Piperacillin/Tazobactam
Bleomycin
Teicoplanin
Meropenem
Ofloxacin
Mr Fungoo Infexio (42) calls into the pharmacy for some advice. He tells you that recently, he has developed large white patches on his back - he tells you that the patches are not itchy or painful but he feels embarrassed to go swimming. You believe it is a common fungal infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Rosacea
Pityriasis versicolor
Psoriasis
Eczema
Herpes zoster
Pityriasis versicolor
Mrs Rozay Sha (42) a regular customer at your pharmacy, tells you that she has recently been prescribed a new cream/gel after being diagnosed with rosacea (persistent erythema type). She had a few questions to ask you about the cream/gel but is unable to recall the name. Which of the following treatment options has Mrs Sha most likely to have been prescribed?
Brimonidine gel
Ivermectin cream
Metronidazole gel
Azelaic acid cream
Miconazole gel
Brimonidine gel
Brimonidine gel (e.g., Mirvaso) is a first-line treatment for persistent erythema (redness) in rosacea.
It is an α2-adrenergic agonist that works by vasoconstriction, reducing facial redness.
Mrs Skabeez pops into the pharmacy today for some advice. You recall selling her some Permethrin cream yesterday for the treatment of scabies. She comes back today to purchase some more tubes as her family needs to be treated too: Partner (42), Son (7), Daughter (1 month). What should you do?
Sell Mrs Skabeez the Permethrin cream for her remaining family members.
Refuse to sell Mrs Skabeez the creams.
Refer Mrs Skabeez to the GP
Refer Mrs Skabeez to A&E
Refer Mrs Skabeez to the opticians
C
One month old cannot have. Have to be 2 months or older
Impetigo is a contagious, superficial bacterial infection of the skin. The two main clinical forms are non-bullous and bullous impetigo. In patients with localised non-bullous impetigo who are not systemically unwell or at high risk of complications or have any known hypersensitivities what is the typical 1st line treatment?
Hydrogen peroxide 1%
Hydrogen peroxide 10%
Topical clarithromycin
Oral clarithromycin
Oral vancomycin
Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream is recommended first-line for localized non-bullous impetigo because:
It is effective for mild cases.
It reduces antibiotic use (helping combat antimicrobial resistance).
It is available over the counter (OTC) in some pharmacies.
Which of the following adverse effects is Lisinopril most likely to cause?
Gingival hyperplasia
Hypernatremia
Alopecia
Bradycardia
Septic arthritis
Alopecia?
Which of the following electrolyte disturbances is Enalapril most likely to cause?
Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hypernatremia
Hyperphosphatemia
Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and one of its well-known adverse effects is hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels in the blood). ACE inhibitors block the action of angiotensin II, which normally stimulates the release of aldosterone.
Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting its excretion in the kidneys. By reducing aldosterone, ACE inhibitors can increase potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia.
Which of the following patient parameters need to be checked before starting ACE inhibitor treatment?
Liver function and electrolytes
Renal function and chest x-ray
Liver function and chest x-ray
Renal function and electrolyes
Thyroid function
Renal function and electrolytes
Mrs Hart Felure (67) has been diagnosed with heart failure. The consultant would like initiate Mrs Felure on a beta blocker but is unsure of which to select due to Mrs Felure’s pre-existing CKD. Which of the following medication would be the most appropriate to initiate Mrs Felure on?
Carvedilol
Nadolol
Acebutolol
Bisoprolol
Diclofenac
Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker that is commonly used in the management of heart failure and is generally considered to be safer in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to its minimal renal clearance. This makes it a good choice for someone like Mrs. Felure, who has heart failure and pre-existing CKD.
QUESTION 14
Which of the following options is NOT a contraindication of beta blockers?
Asthma
Tachycardia
Reversible COPD
Prinzmetal’s angina
Cardiogenic shock
Tachycardia
Which of the following side effects is most commonly associated with beta blockers?
Cold extremities
Tachycardia
Constipation
Tachypnea
Neutropenic sepsis
Cold extremities (hands and feet) are a common side effect of beta blockers due to reduced peripheral blood flow. Beta blockers cause vasoconstriction by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which can lead to reduced circulation in the extremities.
What is the active ingredient inside Pirinase nasal spray?
Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Betamethasone
Fludrocorticoid
Salbutamol
Fluticasone
What is the active ingredient inside Otrivine nasal spray?
Beclomethasone
Betamethasone
Budesonide
Xylometazoline
Neomycin
Xylometazoline - works by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, which reduces swelling and helps clear congestion
What is the active ingredient inside Beconase nasal spray?
Beclomethasone
Betamethasone
Budesonide
Azelastine
Salmeterol
Beclometasone
What is the active ingredient inside Piriton allergy tablets?
Cetirizine
Loratadine
Chlorphenamine
Azelastine
Fluticasone
Chloramphenamine
Which of the following options is more commonly seen in asthma and not COPD?
Smoking history
Irreversible progressive disease
Diurnal variation
Patients are typically older
Night time symptoms are uncommon
Diurnal variation refers to the fluctuation of asthma symptoms, typically being worse in the early morning or late at night. This is a hallmark feature of asthma, due to the circadian rhythm influencing airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
All of the following drugs are phototoxic agents EXCEPT?
Penicillins
Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Quinine
Retinoids
Penicillins
All of the following drugs are nephrotoxic agents EXCEPT?
Vancomycin
Tamsulosin
Ibruprofen
Ramipril
Gentamicin
Tamsulosin
All of the following drugs have the potential to prolong QT interval EXCEPT?
Haloperidol
Venlafaxine
Sertraline
Citalopram
Sotalol
Sertraline
Mrs Tieroid (32) has recently been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The diagnosis was confirmed through an assessment of symptoms and blood results. Which of the following symptoms would you not have expected Mrs Tieroid to have experienced?
Fatigue
Constipation
Weight gain
Heat intolerance
Impaired concentration
Heat intolerance
Mrs Tieroid (32) has recently been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The diagnosis was confirmed through an assessment of symptoms and blood results. Which of the following set of blood results would have provided confirmation of a diagnosis of hypothyroidism?
Low TSH and High T4
Low TSH and Low T4
High TSH and High T4
High TSH and Low T4
Neither of the above
HIGH TSH and LOW T4
Mrs Tieroid (32) has recently been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The diagnosis was confirmed through an assessment of symptoms and blood results. Following the diagnosis the GP has decided to initiate Mrs Tieroid on Levothyroxine tablets. Which of the following dosing regimens would Mrs Tieroid most likely have been initiated on (weight 50kg)?
25mcg OD
50mcg OD
75mcg OD
100mcg OD
125mcg OD
75mcg OD
y which of the following routes of administration should Vincristine be administered?
Orally
Intravenous
Intramuscular
Intrathecal
Intranasally
IV
Osteoporosis has been operationally defined on the basis of bone mineral density (BMD) assessment. According to the WHO criteria, osteoporosis is defined as a BMD that lies ___ standard deviations or more below the average value for young healthy women
3.5
3.0
2.5
2.0
4.0
Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the BMD is 2.5 SD or more below the mean for young healthy women, corresponding to a T-score of -2.5 or lower.
hich of the following options is not a monitoring requirement of Amiodarone?
Chest X-ray
Thyroid function tests
Serum potassium
Renal function tests
Liver function tests
rENAL FUCNTION TEST
Chest X-ray: To monitor for pulmonary toxicity, which is a known side effect.
Thyroid function tests: Amiodarone can affect thyroid function, so it’s important to monitor thyroid hormone levels.
Serum potassium: Amiodarone can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly affecting potassium, so it’s important to monitor levels.
Liver function tests: Amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function should be monitored during therapy.
_______ is a process that transforms non-carbohydrate substrates (such as lactate, amino acids, and glycerol) into glucose
Glycogenolysis
Glycogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Photosynthesis
gLUCOGENOGENESIS
You are the pre-registration pharmacist delivering a refresher presentation to your colleagues on the different types of insulins. One of your colleagues asks you if you could provide some examples of rapid acting insulins. Which of the following options correctly identifies a rapid acting insulin?
Insulin Lispro
Insulin Detemir
Insulin Glargine
Insulin Degludec
Insulin Isophan
Lispro
Which of the following options is not a typical symptom of uncontrolled diabetes?
Visual disturbances
Weight loss
Lethargy
Oliguria
Polydipsia
Oliguria
Which of the following drugs is an example of an TCA antidepressant?
Fluvoxamine
Reboxetine
Dosulepin
Mirtazapine
Vortioxetine
Dosulepin
Which of the following drugs is an example of an MAOI antidepressant?
Isocarboxazid
Reboxetine
Vortioxetine
Mirtazapine
Fluvoxamine
Isocarboxazid
QUESTION 19
Which of the following class of anti-diabetic drugs work by stimulating glucose dependent insulin secretion from the pancreas?
Biguanides
Thiazolidinediones
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Meglitinides
SGLT2 inhibitors
Meglitinides are a class of anti-diabetic drugs that stimulate glucose-dependent insulin secretion from the pancreas. They work by binding to and closing the ATP-sensitive potassium channels in pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin release, but this effect is dependent on the presence of glucose.
Which of the following drugs is an example of an SSNRI antidepressant?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Duloxetine
Vortioxetine
Tranylcypromine
Duloxetine
Which of the following class of anti-diabetic drugs work by delaying the digestion and absorption of starch & sucrose by inhibiting particular enzymes.
Biguanides
Thiazolidinediones
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
DPP4 inhibitors
Meglitinides
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (e.g., acarbose and miglitol) work by delaying the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose in the small intestine. They inhibit alpha-glucosidase enzymes, which are responsible for breaking down complex carbohydrates into glucose. This results in a slower rise in blood glucose levels after meals.
