SIDE EFFECTS - KIDNEY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which drug inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by blocking COX-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes?
    a) Metformin
    b) Insulin
    c) NSAIDs
    d) Opioids
A

c) NSAIDs

Rationale: NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by blocking the cyclooxygenase (COX)-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes, which results in the suppression of inflammation and pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the kidneys, COX-1 primarily regulates:
a) Salt and water excretion
b) Renal hemodynamics and GFR
c) Albuminuria
d) Proximal tubular cell injury

A

b) Renal hemodynamics and GFR

Rationale: In the kidneys, COX-1 regulates the renal hemodynamics and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drug, when used long-term, can lead to albuminuria in CKD patients?
a) Metformin
b) Opioids
c) PPIs
d) Sulfonylureas

A

b) Opioids

Rationale: Long-term opioid use in patients with CKD may lead to albuminuria. Examples of opioids include natural compounds like morphine and codeine, semisynthetic compounds like diamorphine (heroin) and oxycodone, and synthetic compounds like fentanyl and methadone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. PPIs are commonly associated with which renal condition?
    a) Albuminuria
    b) Acute interstitial nephritis
    c) Tubular necrosis
    d) Hypoglycemia
A

b) Acute interstitial nephritis

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are considered one of the most common causes of drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. For a patient with an eGFR of 35 mL/min/1.73 m2, what is the recommendation regarding metformin use?
    a) Initiate therapy without dose adjustment
    b) Initiate therapy with dose adjustment
    c) Do not initiate therapy, but continue existing therapy with dose reduction
    d) Contraindicated
A

c) Do not initiate therapy, but continue existing therapy with dose reduction

Rationale: For patients with an eGFR of 30-45 mL/minute/1.73 m2, the initiation of therapies is not recommended while the continuation of existing therapy may occur at a reduced dose with close monitoring of kidney function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which sulfonylurea drug does not require dose reduction but needs caution against hypoglycemia risk?
    a) Glibenclamide
    b) Glimepiride
    c) Gliclazide
    d) Glipizide
A

d) Glipizide

Rationale: An adjusted gliclazide dose is permitted in severe CD, but the dose of glipizide does not need to be reduced to be safe, although there is still the need for caution against hypoglycemia risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which drug is known to cause nephrotoxicity, specifically tubular necrosis at the apical membrane?
    a) Vancomycin
    b) Ciprofloxacin
    c) Gentamycin
    d) Metformin
A

c) Gentamycin

Rationale: One of the most severe side effects of aminoglycosides is nephrotoxicity. Gentamycin, in particular, has the highest rate of causing tubular necrosis at the apical membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which drug can cause allergic interstitial nephritis, presenting with symptoms like fever, skin rashes, and acute arthralgia?
    a) NSAIDs
    b) Opioids
    c) Fluoroquinolones
    d) Insulin
A

c) Fluoroquinolones

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, contributes to nephrotoxicity and can cause allergic interstitial nephritis, a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. In a patient with an eGFR of 8 mL/min, how should the insulin dose be adjusted?
    a) No adjustment needed
    b) Reduce by 25%
    c) Reduce by 50%
    d) Double the dose
A

c) Reduce by 50%

Rationale: The dose of insulin should be reduced by 25% if eGFR is 10-50 mL/min, and when eGFR is less than 10 mL/min, the dose should be reduced by 50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which drug’s nephrotoxicity is significantly correlated with its plasma trough levels, especially at doses of >20 mg/L or >4 g/day?
    a) Metformin
    b) NSAIDs
    c) Vancomycin
    d) Opioids
A

c) Vancomycin

Rationale: Plasma trough level of vancomycin plays a significant correlation with nephrotoxicity, especially at doses of >20 mg/L or >4 g/day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which drug class is known to enhance NSAID-related renal complications?
    a) PPIs
    b) Opioids
    c) ACE inhibitors
    d) Aminoglycosides
A

c) ACE inhibitors

Rationale: ACE inhibitors, along with ARBs and B-blockers, can enhance NSAID-related renal complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a natural opioid compound?
    a) Morphine
    b) Codeine
    c) Fentanyl
    d) Diamorphine
A

c) Fentanyl

Rationale: Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid. Natural opioid compounds include morphine and codeine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. For a patient with CKD who needs treatment with PPIs, what should be closely monitored?
    a) Blood glucose levels
    b) Creatinine levels
    c) Blood pressure
    d) Heart rate
A

b) Creatinine levels

Rationale: CKD patients who need to be treated with PPIs should be under creatinine level monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), what is the recommendation regarding metformin administration?
    a) Double the dose
    b) Continue without change
    c) Temporarily hold
    d) Permanently discontinue
A

c) Temporarily hold

Rationale: In AKI, the patient should be instructed to temporarily hold on metformin administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which drug from the sulfonylurea class is contraindicated in stage ≥3 CKD (eGFR < 60 mL/min)?
    a) Gliclazide
    b) Glipizide
    c) Glibenclamide
    d) Metformin
A

c) Glibenclamide

Rationale: Drugs from the sulfonylurea class, especially glibenclamide and glimepiride, are contraindicated in stage ≥3 CKD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. How is endogenous insulin primarily degraded?
    a) By the kidneys
    b) By the liver
    c) In the gastrointestinal tract
    d) In the lungs
A

b) By the liver

Rationale: The liver degrades endogenous insulin, while exogenous insulin is eliminated by the renal system.

17
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is associated with nephrotoxicity, specifically causing injury of the proximal tubular cell?
    a) Vancomycin
    b) Metformin
    c) NSAIDs
    d) Insulin
A

a) Vancomycin

Rationale: Vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity (VIN) can take several forms, such as injury of the proximal tubular cell with or without necrotic changes.

18
Q
  1. Which aminoglycoside is known for the highest rate of tubular necrosis at the apical membrane?
    a) Vancomycin
    b) Ciprofloxacin
    c) Gentamycin
    d) Fentanyl
A

c) Gentamycin

Rationale: Gentamycin, an aminoglycoside, is known to cause tubular necrosis at the apical membrane.

19
Q
  1. Which drug can cause a type III hypersensitivity reaction leading to allergic interstitial nephritis?
    a) Metformin
    b) Insulin
    c) Ciprofloxacin
    d) Glibenclamide
A

c) Ciprofloxacin

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, can cause allergic interstitial nephritis, a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

20
Q
  1. Which drug’s plasma trough level plays a significant correlation with nephrotoxicity, especially at doses of >20 mg/L or >4 g/day?
    a) NSAIDs
    b) Opioids
    c) Vancomycin
    d) PPIs
A

c) Vancomycin

Rationale: Plasma trough level of vancomycin plays a significant correlation with nephrotoxicity, especially at doses of >20 mg/L or >4 g/day.

21
Q
  1. Which drug is known for its semisynthetic compound, diamorphine?
    a) NSAIDs
    b) Opioids
    c) PPIs
    d) Sulfonylureas
A

b) Opioids

Rationale: Diamorphine (heroin) is a semisynthetic compound of opioids.

22
Q
  1. Which drug is eliminated primarily by the renal system?
    a) Exogenous insulin
    b) Endogenous insulin
    c) Metformin
    d) NSAIDs
A

a) Exogenous insulin

Rationale: Exogenous insulin is eliminated by the renal system, while endogenous insulin is degraded by the liver.

23
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with nephrotoxicity in the form of tubular dysfunction?
    a) Metformin
    b) NSAIDs
    c) Aminoglycosides
    d) PPIs
A

c) Aminoglycosides

Rationale: Aminoglycosides are known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as renal tubular dysfunction.

24
Q
  1. Which drug, when used long-term, can lead to chronic interstitial nephritis with interstitial fibrosis?
    a) NSAIDs
    b) Opioids
    c) PPIs
    d) Insulin
A

a) NSAIDs

Rationale: Long-term use of NSAIDs can lead to chronic interstitial nephritis with interstitial fibrosis.

25
Q
  1. Which drug is NOT recommended for initiation if the eGFR is between 30-45 mL/minute/1.73 m2?
    a) Metformin
    b) Insulin
    c) Glibenclamide
    d) Vancomycin
A

a) Metformin

Rationale: For patients with an eGFR of 30-45 mL/minute/1.73 m2, the initiation of metformin is not recommended.

26
Q
  1. Which drug is known to cause a hypersensitivity reaction leading to interstitial nephritis in elderly patients with impaired renal function?
    a) NSAIDs
    b) Opioids
    c) PPIs
    d) Sulfonylureas
A

a) NSAIDs

Rationale: In elderly patients with impaired renal function, NSAIDs can cause a hypersensitivity reaction leading to interstitial nephritis.

27
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with nephrotoxicity, specifically causing injury at the apical membrane of the tubules?
    a) Gentamycin
    b) Ciprofloxacin
    c) Vancomycin
    d) Metformin
A

a) Gentamycin

Rationale: Gentamycin, an aminoglycoside, is known to cause tubular necrosis at the apical membrane.

28
Q
  1. Which drug can cause allergic interstitial nephritis that presents with eosinophilia and proteinuria?
    a) Metformin
    b) NSAIDs
    c) Ciprofloxacin
    d) Insulin
A

c) Ciprofloxacin

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, can cause allergic interstitial nephritis, which clinically presents with symptoms like eosinophilia and proteinuria.

29
Q
  1. Which drug’s dose should be reduced by 25% if eGFR is between 10-50 mL/min?
    a) Metformin
    b) Insulin
    c) Glibenclamide
    d) Vancomycin
A

b) Insulin

Rationale: The dose of insulin should be reduced by 25% if eGFR is between 10-50 mL/min.

30
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with nephrotoxicity, especially at doses of >20 mg/L or >4 g/day?
    a) NSAIDs
    b) Opioids
    c) Vancomycin
    d) PPIs
A

c) Vancomycin

Rationale: Plasma trough level of vancomycin plays a significant correlation with nephrotoxicity, especially at doses of >20 mg/L or >4 g/day.