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Pharma 1 (DUMP) > LE 2 : Derma Pharm > Flashcards

LE 2 : Derma Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a peptide antibiotic effective against gram-positive organisms?
a) Mupirocin
b) Retapamulin
c) Bacitracin
d) Polymyxin B Sulfate

A

c) Bacitracin

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2
Q

Mupirocin is derived from which acid?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Pseudomonic acid A
c) Salicylic acid
d) Glycolic acid

A

b) Pseudomonic acid A

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3
Q

Which topical antibacterial agent is used for uncomplicated superficial skin infections caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus, but not MRSA?
a) Neomycin
b) Gentamicin
c) Retapamulin
d) Mupirocin

A

c) Retapamulin

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4
Q

Polymyxin B Sulfate is effective against which type of organisms?
a) Gram-positive organisms
b) Gram-negative organisms
c) Anaerobic cocci
d) Neisseriae

A

b) Gram-negative organisms

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5
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with potential nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and ototoxicity?
a) Bacitracin
b) Retapamulin
c) Neomycin
d) Mupirocin

A

c) Neomycin

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6
Q

Gramicidin is available only for which type of use due to systemic toxicity concerns?
a) Oral
b) Intravenous
c) Topical
d) Intramuscular

A

c) Topical

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7
Q

Which antibiotic is used intranasally to eliminate nasal carriage of S. aureus but may cause irritation due to its vehicle?
a) Gentamicin
b) Mupirocin
c) Bacitracin
d) Retapamulin

A

b) Mupirocin

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sensitive organism to Bacitracin?
a) Most anaerobic cocci
b) Neisseriae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Tetanus bacilli

A

c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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9
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective against MRSA?
a) Mupirocin
b) Retapamulin
c) Neomycin
d) Gramicidin

A

a) Mupirocin

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10
Q

Which of the following is a peptide antibiotic effective against gram-negative organisms like Pseudomonas aeruginosa and E. coli?
a) Bacitracin
b) Polymyxin B Sulfate
c) Mupirocin
d) Retapamulin

A

b) Polymyxin B Sulfate

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11
Q

Which local cutaneous reaction is the most common reaction to topical medications?
a) Photoirritation
b) Allergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Irritation

A

d) Irritation

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12
Q

Which reaction type is associated with phototoxicity and usually requires UVA exposure?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

b) Photoirritation

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13
Q

Which reaction type is a result of Type IV delayed hypersensitivity?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoirritation
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Irritation

A

a) Allergic contact dermatitis

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14
Q

Which reaction type occurs without prior sensitization and is the most common type of contact urticaria?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

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15
Q

Which reaction type may result in anaphylaxis?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

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16
Q

Which reaction type is triggered or exacerbated by sunlight?
a) Allergic contact dermatitis
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Photoirritation
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a non-allergic reaction type?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Allergic contact dermatitis
d) Non-immunologic contact urticaria

A

c) Allergic contact dermatitis

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18
Q

Which reaction type is associated with IgE-mediated type I immediate hypersensitivity?
a) Photoirritation
b) Photoallergic contact dermatitis
c) Immunologic contact urticaria
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

c) Immunologic contact urticaria

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19
Q

Which reaction type is limited to topical use due to systemic toxicity concerns?
a) Bacitracin
b) Gramicidin
c) Mupirocin
d) Retapamulin

A

b) Gramicidin

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20
Q

Which reaction type is directly related to a toxic effect of a substance on the skin?
a) Irritation
b) Photoirritation
c) Allergic contact dermatitis
d) Immunologic contact urticaria

A

a) Irritation

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21
Q

Which topical antibiotic targets Propionibacterium acnes and is available in a combination with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Clindamycin
d) Dapsone

A

c) Clindamycin

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22
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is primarily used for rosacea and targets the mite Demodex brevis?
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Sodium Sulfacetamide
d) Dapsone

A

b) Metronidazole

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23
Q

Which topical antibiotic’s mechanism of action in acne treatment is unknown?
a) Clindamycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Metronidazole
d) Dapsone

A

d) Dapsone

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24
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits Propionibacterium acnes by competitively inhibiting p-aminobenzoic acid utilization?
a) Erythromycin
b) Sodium Sulfacetamide
c) Clindamycin
d) Dapsone

A

b) Sodium Sulfacetamide

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25
Q

Which of the following is a potential side effect of Clindamycin?
a) Yellow discoloration of the skin
b) Bloody diarrhea
c) Direct effect on neutrophil cellular function
d) Resistance due to inhibitory effects

A

b) Bloody diarrhea

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26
Q

Erythromycin’s effect on acne is presumed to be due to its inhibitory effects on which bacteria?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Propionibacterium acnes
d) Demodex brevis

A

c) Propionibacterium acnes

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27
Q

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in patients known to have hypersensitivity to sulfonamides?
a) Clindamycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Sodium Sulfacetamide
d) Dapsone

A

c) Sodium Sulfacetamide

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28
Q

Which combination can result in a temporary yellow discoloration of the skin and hair?
a) Clindamycin followed by benzoyl peroxide
b) Erythromycin followed by tretinoin
c) Dapsone gel followed by benzoyl peroxide
d) Metronidazole followed by sodium sulfacetamide

A

c) Dapsone gel followed by benzoyl peroxide

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29
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is available in a fixed-combination preparation with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Dapsone
d) Clindamycin

A

a) Erythromycin

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30
Q

Which topical antibiotic has a direct effect on neutrophil cellular function?
a) Clindamycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Metronidazole
d) Dapsone

A

c) Metronidazole

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT an azole derivative?
a) Clotrimazole
b) Econazole
c) Ciclopirox olamine
d) Ketoconazole

A

c) Ciclopirox olamine

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32
Q

Which topical antifungal is specifically used for rosacea?
a) Terbinafine
b) Metronidazole
c) Clotrimazole
d) Butenafine

A

b) Metronidazole

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33
Q

Which antifungal preparation inhibits the uptake of precursors of macromolecular synthesis and its site of action is the fungal cell membrane?
a) Tolnaftate
b) Terbinafine
c) Ciclopirox olamine
d) Butenafine

A

c) Ciclopirox olamine

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34
Q

Which of the following is highly active against dermatophytes but less active against yeasts?
a) Clotrimazole
b) Nystatin
c) Naftifine
d) Ciclopirox olamine

A

c) Naftifine

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35
Q

Which antifungal agent is used in a nail lacquer for onychomycosis?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ciclopirox olamine
c) Ketoconazole
d) Tolnaftate

A

b) Ciclopirox olamine

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36
Q

Which antifungal agent blocks the synthesis of ergosterol?
a) Tolnaftate
b) Butenafine
c) Nystatin
d) Terbinafine

A

b) Butenafine

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37
Q

Which of the following is NOT effective against dermatophytes?
a) Tolnaftate
b) Terbinafine
c) Nystatin
d) Clotrimazole

A

c) Nystatin

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38
Q

Which antifungal is used to treat seborrheic dermatitis with twice-daily applications?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ketoconazole
c) Butenafine
d) Nystatin

A

b) Ketoconazole

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39
Q

Which antifungal agent is a benzylamine related to allylamines?
a) Clotrimazole
b) Butenafine
c) Ciclopirox olamine
d) Nystatin

A

b) Butenafine

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40
Q

Which of the following is used in a suspension form for oral thrush?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ketoconazole
c) Nystatin
d) Tolnaftate

A

c) Nystatin

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41
Q

Which antifungal agent is synthetic and effective against Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton?
a) Tolnaftate
b) Terbinafine
c) Nystatin
d) Butenafine

A

a) Tolnaftate

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42
Q

Which antifungal agent is available in combination with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Ketoconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Clotrimazole
d) Ciclopirox olamine

A

a) Ketoconazole

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43
Q

Which of the following has activity against Candida species and P. orbiculare?
a) Tolnaftate
b) Ciclopirox olamine
c) Terbinafine
d) Butenafine

A

b) Ciclopirox olamine

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44
Q

Which antifungal agent is used for fungal infections like athlete’s foot, ringworm, and jock itch?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ketoconazole
c) Nystatin
d) Ciclopirox olamine

A

a) Terbinafine

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45
Q

Which of the following is NOT an activity of azole derivatives?
a) Action against dermatophytes
b) Action against yeasts
c) Inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization
d) Action against Candida albicans

A

c) Inhibition of p-aminobenzoic acid utilization

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46
Q

Which of the following antifungals is available in a fixed-combination with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Erythromycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Dapsone
d) Clindamycin

A

a) Erythromycin

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47
Q

Which antifungal agent is used to treat dandruff?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ketoconazole
c) Ciclopirox olamine
d) Tolnaftate

A

c) Ciclopirox olamine

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48
Q

Which antifungal agent is effective against dermatophyte infections but not against Candida?
a) Tolnaftate
b) Terbinafine
c) Nystatin
d) Clotrimazole

A

a) Tolnaftate

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49
Q

Which antifungal agent is used in the treatment of dandruff?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ketoconazole
c) Ciclopirox olamine
d) Tolnaftate

A

c) Ciclopirox olamine

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50
Q

Which antifungal is known for good cerebrospinal fluid penetration?
a) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Itraconazole

A

a) Fluconazole

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51
Q

Which antifungal agent has the least effect on hepatic microsomal enzymes?
a) Itraconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Terbinafine
d) Griseofulvin

A

b) Fluconazole

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52
Q

Which antifungal is used prophylactically in AIDS patients?
a) Terbinafine
b) Itraconazole
c) Fluconazole
d) Griseofulvin

A

c) Fluconazole

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53
Q

Which antifungal agent’s absorption is increased by food and low gastric pH?
a) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Itraconazole

A

d) Itraconazole

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54
Q

Which antifungal agent is used extensively for onychomycosis?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Itraconazole
c) Fluconazole
d) Terbinafine

A

b) Itraconazole

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55
Q

Which antifungal agent is derived from a species of penicillium?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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56
Q

Which antifungal agent inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

b) Terbinafine

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57
Q

Which antifungal agent is effective against dermatophyte infections but not against Candida?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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58
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended at a dosage of 250 mg/day for onychomycosis?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

b) Terbinafine

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59
Q

Which antifungal agent binds to keratin in the skin, protecting it from new infections?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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60
Q

Which antifungal agent’s absorption is best in an acidic medium?
a) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Itraconazole

A

d) Itraconazole

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61
Q

Which antifungal agent is contraindicated with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

a) Itraconazole

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62
Q

Which antifungal agent is contraindicated in patients with porphyria?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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63
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended at a dosage of 100 mg/day for mucocutaneous candidiasis?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

d) Fluconazole

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64
Q

Which antifungal agent is known to have fewer hepatic enzyme interactions?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

d) Fluconazole

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65
Q

Which antifungal agent is effective orally against dermatophyte infections caused by epidermophyton, microsporum, and trichophyton?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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66
Q

Which antifungal agent’s mechanism of action at the cellular level is unclear but is deposited in newly forming skin?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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67
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended for onychomycosis at a dose of 200 mg/day?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

a) Itraconazole

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68
Q

Which antifungal agent is known to interact with hepatic microsomal enzymes but to a lesser extent than ketoconazole?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

a) Itraconazole

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69
Q

Which antifungal agent is contraindicated with midazolam or triazolam?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

a) Itraconazole

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70
Q

Which antifungal agent is used for the treatment of onychomycosis and interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

b) Terbinafine

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71
Q

Which antifungal agent is a keratophilic medication?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

b) Terbinafine

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72
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended for scalp infections for 4-6 weeks?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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73
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended for toenail infections for up to 18 months?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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74
Q

Which antifungal agent is contraindicated in patients with hepatic failure?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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75
Q

Which antifungal agent is known to be very insoluble and is derived from a species of penicillium?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

c) Griseofulvin

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76
Q

Which antifungal agent is recommended at a dosage of 250 mg/day for 6 weeks for fingernail infections?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

b) Terbinafine

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77
Q

Which antifungal agent is known to have no significant drug interactions to date and is effective for onychomycosis?
a) Itraconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Fluconazole

A

b) Terbinafine

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78
Q

Which of the following is a synthetic guanine analog used as a topical antiviral agent?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Acyclovir
c) Aspirin
d) Acetaminophen

A

b) Acyclovir

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79
Q

Which herpesvirus types does Acyclovir selectively inhibit?
a) HSV-3 & HSV-4
b) HSV-1 & HSV-2
c) VZV & CMV
d) EBV & HHV-6

A

b) HSV-1 & HSV-2

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80
Q

What is the brand name for topical Acyclovir?
a) Denavir
b) Valcivir
c) Zovirax
d) Famvir

A

c) Zovirax

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81
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for converting Acyclovir to its monophosphate form in virally infected cells?
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Thymidine kinase
d) Reverse transcriptase

A

c) Thymidine kinase

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82
Q

Why is Acyclovir considered specific to virally infected cells?
a) It is only absorbed by infected cells.
b) It is activated by a virally encoded enzyme.
c) It destroys the viral cell wall.
d) It binds to viral RNA.

A

b) It is activated by a virally encoded enzyme.

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83
Q

What happens when Acyclovir triphosphate is incorporated into viral DNA?
a) DNA replication continues normally.
b) DNA replication is enhanced.
c) DNA replication is terminated prematurely.
d) DNA transforms into RNA

A

c) DNA replication is terminated prematurely.

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84
Q

Which form of Acyclovir competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase?
a) Acyclovir monophosphate
b) Acyclovir diphosphate
c) Acyclovir triphosphate
d) Acyclovir base

A

c) Acyclovir triphosphate

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85
Q

Which topical antiviral agent is available as a 1% cream for treating recurrent orolabial herpes?
a) Valacyclovir
b) Famciclovir
c) Penciclovir (Denavir)
d) Acyclovir

A

c) Penciclovir (Denavir)

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86
Q

Which of the following is NOT a target of Acyclovir’s antiviral action?
a) Epidermophyton
b) HSV-1
c) HSV-2
d) VZV

A

a) Epidermophyton

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87
Q

Why does Acyclovir have a high therapeutic ratio?
a) It affects both viral and host cells equally.
b) It has a higher affinity for viral DNA polymerase than for the cellular version.
c) It is only effective against bacterial infections.
d) It requires frequent dosing.

A

b) It has a higher affinity for viral DNA polymerase than for the cellular version.

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88
Q

Which of the following immunomodulators is primarily known for its antiviral properties?
a) Tacrolimus
b) Pimecrolimus
c) Imiquimod
d) Interferon-alpha

A

c) Imiquimod

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89
Q

Imiquimod stimulates the release of which cytokine from peripheral mononuclear cells?
a) IL-10
b) TNF-beta
c) Interferon-alpha
d) IL-4

A

c) Interferon-alpha

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90
Q

Which immunomodulator is approved for use in children older than 2 years for atopic dermatitis?
a) Imiquimod
b) Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment
c) Pimecrolimus 2% cream
d) Interferon-beta

A

b) Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment

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91
Q

What is the primary mode of action of Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus?
a) Stimulation of B-lymphocytes
b) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation
c) Activation of macrophages
d) Inhibition of neutrophils

A

b) Inhibition of T-lymphocyte activation

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92
Q

Which condition is Imiquimod the drug of choice for in children?
a) Atopic dermatitis
b) Psoriasis
c) Molluscum contagiosum
d) Vitiligo

A

c) Molluscum contagiosum

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93
Q

Which of the following is NOT a use of Imiquimod?
a) External genital warts
b) Actinic keratoses
c) Deep basal cell carcinomas
d) Superficial basal cell carcinomas

A

c) Deep basal cell carcinomas

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94
Q

Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus prevent the release of inflammatory cytokines from which cells?
a) Eosinophils
b) Neutrophils
c) Mast cells
d) B-lymphocytes

A

c) Mast cells

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95
Q

Which immunosuppressant is associated with a black box warning due to animal tumorigenicity data?
a) Imiquimod
b) Tacrolimus
c) Pimecrolimus
d) Both b and c

A

d) Both b and c

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96
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Tacrolimus and Pimecrolimus?
a) Burning sensation at the application site
b) Photosensitivity
c) Nausea
d) Headache

A

b) Photosensitivity

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97
Q

Which immunomodulator is available as a 5% ointment for topical use?
a) Pimecrolimus
b) Tacrolimus
c) Imiquimod
d) Interferon-beta

A

c) Imiquimod

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98
Q

Which condition is NOT treated using Tacrolimus or Pimecrolimus?
a) Molluscum contagiosum
b) Atopic dermatitis
c) Vitiligo (off-label)
d) Psoriasis

A

a) Molluscum contagiosum

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99
Q

Which of the following immunomodulators interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
a) Imiquimod
b) Tacrolimus
c) Terbinafine
d) Pimecrolimus

A

c) Terbinafine

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100
Q

Which immunomodulator is known to have minimal percutaneous absorption?
a) Tacrolimus
b) Pimecrolimus
c) Imiquimod
d) Interferon-alpha

A

c) Imiquimod

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101
Q

Which of the following is a primary target of Imiquimod’s antiviral action?
a) Epidermophyton
b) HSV-1
c) CMV
d) EBV

A

b) HSV-1

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102
Q

Which immunomodulator is best absorbed in an acidic medium and should be taken with fruit juice to facilitate absorption?
a) Imiquimod
b) Tacrolimus
c) Itraconazole
d) Pimecrolimus

A

c) Itraconazole

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103
Q

Which ectoparasiticide is a synthetic pyrethroid?

a) Spinosad
b) Ivermectin
c) Permethrin
d) Crotamiton

A

c) Permethrin

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104
Q

Which of the following is NOT toxic to Sarcoptes scabiei?

a) Permethrin
b) Spinosad
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

b) Spinosad

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105
Q

Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of which organism?

a) Fungus
b) Actinomyces bacterium
c) Yeast
d) Algae

A

b) Actinomyces bacterium

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106
Q

Which drug is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare?

a) Ivermectin
b) Griseofulvin
c) Permethrin
d) Malathion

A

b) Griseofulvin

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107
Q

Which ectoparasiticide has concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity?

a) Permethrin
b) Lindane
c) Crotamiton
d) Sulfur

A

b) Lindane

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108
Q

Which drug is a scabicide with some antipruritic properties?

a) Crotamiton
b) Malathion
c) Benzyl Alcohol
d) Ivermectin

A

a) Crotamiton

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109
Q

Which formulation contains 5% precipitated sulfur?

a) Permethrin lotion
b) Ivermectin cream
c) Sulfur in petrolatum
d) Malathion shampoo

A

c) Sulfur in petrolatum

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110
Q

Which ectoparasiticide is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor?

a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Crotamiton
d) Spinosad

A

b) Malathion

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111
Q

Which drug is available as a 5% lotion for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months?

a) Ivermectin
b) Lindane
c) Benzyl Alcohol
d) Permethrin

A

c) Benzyl Alcohol

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112
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice and interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase?

a) Terbinafine
b) Ivermectin
c) Permethrin
d) Crotamiton

A

a) Terbinafine

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113
Q

Which ectoparasiticide is derived from a species of penicillium?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Malathion

A

a) Griseofulvin

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114
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of onychomycosis and interferes with ergosterol biosynthesis?
a) Terbinafine
b) Ivermectin
c) Permethrin
d) Crotamiton

A

a) Terbinafine

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115
Q

Which ectoparasiticide is known to have an unpleasant odor and staining properties?
a) Permethrin
b) Ivermectin
c) Crotamiton
d) Sulfur

A

d) Sulfur

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116
Q

Which drug is available as a 0.5% lotion and should be applied to dry hair for treating lice?
a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Ivermectin
d) Benzyl Alcohol

A

b) Malathion

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117
Q

Which drug is toxic to P. humanus and is used topically for the treatment of head lice in patients aged 4 years and older?
a) Spinosad
b) Ivermectin
c) Permethrin
d) Crotamiton

A

a) Spinosad

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118
Q

Spinosad is derived from:

a) A synthetic process
b) The fermentation of a soil actinomycete bacterium
c) A species of penicillium
d) A pyrethroid plant

A

b) The fermentation of a soil actinomycete bacterium

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119
Q

Which drug is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare?

a) Lindane
b) Malathion
c) Griseofulvin
d) Ivermectin

A

c) Griseofulvin

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120
Q

Which ectoparasiticide has concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity?

a) Permethrin
b) Lindane
c) Crotamiton
d) Sulfur

A

b) Lindane

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121
Q

Which drug is known to have an unpleasant odor and staining properties?

a) Malathion
b) Sulfur
c) Benzyl Alcohol
d) Ivermectin

A

b) Sulfur

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122
Q

Which of the following is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor?

a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Crotamiton
d) Benzyl Alcohol

A

b) Malathion

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123
Q

Benzyl Alcohol is available as what percentage lotion for the treatment of head lice?

a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 7.5%

A

b) 5%

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124
Q

Which drug’s mechanism of action involves inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation?

a) Imiquimod
b) Tacrolimus
c) Permethrin
d) Ivermectin

A

b) Tacrolimus

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125
Q

Which ectoparasiticide is derived from the fermentation of a soil actinomycete bacterium?

a) Permethrin
b) Spinosad
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

b) Spinosad

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126
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months?
a) Permethrin
b) Benzyl Alcohol
c) Crotamiton
d) Malathion

A

b) Benzyl Alcohol

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127
Q

Which drug is a keratophilic medication?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Ivermectin
c) Crotamiton
d) Lindane

A

a) Griseofulvin

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128
Q

Which drug is used as a treatment for head lice in patients aged 4 years and older?
a) Spinosad
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Spinosad

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129
Q

Which of the following is NOT a use of Permethrin?
a) Treatment of Sarcoptes scabiei
b) Treatment of Pthirus pubis
c) Treatment of Candida infections
d) Treatment of Pediculus humanus

A

c) Treatment of Candida infections

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130
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of onychomycosis?
a) Ivermectin
b) Terbinafine
c) Lindane
d) Crotamiton

A

b) Terbinafine

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131
Q

Which ectoparasiticide is a synthetic guanine analog?
a) Acyclovir
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Acyclovir

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132
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice in patients aged 6 months and older?
a) Ivermectin
b) Permethrin
c) Spinosad
d) Lindane

A

a) Ivermectin

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133
Q

Which drug is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor?
a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

b) Malathion

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134
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of Molluscum contagiosum in children?
a) Imiquimod
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Imiquimod

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135
Q

Which drug is known to have a black box warning regarding long-term safety due to animal tumorigenicity data?
a) Tacrolimus
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Tacrolimus

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136
Q

Which drug is derived from a species of penicillium?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Griseofulvin

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137
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of actinic keratoses on the face and scalp?
a) Imiquimod
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Imiquimod

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138
Q

Which drug is a scabicide with some antipruritic properties?
a) Crotamiton
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Crotamiton

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139
Q

Which drug should be applied to dry hair and left for 10 minutes before rinsing off with water?
a) Permethrin
b) Benzyl Alcohol
c) Crotamiton
d) Malathion

A

b) Benzyl Alcohol

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140
Q

Which drug has concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity and should be used with caution in infants, children, and pregnant women?
a) Permethrin
b) Lindane
c) Crotamiton
d) Sulfur

A

b) Lindane

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141
Q

Which drug’s mechanism of action involves inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation?
a) Imiquimod
b) Tacrolimus
c) Permethrin
d) Ivermectin

A

b) Tacrolimus

142
Q

Which drug is effective given orally for the treatment of onychomycosis?
a) Ivermectin
b) Terbinafine
c) Lindane
d) Crotamiton

A

b) Terbinafine

143
Q

Which drug is a keratophilic medication?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Ivermectin
c) Crotamiton
d) Lindane

A

a) Griseofulvin

144
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of head lice in patients aged 4 years and older?
a) Spinosad
b) Permethrin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

a) Spinosad

145
Q

Which of the following is NOT a use of Permethrin?
a) Treatment of Sarcoptes scabiei
b) Treatment of Pthirus pubis
c) Treatment of Candida infections
d) Treatment of Pediculus humanus

A

c) Treatment of Candida infections

146
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by Hydroquinone, leading to its skin-lightening effect?

a) Catalase
b) Tyrosinase
c) Peroxidase
d) Lipase

A

Answer: b) Tyrosinase

Rationale: Hydroquinone works by inhibiting the enzyme tyrosinase, which plays a crucial role in the biosynthesis of melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color.

147
Q

Which of the following agents causes irreversible depigmentation?

a) Hydroquinone
b) Mequinol
c) Monobenzone
d) Trioxsalen

A

Answer: c) Monobenzone

Rationale: Monobenzone causes irreversible depigmentation and may be toxic to melanocytes, leading to a permanent loss of these cells.

148
Q

Which agent is combined with hydroquinone in cosmetic preparations to enhance skin lightening?

a) Methoxsalen
b) Retinol
c) Monobenzone
d) Trioxsalen

A

Answer: b) Retinol

Rationale: Retinol accelerates the exfoliation of the epidermis. When combined with hydroquinone’s melanin inhibition, it results in skin lightening.

149
Q

Psoralens, used in the treatment of vitiligo, need to be activated by which type of UV light?

a) UVB
b) UVC
c) UVA
d) None of the above

A

Answer: c) UVA

Rationale: Psoralens require activation by long-wavelength UV light in the UVA range (320-400 nm) to exert their therapeutic effect.

150
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT used for the repigmentation of depigmented patches in vitiligo?

a) Trioxsalen
b) Methoxsalen
c) Hydroquinone
d) Monobenzone

A

Answer: d) Monobenzone

Rationale: Monobenzone causes irreversible depigmentation and is not used for repigmentation in vitiligo.

151
Q

Which of the following agents is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium and is used for head lice treatment?

a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Spinosad
d) Benzyl Alcohol

A

Answer: c) Spinosad

Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium (Actinomyces) and is used for head lice treatment.

152
Q

Which of the following agents is known to cause hypopigmentation at sites distant from the area of application?

a) Hydroquinone
b) Mequinol
c) Monobenzone
d) Trioxsalen

A

Answer: c) Monobenzone

Rationale: Monobenzone may cause hypopigmentation even in areas distant from the application site due to its potential toxicity to melanocytes.

153
Q

Which agent is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare?

a) Ivermectin
b) Lindane
c) Griseofulvin
d) Malathion

A

Answer: c) Griseofulvin

Rationale: Griseofulvin is effective orally against dermatophyte infections caused by epidermophyton, microsporum, and trichophyton but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare.

154
Q

Which of the following agents is a keratophilic medication that does not seem to affect the P450 system?

a) Terbinafine
b) Griseofulvin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

Answer: a) Terbinafine

Rationale: Terbinafine is a keratophilic medication that, unlike griseofulvin, does not seem to affect the P450 system and has demonstrated no significant drug interactions to date.

155
Q

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months and is available as a 5% lotion?

a) Permethrin
b) Benzyl Alcohol
c) Malathion
d) Spinosad

A

Answer: b) Benzyl Alcohol

Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is available as a 5% lotion and is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months.

156
Q

Which agent is known to form bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting its synthesis?

a) Hydroquinone
b) Psoralen
c) Monobenzone
d) Mequinol

A

Answer: b) Psoralen

Rationale: Psoralen forms bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting DNA synthesis, which is a part of its mechanism of action.

157
Q

Which of the following agents is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor used for treating pediculosis?
a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Spinosad
d) Benzyl Alcohol

A

Answer: b) Malathion

Rationale: Malathion is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor that is used for treating pediculosis.

158
Q

Which agent is used as a scabicide and is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women due to its unpleasant odor and staining properties?
a) Crotamiton
b) Sulfur
c) Lindane
d) Ivermectin

A

Answer: b) Sulfur

Rationale: Sulfur is used as a scabicide and is an alternative drug for infants and pregnant women. However, it has an unpleasant odor and can stain, making it disagreeable to use.

159
Q

Which of the following agents is known to cause concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity and should be used with caution in infants, children, and pregnant women?
a) Permethrin
b) Lindane
c) Spinosad
d) Benzyl Alcohol

A

Answer: b) Lindane

Rationale: Lindane has raised concerns about neurotoxicity and hematotoxicity. As a result, it should be used with caution in vulnerable populations like infants, children, and pregnant women.

160
Q

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of head lice in patients 6 months of age and older and is recommended for single use only?
a) Ivermectin
b) Spinosad
c) Permethrin
d) Malathion

A

Answer: a) Ivermectin

Rationale: Ivermectin is used for the treatment of head lice in patients 6 months of age and older. It is recommended for single use only and should not be repeated without a health care provider’s recommendation.

161
Q

Which of the following agents is derived from a soil bacterium and is used for the treatment of head lice?
a) Permethrin
b) Malathion
c) Spinosad
d) Benzyl Alcohol

A

Answer: c) Spinosad

Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium (Actinomyces) and is used for head lice treatment.

162
Q

Which agent is effective orally against dermatophyte infections but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare?
a) Ivermectin
b) Lindane
c) Griseofulvin
d) Malathion

A

Answer: c) Griseofulvin
Rationale: Griseofulvin is effective orally against dermatophyte infections caused by epidermophyton, microsporum, and trichophyton but is ineffective against Candida and P. orbiculare.

163
Q

Which of the following agents is a keratophilic medication that does not seem to affect the P450 system?
a) Terbinafine
b) Griseofulvin
c) Ivermectin
d) Lindane

A

Answer: a) Terbinafine
Rationale: Terbinafine is a keratophilic medication that, unlike griseofulvin, does not seem to affect the P450 system and has demonstrated no significant drug interactions to date.

164
Q

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months and is available as a 5% lotion?
a) Permethrin
b) Benzyl Alcohol
c) Malathion
d) Spinosad

A

Answer: b) Benzyl Alcohol
Rationale: Benzyl Alcohol is available as a 5% lotion and is used for the treatment of head lice in patients older than 6 months.

165
Q

Which agent is known to form bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting its synthesis?
a) Hydroquinone
b) Psoralen
c) Monobenzone
d) Mequinol

A

Answer: b) Psoralen
Rationale: Psoralen forms bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting DNA synthesis, which is a part of its mechanism of action.

166
Q

Which type of sunscreen absorbs ultraviolet light and converts it into heat?

a) Physical sunscreen
b) Chemical sunscreen
c) Sunshades
d) PABA

A

Answer: b) Chemical sunscreen
Rationale: Chemical sunscreens contain organic compounds that absorb UV rays and convert them into heat, which is then released from the skin.

167
Q

Which compound was once popular in sunscreens but has seen decreased use due to allergic reactions?

a) Oxybenzone
b) Titanium dioxide
c) Dibenzoylmethane
d) PABA

A

Answer: d) PABA
Rationale: PABA was once a common ingredient in sunscreens but has declined in use due to allergic reactions in some individuals.

168
Q

Which of the following provides a broader spectrum of absorption from 250-360 nm?

a) PABA
b) Dibenzoylmethane
c) Benzophenones
d) Zinc oxide

A

Answer: c) Benzophenones
Rationale: Benzophenones, including oxybenzone, dioxybenzone, and sulisobenzone, offer a broad spectrum of absorption ranging from 250-360 nm.

169
Q

What does SPF measure in sunscreens?

a) The sunscreen’s water resistance
b) The sunscreen’s ability to prevent UVA damage
c) The sunscreen’s ability to prevent UVB damage
d) The sunscreen’s fragrance strength

A

Answer: c) The sunscreen’s ability to prevent UVB damage
Rationale: SPF (Sun Protective Factor) measures a sunscreen’s effectiveness in preventing UVB-induced skin damage.

170
Q

Which compound is beneficial for individuals sensitive to UVA wavelengths?

a) PABA
b) Oxybenzone
c) Dibenzoylmethane
d) Zinc oxide

A

Answer: c) Dibenzoylmethane
Rationale: Dibenzoylmethane absorbs wavelengths throughout the longer UVA range, making it suitable for those sensitive to UVA wavelengths.

171
Q

Which of the following sunscreens acts as a physical barrier that deflects and scatters UV rays?

a) Chemical sunscreen
b) Sunshades
c) PABA
d) Benzophenones

A

Answer: b) Sunshades
Rationale: Sunshades or physical sunscreens contain opaque materials that act as a barrier, reflecting and scattering UV rays.

172
Q

Which sunscreen ingredient is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium?

a) PABA
b) Oxybenzone
c) Spinosad
d) Dibenzoylmethane

A

Answer: c) Spinosad
Rationale: Spinosad is derived from the fermentation of a soil bacterium, specifically an Actinomyces bacterium.

173
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benzophenone?

a) Oxybenzone
b) Dioxybenzone
c) Sulisobenzone
d) Dibenzoylmethane

A

Answer: d) Dibenzoylmethane
Rationale: Dibenzoylmethane is not a benzophenone; it’s a compound that absorbs wavelengths in the UVA range.

174
Q

What is the primary concern regarding the long-term use of psoralen photochemotherapy?

a) Acne breakouts
b) Cataracts and skin cancer
c) Increased sensitivity to cold
d) Hyperpigmentation

A

Answer: b) Cataracts and skin cancer
Rationale: The major long-term risks associated with psoralen photochemotherapy are the development of cataracts and skin cancer.

175
Q

Which of the following sunscreens should be applied to dry hair for treating head lice?

a) Benzyl alcohol
b) Malathion
c) PABA
d) Oxybenzone

A

Answer: b) Malathion
Rationale: Malathion is available as a 0.5% lotion that should be applied to dry hair for the treatment of head lice. It’s not a traditional sunscreen but is mentioned in the context of ectoparasiticides.

176
Q

Which of the following is the acid form of Vitamin A?

a) Adapalene
b) Tazarotene
c) Retinoic acid
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: c) Retinoic acid
Rationale: Retinoic acid is the acid form of Vitamin A and plays a crucial role in the treatment of acne.

177
Q

Which medication is known to stabilize lysosomal membranes and increase ribonucleic acid polymerase activity?

a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Brimonidine
c) Retinoic acid
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: c) Retinoic acid
Rationale: Retinoic acid has multiple actions, including stabilizing lysosomal membranes and increasing ribonucleic acid polymerase activity.

178
Q

Adapalene is a derivative of which acid?

a) Naphthoic acid
b) Benzoic acid
c) Retinoic acid
d) Dicarboxylic acid

A

Answer: a) Naphthoic acid
Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid and resembles retinoic acid in structure and effects.

179
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tazarotene?

a) Anti-inflammatory action
b) Teratogenicity
c) Anti-proliferative action
d) Skin irritation

A

Answer: a) Anti-inflammatory action
Rationale: Anti-inflammatory action is a therapeutic effect of tazarotene, not a side effect.

180
Q

Which agent is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects?

a) Brimonidine
b) Benzoyl peroxide
c) Tazarotene
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: b) Benzoyl peroxide
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects.

181
Q

Azelaic acid is effective in treating which of the following conditions?

a) Rosacea
b) Psoriasis
c) Eczema
d) Urticaria

A

Answer: a) Rosacea
Rationale: Azelaic acid is used in the treatment of acne and rosacea.

182
Q

Which medication is an α2-adrenergic agonist used for treating persistent facial erythema of rosacea?

a) Adapalene
b) Brimonidine
c) Retinoic acid
d) Benzoyl peroxide

A

Answer: b) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea.

183
Q

Which of the following medications can potentially lower blood pressure?

a) Adapalene
b) Tazarotene
c) Brimonidine
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: c) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine, an α2-adrenergic agonist, can lower blood pressure due to its mechanism of action.

184
Q

Which medication is known to be photochemically stable and shows little decrease in efficacy when combined with benzoyl peroxide?

a) Retinoic acid
b) Tazarotene
c) Adapalene
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: c) Adapalene
Rationale: Adapalene is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy even when combined with benzoyl peroxide.

185
Q

Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of isotretinoin?

a) Dryness of the skin
b) Headaches
c) Increased hair growth
d) Muscle and joint pains

A

Answer: c) Increased hair growth
Rationale: Isotretinoin can cause various side effects, but increased hair growth is not one of them.

186
Q

Which medication is known to inhibit sebaceous gland size and function?
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Isotretinoin
c) Brimonidine
d) Adapalene

A

Answer: b) Isotretinoin
Rationale: Isotretinoin is known to inhibit sebaceous gland size and function, making it effective for severe cystic acne.

187
Q

Which agent is known to form bonds with DNA in the presence of UVA, inhibiting its synthesis?
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Tazarotene
c) Psoralen
d) Brimonidine

A

Answer: c) Psoralen
Rationale: Psoralen forms bonds with DNA when exposed to UVA, inhibiting DNA synthesis.

188
Q

Which of the following agents is known for its irreversible depigmentation?
a) Hydroquinone
b) Monobenzone
c) Mequinol
d) Adapalene

A

Answer: b) Monobenzone
Rationale: Monobenzone can cause irreversible depigmentation and may be toxic to melanocytes.

189
Q

Which medication is recommended to be used by women of childbearing age only after contraceptive counseling due to its teratogenic effects?
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Tazarotene
c) Brimonidine
d) Adapalene

A

Answer: b) Tazarotene
Rationale: Tazarotene can be teratogenic, so women of childbearing age should use it only after contraceptive counseling.

190
Q

Which of the following agents is a straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid used in acne treatment?
a) Retinoic acid
b) Benzoyl peroxide
c) Azelaic acid
d) Brimonidine

A

Answer: c) Azelaic acid
Rationale: Azelaic acid is a straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid used in the treatment of acne and rosacea.

191
Q

Which medication is known to stabilize lysosomal membranes and increase ribonucleic acid polymerase activity?
a) Adapalene
b) Brimonidine
c) Retinoic acid
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: c) Retinoic acid
Rationale: Retinoic acid has multiple actions, including stabilizing lysosomal membranes and increasing ribonucleic acid polymerase activity.

192
Q

Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of tazarotene?
a) Anti-inflammatory action
b) Teratogenicity
c) Anti-proliferative action
d) Skin irritation

A

Answer: a) Anti-inflammatory action
Rationale: Anti-inflammatory action is a therapeutic effect of tazarotene, not a side effect.

193
Q

Which agent is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects?
a) Brimonidine
b) Benzoyl peroxide
c) Tazarotene
d) Azelaic acid

A

Answer: b) Benzoyl peroxide
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is known for its antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and its peeling and comedolytic effects.

194
Q

Azelaic acid is effective in treating which of the following conditions?
a) Rosacea
b) Psoriasis
c) Eczema
d) Urticaria

A

Answer: a) Rosacea
Rationale: Azelaic acid is used in the treatment of acne and rosacea.

195
Q

Which medication is an α2-adrenergic agonist used for treating persistent facial erythema of rosacea?
a) Adapalene
b) Brimonidine
c) Retinoic acid
d) Benzoyl peroxide

A

Answer: b) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea.

196
Q

Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of which group?

a) Carboxyl group
b) Alcohol group
c) Amino group
d) Aldehyde group

A

Answer: b) Alcohol group
Rationale: Retinoic acid is formed by the oxidation of the alcohol group.

197
Q

Which form of Vitamin A is retinoic acid?

a) Ester form
b) Alcohol form
c) Acid form
d) Aldehyde form

A

Answer: c) Acid form
Rationale: Retinoic acid is the acid form of Vitamin A.

198
Q

What percentage of topically applied retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation?

a) Less than 5%
b) About 25%
c) Less than 10%
d) About 50%

A

Answer: c) Less than 10%
Rationale: Less than 10% of topically applied retinoic acid is absorbed into the circulation

199
Q

During the initial weeks of retinoic acid therapy, what might patients observe?

a) Immediate clearing of acne
b) Appearance of previously unseen comedones
c) Darkening of the skin
d) Immediate reduction in skin oiliness

A

Answer: b) Appearance of previously unseen comedones
Rationale: In the first 4-6 weeks of therapy, comedones not previously evident may appear.

200
Q

Which derivative of naphthoic acid resembles retinoic acid in structure and effects?

a) Tazarotene
b) Isotretinoin
c) Adapalene
d) Benzoyl Peroxide

A

Answer: c) Adapalene
Rationale: Adapalene is a derivative of naphthoic acid that resembles retinoic acid in structure and effects.

201
Q

Which topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase?

a) Isotretinoin
b) Adapalene
c) Tazarotene
d) Azelaic Acid

A

Answer: c) Tazarotene
Rationale: Tazarotene is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.

202
Q

Which acne preparation inhibits sebaceous gland size and function and is used for severe cystic acne?

a) Benzoyl Peroxide
b) Azelaic Acid
c) Tazarotene
d) Isotretinoin

A

Answer: d) Isotretinoin
Rationale: Isotretinoin inhibits sebaceous gland size and function and is used for severe cystic acne.

203
Q

Which agent is known to penetrate the stratum corneum or follicular openings unchanged and is converted metabolically to benzoic acid?

a) Adapalene
b) Benzoyl Peroxide
c) Tazarotene
d) Isotretinoin

A

Answer: b) Benzoyl Peroxide
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide penetrates the stratum corneum or follicular openings unchanged and is converted metabolically to benzoic acid.

204
Q

Which straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid is used for the treatment of acne and acne rosacea?

a) Tazarotene
b) Isotretinoin
c) Adapalene
d) Azelaic Acid

A

Answer: d) Azelaic Acid
Rationale: Azelaic acid is a straight-chain saturated dicarboxylic acid used for the treatment of acne and acne rosacea.

205
Q

Which α2-adrenergic agonist is indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea in adults?

a) Adapalene
b) Brimonidine
c) Tazarotene
d) Isotretinoin

A

Answer: b) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine is an α2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea in adults.

206
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Isotretinoin?
a) Dryness and itching of the skin
b) Headaches
c) Increased skin oiliness
d) Hair loss

A

Answer: c) Increased skin oiliness
Rationale: Side effects of Isotretinoin resemble hypervitaminosis A and include dryness and itching of the skin, but not increased skin oiliness.

207
Q

Which acne preparation is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy even when combined with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Tazarotene
b) Isotretinoin
c) Adapalene
d) Retinoic Acid

A

Answer: c) Adapalene
Rationale: Adapalene is photochemically stable and retains its efficacy even when combined with benzoyl peroxide.

208
Q

Which of the following agents promotes dermal collagen synthesis, new blood vessel formation, and thickening of the epidermis?
a) Benzoyl Peroxide
b) Azelaic Acid
c) Tazarotene
d) Tretinoin

A

Answer: d) Tretinoin
Rationale: Prolonged use of tretinoin promotes dermal collagen synthesis, new blood vessel formation, and thickening of the epidermis.

209
Q

Which acne preparation is available in a fixed-dose combination gel with benzoyl peroxide?
a) Tazarotene
b) Adapalene
c) Isotretinoin
d) Azelaic Acid

A

Answer: b) Adapalene
Rationale: Adapalene is available in a fixed-dose combination gel with benzoyl peroxide.

210
Q

Which agent is known to have antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and peeling and comedolytic effects?
a) Tazarotene
b) Isotretinoin
c) Benzoyl Peroxide
d) Adapalene

A

Answer: c) Benzoyl Peroxide
Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide has antimicrobial activity against P. acnes and has peeling and comedolytic effects.

211
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT a derivative or form of Vitamin A?
a) Retinoic Acid
b) Adapalene
c) Tazarotene
d) Azelaic Acid

A

Answer: d) Azelaic Acid
Rationale: Azelaic acid is not a derivative or form of Vitamin A.

212
Q

Which agent is known to directly cause vasoconstriction and is used for facial erythema of rosacea?
a) Tazarotene
b) Isotretinoin
c) Adapalene
d) Brimonidine

A

Answer: d) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine directly causes vasoconstriction and is used for facial erythema of rosacea.

213
Q

Which of the following agents should be used with caution in patients with severe cardiovascular disease due to its potential to lower blood pressure?
a) Tazarotene
b) Brimonidine
c) Adapalene
d) Isotretinoin

A

Answer: b) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine, an α2-adrenergic agonist, can lower blood pressure and should be used with caution in patients with severe cardiovascular disease.

214
Q

Which of the following agents is known to inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?
a) Tazarotene
b) Isotretinoin
c) Adapalene
d) Azelaic Acid

A

Answer: d) Azelaic Acid
Rationale: Azelaic acid has in vitro inhibitory effects on the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

215
Q

Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase?
a) Tazarotene
b) Adapalene
c) Isotretinoin
d) Benzoyl Peroxide

A

Answer: a) Tazarotene
Rationale: Tazarotene is a topical acetylenic retinoid prodrug that is hydrolyzed to its active form by an esterase.

216
Q

Acitretin is a metabolite of which aromatic retinoid?

a) Isotretinoin
b) Tretinoin
c) Adapalene
d) Etretinate

A

Answer: d) Etretinate
Rationale: Acitretin is specifically mentioned as a metabolite of the aromatic retinoid etretinate.

217
Q

Which form of Vitamin A is Acitretin associated with?

a) Vitamin A aldehyde
b) Vitamin A ester
c) Acid form of Vitamin A
d) Vitamin A amide

A

Answer: c) Acid form of Vitamin A
Rationale: Acitretin is the acid form of Vitamin A.

218
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Acitretin?

a) Hypervitaminosis symptoms
b) Elevations in cholesterol
c) Increased appetite
d) Hepatotoxicity

A

Answer: c) Increased appetite
Rationale: Acitretin’s side effects resemble hypervitaminosis, can cause elevations in cholesterol, and hepatotoxicity, but not increased appetite.

219
Q

Which synthetic vitamin D3 derivative is used for the treatment of moderate severity plaque-type psoriasis vulgaris?

a) Calcitonin
b) Calcipotriene
c) Calcitrol
d) Calcinurin

A

Answer: b) Calcipotriene
Rationale: Calcipotriene is the synthetic vitamin D3 derivative used for psoriasis treatment.

220
Q

Which TNF inhibitor is a chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody?

a) Etanercept
b) Adalimumab
c) Infliximab
d) Ustekinumab

A

Answer: c) Infliximab
Rationale: Infliximab is described as a chimeric IgG1 monoclonal antibody.

221
Q

Which of the following agents binds specifically to TNF-alpha and blocks its interaction with cell surface TF receptors?

a) Etanercept
b) Adalimumab
c) Infliximab
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: b) Adalimumab
Rationale: Adalimumab is the agent that specifically binds to TNF-alpha.

222
Q

Which agent interferes with lymphocyte activation in psoriasis?

a) Ustekinumab
b) Etanercept
c) Adalimumab
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: d) Alefacept
Rationale: Alefacept interferes with lymphocyte activation, playing a role in the pathophysiology of psoriasis.

223
Q

Which agent is NOT a TNF inhibitor?

a) Etanercept
b) Infliximab
c) Adalimumab
d) Ustekinumab

A

Answer: d) Ustekinumab
Rationale: Ustekinumab is not a TNF inhibitor; it binds to interleukin-12 (IL-12) and IL-23 cytokines.

224
Q

Which of the following agents is associated with a risk of teratogenicity and requires contraceptive counseling for women of childbearing age?

a) Calcipotriene
b) Ustekinumab
c) Acitretin
d) Benzoyl Peroxide

A

Answer: c) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin is notably teratogenic and requires strict contraceptive measures.

225
Q

Which agent is an a2-adrenergic agonist indicated for the topical treatment of persistent facial erythema of rosacea?

a) Adapalene
b) Brimonidine
c) Tazarotene
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: b) Brimonidine
Rationale: Brimonidine is the a2-adrenergic agonist used for facial erythema of rosacea.

226
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT a biologic agent used for psoriasis treatment?
a) Alefacept
b) Etanercept
c) Calcipotriene
d) Infliximab

A

Answer: c) Calcipotriene
Rationale: Calcipotriene is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative, not a biologic agent.

227
Q

Which agent is considered a homeopathic treatment in the USA for psoriasis and is not approved or regulated by the FDA?
a) Ustekinumab
b) Fumaric Acid Esters
c) Adalimumab
d) Calcipotriene

A

Answer: b) Fumaric Acid Esters
Rationale: Fumaric Acid Esters are considered homeopathic treatments in the USA for psoriasis.

228
Q

Which of the following agents is associated with the risk of serious life-threatening infections?
a) Calcipotriene
b) Alefacept
c) TNF inhibitors
d) Acitretin

A

Answer: c) TNF inhibitors
Rationale: TNF inhibitors have been reported to cause serious life-threatening infections.

229
Q

Which agent binds to interleukin-12 (IL-12) and IL-23 cytokines, inhibiting Th1 and Th17 cell-mediated responses?
a) Adalimumab
b) Infliximab
c) Ustekinumab
d) Etanercept

A

Answer: c) Ustekinumab
Rationale: Ustekinumab binds to IL-12 and IL-23 cytokines.

230
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT recommended for pregnant women due to its teratogenic effects?
a) Ustekinumab
b) Calcipotriene
c) Acitretin
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: c) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin is notably teratogenic and is not recommended for pregnant women.

231
Q

Which agent is known to have a prolonged elimination time of more than 3 months?
a) Ustekinumab
b) Adalimumab
c) Acitretin
d) Calcipotriene

A

Answer: c) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin has a notably prolonged elimination time, lasting more than 3 months.

232
Q

Which agent is specifically indicated for the treatment of pustular forms of psoriasis?
a) Calcipotriene
b) Acitretin
c) Ustekinumab
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: b) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin is specifically indicated for the treatment of pustular forms of psoriasis.

233
Q

Which of the following agents is a synthetic vitamin D3 derivative available as a 0.005% cream, scalp lotion, and foam?
a) Calcitriol
b) Calcipotriene
c) Acitretin
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: b) Calcipotriene
Rationale: Calcipotriene is the synthetic vitamin D3 derivative available in the mentioned formulations.

234
Q

Which agent interferes with the activation of lymphocytes, playing a role in the pathophysiology of psoriasis?
a) Ustekinumab
b) Adalimumab
c) Alefacept
d) Calcipotriene

A

Answer: c) Alefacept
Rationale: Alefacept specifically interferes with lymphocyte activation in the context of psoriasis.

235
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT a TNF inhibitor?
a) Alefacept
b) Etanercept
c) Infliximab
d) Adalimumab

A

Answer: a) Alefacept
Rationale: Alefacept is not a TNF inhibitor; it interferes with lymphocyte activation.

236
Q

Which agent is associated with the risk of reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?
a) Ustekinumab
b) Adalimumab
c) Infliximab
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: a) Ustekinumab
Rationale: Ustekinumab has been reported to be associated with a case of reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome.

237
Q

Which agent is considered a homeopathic treatment in the USA for psoriasis and is not approved or regulated by the FDA?
a) Calcipotriene
b) Fumaric Acid Esters
c) Acitretin
d) Ustekinumab

A

Answer: b) Fumaric Acid Esters
Rationale: Fumaric Acid Esters are considered homeopathic treatments in the USA for psoriasis.

238
Q

Which agent is known to cause serious life-threatening infections, including sepsis and pneumonia?
a) Calcipotriene
b) Alefacept
c) TNF inhibitors
d) Acitretin

A

Answer: c) TNF inhibitors
Rationale: TNF inhibitors have been reported to cause serious life-threatening infections.

239
Q

Which agent binds to interleukin-12 (IL-12) and IL-23 cytokines, inhibiting Th1 and Th17 cell-mediated responses?
a) Adalimumab
b) Infliximab
c) Ustekinumab
d) Etanercept

A

Answer: c) Ustekinumab
Rationale: Ustekinumab binds to IL-12 and IL-23 cytokines.

240
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT recommended for pregnant women due to its teratogenic effects?
a) Ustekinumab
b) Calcipotriene
c) Acitretin
d) Alefacept

A

Answer: c) Acitretin
Rationale: Acitretin is notably teratogenic and is not recommended for pregnant women.

241
Q

Which of the following was the original topical glucocorticoid?

a) Prednisolone
b) Betamethasone
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Dexamethasone

A

Answer: c) Hydrocortisone
Rationale: Hydrocortisone was the first topical glucocorticoid introduced.

242
Q

Which modification made betamethasone over 300 times as active as hydrocortisone for topical use?

a) Addition of a hydroxyl group
b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain
c) Fluorination
d) Methylation

A

Answer: b) Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain
Rationale: Attaching a 5-carbon valerate chain to betamethasone significantly increased its topical activity.

243
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT treated using topical corticosteroids?

a) Inflammatory skin diseases
b) Psoriasis
c) Common cold
d) Dermatitis

A

Answer: c) Common cold
Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are used for skin conditions, not for treating the common cold.

244
Q

Which adverse effect is associated with the systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids?

a) Suppression of the HPA-axis
b) Hyperpigmentation
c) Hair growth
d) Increased appetite

A

Answer: a) Suppression of the HPA-axis
Rationale: Systemic absorption can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.

245
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of topical corticosteroids?

a) Atrophy
b) Telangiectasia
c) Hair growth
d) Steroid acne

A

Answer: c) Hair growth
Rationale: Hypertrichosis (increased hair growth) is an effect, but general hair growth is not specifically an adverse effect of topical corticosteroids.

246
Q

Tar compounds are particularly valuable in the treatment of which condition?

a) Acute vesiculation
b) Chronic lichenified dermatitis
c) Viral infections
d) Fungal infections

A

Answer: b) Chronic lichenified dermatitis
Rationale: Tar compounds are known for their antipruritic properties, making them valuable in treating chronic lichenified dermatitis.

247
Q

Which constituent in tar compounds is responsible for their antipruritic properties?

a) Carboxylic acid
b) Amino acids
c) Phenolic constituents
d) Alcohols

A

Answer: c) Phenolic constituents
Rationale: The phenolic constituents in tar compounds give them their antipruritic properties.

248
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds?

a) Hyperpigmentation
b) Irritant folliculitis
c) Hair loss
d) Increased appetite

A

Answer: b) Irritant folliculitis
Rationale: The most common adverse reaction to coal tar compounds is irritant folliculitis.

249
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of topical corticosteroids?

a) Decreased inflammation
b) Antimitotic effects on human epidermis
c) Increased cell proliferation
d) Reduction in itching

A

Answer: c) Increased cell proliferation
Rationale: Corticosteroids have antimitotic effects, which means they reduce cell proliferation.

250
Q

Which topical corticosteroid is over 300 times as active as hydrocortisone when a 5-carbon valerate chain is attached?

a) Dexamethasone
b) Prednisolone
c) Betamethasone
d) Methylprednisolone

A

Answer: c) Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone becomes significantly more active topically when a 5-carbon valerate chain is attached.

251
Q

Which of the following conditions can be aggravated by even weak tar preparations?
a) Chronic lichenified dermatitis
b) Psoriasis
c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation
d) Steroid acne

A

Answer: c) Acute dermatitis with vesiculation
Rationale: Acute dermatitis with vesiculation and oozing may be irritated by even weak tar preparations.

252
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of topical corticosteroids?
a) Atrophy
b) Telangiectasia
c) Increased appetite
d) Steroid acne

A

Answer: c) Increased appetite
Rationale: Increased appetite is not a direct side effect of topical corticosteroids.Answer: c) Increased appetite
Rationale: Increased appetite is not a direct side effect of topical corticosteroids.

253
Q

Which compound is known for its antipruritic properties in treating chronic lichenified dermatitis?
a) Hydrocortisone
b) Betamethasone
c) Tar compounds
d) Dexamethasone

A

Answer: c) Tar compounds
Rationale: Tar compounds have phenolic constituents that provide antipruritic properties, making them valuable for treating chronic lichenified dermatitis.

254
Q

Which of the following conditions can be treated using tar compounds as an alternative to topical corticosteroids?
a) Acute vesiculation
b) Psoriasis
c) Viral infections
d) Fungal infections

A

Answer: b) Psoriasis
Rationale: Tar compounds can be used for treating conditions like psoriasis as an alternative to topical corticosteroids.

255
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of tar compounds?
a) Antipruritic
b) Antiviral
c) Useful in chronic lichenified dermatitis
d) Valuable in psoriasis treatment

A

Answer: b) Antiviral
Rationale: Tar compounds are not specifically antiviral. They are known for their antipruritic properties and are used in skin conditions like psoriasis and chronic lichenified dermatitis.

256
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of tar compounds?
a) Irritant folliculitis
b) Photo irritation
c) Hair growth
d) Allergic contact dermatitis

A

Answer: c) Hair growth
Rationale: Hair growth is not specifically an adverse effect of tar compounds.

257
Q

Which of the following topical corticosteroids is NOT as active as hydrocortisone?
a) Prednisolone
b) Methylprednisolone
c) Dexamethasone
d) Betamethasone

A

Answer: d) Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone, without modifications, is not very active topically compared to hydrocortisone.

258
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of topical corticosteroids when applied to the eyes?
a) Decreased intraocular pressure
b) Increased intraocular pressure
c) Improved vision
d) Color vision enhancement

A

Answer: b) Increased intraocular pressure
Rationale: One of the side effects of topical corticosteroids is an increase in intraocular pressure when applied near the eyes.

259
Q

Which of the following conditions can be treated using both topical corticosteroids and tar compounds?
a) Psoriasis
b) Common cold
c) Viral infections
d) Fungal infections

A

Answer: a) Psoriasis
Rationale: Both topical corticosteroids and tar compounds are used in the treatment of psoriasis.

260
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of tar compounds?
a) Antipruritic properties
b) Useful in psoriasis treatment
c) Antiviral properties
d) Valuable in chronic lichenified dermatitis treatment

A

Answer: c) Antiviral properties
Rationale: Tar compounds are not specifically antiviral. They are known for their antipruritic properties and are used in skin conditions like psoriasis and chronic lichenified dermatitis.

261
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary action of salicylic acid on the skin?

A. Antibacterial
B. Moisturizing
C. Exfoliating
D. Sunscreen

A

Answer: C. Exfoliating
Rationale: Salicylic acid acts by exfoliating the skin, removing dead skin cells, and is commonly used in skincare products targeting acne.

262
Q

In which concentration range is salicylic acid primarily keratolytic?

A. 1-2%
B. 3-5%
C. 6-10%
D. 11-15%

A

Answer: B. 3-5%
Rationale: Salicylic acid acts as a keratolytic agent in concentrations of 3-5%.

263
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of systemic absorption of salicylic acid?

A. Tinnitus
B. Vertigo
C. Hyperpigmentation
D. Nausea

A

Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation
Rationale: Salicylism, caused by high levels of salicylate in the blood, can lead to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea. Hyperpigmentation is not a known side effect.

264
Q

Propylene glycol in concentrations of 40-70% acts as a:

A. Humectant
B. Sunscreen
C. Keratolytic agent
D. Antibacterial agent

A

Answer: C. Keratolytic agent
Rationale: In concentrations of 40-70%, propylene glycol acts as a keratolytic agent, especially when used under occlusion or combined with 6% salicylic acid.

265
Q

Urea increases the water content of the stratum corneum due to its:

A. Antibacterial properties
B. Hygroscopic properties
C. Anti-inflammatory properties
D. UV protective properties

A

Answer: B. Hygroscopic properties
Rationale: Urea’s hygroscopic properties allow it to attract and retain moisture, increasing the water content of the stratum corneum.

266
Q

Which of the following is primarily used for the treatment of warts?

A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: C. Podophyllum resin
Rationale: Podophyllum resin is derived from the roots of the Podophyllum plant and is used primarily for the treatment of warts.

267
Q

Sinecatechins ointment is derived from:

A. Aloe vera
B. Green tea leaves
C. Lavender
D. Chamomile

A

Answer: B. Green tea leaves
Rationale: Sinecatechins is a botanical drug derived from green tea leaves and is used for treating external genital and perianal warts.

268
Q

Fluorouracil disrupts the synthesis of:

A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. DNA and RNA
D. Carbohydrates

A

Answer: C. DNA and RNA
Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis, especially in rapidly proliferating cells.

269
Q

Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of propylene glycol?

A. Irritation
B. Allergic contact dermatitis
C. Hyperpigmentation
D. Eczematous dermatitis sensitivity

A

Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation
Rationale: Propylene glycol can cause irritation and allergic contact dermatitis. Those with eczematous dermatitis may be more sensitive to it. Hyperpigmentation is not a known side effect.

270
Q

Ingenol mebutate is derived from which plant?

A. Euphorbia peplus
B. Aloe vera
C. Camellia sinensis
D. Lavandula angustifolia

A

Answer: A. Euphorbia peplus
Rationale: Ingenol mebutate is derived from the Euphorbia peplus plant and is used for treating actinic keratosis.

271
Q

Which of the following is a known use of urea in higher concentrations?
A. Sunscreen
B. Softening the nail prior to avulsion
C. Antibacterial agent
D. UV protective agent

A

Answer: B. Softening the nail prior to avulsion
Rationale: Concentrations of 30-50% urea applied to the nail plate have been useful in softening the nail before avulsion.

272
Q

Which of the following agents is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: D. Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses, which are precancerous skin lesions.

273
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of systemic absorption of salicylic acid?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Neurotoxicity
C. Hyperpigmentation
D. Metabolic acidosis

A

Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation
Rationale: Systemic absorption of salicylic acid can lead to respiratory alkalosis, neurotoxicity, and metabolic acidosis. Hyperpigmentation is not a known side effect.

274
Q

Which of the following agents is derived from green tea leaves and is used for treating external genital and perianal warts?
A. Urea
B. Sinecatechins
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: B. Sinecatechins
Rationale: Sinecatechins is a botanical drug derived from green tea leaves and is used for treating external genital and perianal warts.

275
Q

Which of the following agents has a mechanism of action that involves inhibiting thymidylate synthetase activity?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: D. Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, disrupting DNA and RNA synthesis.

276
Q

Which of the following agents is used for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis and is derived from Euphorbia peplus?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Ingenol mebutate
D. Fluorouracil

A

Rationale: Ingenol mebutate is derived from the Euphorbia peplus plant and is used for treating actinic keratosis.

277
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT a keratolytic agent?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: D. Fluorouracil
Rationale: While urea, propylene glycol, and podophyllum resin have keratolytic properties, fluorouracil does not act primarily as a keratolytic agent.

278
Q

Which of the following agents is used as a humectant and increases the water content of the stratum corneum?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: A. Urea
Rationale: Urea’s hygroscopic properties allow it to attract and retain moisture, increasing the water content of the stratum corneum.

279
Q

Which of the following agents is used extensively in topical preparations because it is an excellent vehicle for organic compounds?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Fluorouracil

A

Answer: B. Propylene glycol
Rationale: Propylene glycol is used extensively in topical preparations because it is an excellent vehicle for organic compounds.

280
Q

Which of the following agents is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses?
A. Urea
B. Propylene glycol
C. Podophyllum resin
D. Diclofenac

A

Answer: D. Diclofenac
Rationale: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses.

281
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary action of Doxepin?

A. Antibacterial
B. Antifungal
C. H1 and H2 receptor antagonist
D. Keratolytic

A

Answer: C. H1 and H2 receptor antagonist
Rationale: Doxepin is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist, which helps in reducing itching.

282
Q

Which side effect is commonly associated with Doxepin?

A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Hyperpigmentation
D. Photosensitivity

A

Answer: B. Drowsiness
Rationale: Doxepin can cause drowsiness as one of its side effects.

283
Q

Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with:

A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Narrow-angle glaucoma
D. Asthma

A

Answer: C. Narrow-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Doxepin is contraindicated in patients with untreated narrow-angle glaucoma or a tendency to urinary retention.

284
Q

Which of the following is a common local adverse effect of Doxepin?

A. Dryness
B. Hyperpigmentation
C. Burning and stinging
D. Photosensitivity

A

Answer: C. Burning and stinging
Rationale: Marked burning and stinging are known local adverse effects of Doxepin.

285
Q

Pramoxine is primarily used as a:

A. Keratolytic agent
B. Topical anesthetic agent
C. Antibacterial agent
D. Sunscreen

A

Answer: B. Topical anesthetic agent
Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that provides temporary relief from pruritus.

286
Q

Which of the following conditions can benefit from the use of Pramoxine?

A. Psoriasis
B. Acne
C. Eczematous dermatoses
D. Vitiligo

A

Answer: C. Eczematous dermatoses
Rationale: Pramoxine can provide temporary relief from pruritus associated with mild eczematous dermatoses.

287
Q

In which form is Pramoxine NOT available?

A. 1% cream
B. 1% lotion
C. 1% gel
D. 1% shampoo

A

Answer: D. 1% shampoo
Rationale: Pramoxine is available as a 1% cream, lotion, or gel but not as a shampoo.

288
Q

Pramoxine can be combined with which of the following for enhanced effects?

A. Salicylic acid
B. Hydrocortisone acetate
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. Retinoids

A

Answer: B. Hydrocortisone acetate
Rationale: Pramoxine is available in combination with hydrocortisone acetate for enhanced antipruritic effects.

289
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Doxepin?

A. Drowsiness
B. Anticholinergic effects
C. Photosensitivity
D. Burning and stinging

A

Answer: C. Photosensitivity
Rationale: While Doxepin can cause drowsiness, anticholinergic effects, and burning/stinging, photosensitivity is not a known side effect.

290
Q

Which of the following agents is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist used for its antipruritic effects?

A. Pramoxine
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Doxepin
D. Salicylic acid

A

Answer: C. Doxepin
Rationale: Doxepin is a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist and is used for its antipruritic effects.

291
Q

Which drug’s mechanism of action on hair follicles remains unknown?

A) Finasteride
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Minoxidil

A

Answer: D) Minoxidil
Rationale: Minoxidil is known for promoting hair growth, but its exact mechanism on hair follicles is not fully understood.

292
Q

Finasteride inhibits which enzyme?

A) Ornithine decarboxylase
B) 5α-reductase
C) Polyamine synthase
D) Prostaglandin synthase

A

Answer: B) 5α-reductase
Rationale: Finasteride operates by inhibiting the enzyme 5α-reductase, reducing DHT levels.

293
Q

Which drug is a prostaglandin analog used for eyelash growth?

A) Eflornithine
B) Minoxidil
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog primarily used to treat hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

294
Q

Eflornithine inhibits the synthesis of what?

A) DHT
B) Prostaglandin
C) Polyamine
D) Keratin

A

Answer: C) Polyamine
Rationale: Eflornithine acts as an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase, which plays a role in polyamine synthesis.

295
Q

Which drug can cause decreased libido as a side effect?

A) Minoxidil
B) Finasteride
C) Bimatoprost
D) Eflornithine

A

Answer: B) Finasteride
Rationale: Some men taking finasteride have reported decreased libido as a side effect.

296
Q

Which drug is used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses?

A) Minoxidil
B) Bimatoprost
C) Eflornithine
D) Fluorouracil

A

Answer: D) Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses.

297
Q

Which drug is known to be an excellent vehicle for organic compounds in topical preparations?

A) Propylene glycol
B) Salicylic acid
C) Urea
D) Minoxidil

A

Answer: A) Propylene glycol
Rationale: Propylene glycol is used extensively in topical preparations because it is an excellent vehicle for organic compounds.

298
Q

Which drug, when stopped, leads to hair loss in 4-6 months?

A) Bimatoprost
B) Eflornithine
C) Minoxidil
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: C) Minoxidil
Rationale: The effect of minoxidil is temporary, and cessation of treatment will lead to hair loss in 4-6 months.

299
Q

Which drug is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months?

A) Minoxidil
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: B) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine has been found effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used consistently for 6 months.

300
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes?

A) Minoxidil
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog primarily used to treat hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

301
Q

Which drug can cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects?
A) Doxepin
B) Pramoxine
C) Minoxidil
D) Eflornithine

A

Answer: A) Doxepin
Rationale: Doxepin, a potent H1 and H2 receptor antagonist, can cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects.

302
Q

Which drug is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase?
A) Minoxidil
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: B) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine acts as an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme ornithine decarboxylase.

303
Q

Which drug’s mechanism involves blocking the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?
A) Minoxidil
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: D) Finasteride
Rationale: Finasteride operates by inhibiting the enzyme 5α-reductase, which blocks the conversion of testosterone to DHT.

304
Q

Which drug is used as a topical anesthetic agent for temporary relief from pruritus?
A) Doxepin
B) Pramoxine
C) Minoxidil
D) Eflornithine

A

Answer: B) Pramoxine
Rationale: Pramoxine is a topical anesthetic agent that provides temporary relief from pruritus associated with mild eczematous dermatoses.

305
Q

Which drug is known to increase the water content of the stratum corneum?
A) Urea
B) Propylene glycol
C) Salicylic acid
D) Minoxidil

A

Answer: A) Urea
Rationale: Urea increases the water content of the stratum corneum, presumably due to its hygroscopic characteristics.

306
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of actinic keratosis and has a mechanism involving the inhibition of thymidylate synthetase activity?
A) Minoxidil
B) Bimatoprost
C) Eflornithine
D) Fluorouracil

A

Answer: D) Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses and its mechanism involves the inhibition of thymidylate synthetase activity.

307
Q

Which drug is a prostaglandin analog and its mechanism of action on eyelash growth is unknown?
A) Minoxidil
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog primarily used for eyelash growth, but its exact mechanism is not known.

308
Q

Which drug can cause marked burning and stinging as a local adverse effect?
A) Doxepin
B) Pramoxine
C) Minoxidil
D) Eflornithine

A

Answer: A) Doxepin
Rationale: Doxepin can cause marked burning and stinging as a local adverse effect.

309
Q

Which drug is used in concentrations of 2-20% as a humectant?
A) Urea
B) Propylene glycol
C) Salicylic acid
D) Minoxidil

A

Answer: A) Urea
Rationale: Urea is used as a humectant in concentrations of 2-20%.

310
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and requires nightly application to the upper eyelid margins?
A) Minoxidil
B) Eflornithine
C) Bimatoprost
D) Finasteride

A

Answer: C) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes and requires a nightly application to the upper eyelid margins.

311
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT a BRAF inhibitor?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. Ipilimumab

A

Answer: D. Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody and not a BRAF inhibitor.

312
Q

Which drug specifically targets the BRAF V600E and V600K mutations?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. Ipilimumab

A

Answer: C. Trametinib
Rationale: Trametinib is a kinase inhibitor that targets both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations.

313
Q

Which adverse effect is associated with Trametinib use?

A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Enterocolitis
C. Hepatitis
D. Keratoacanthoma

A

Answer: A. Cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy.

314
Q

Which drug acts by increasing T-cell-mediated antitumor immune responses?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. Ipilimumab

A

Answer: D. Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a CTLA-4 blocker antibody that increases T-cell-mediated antitumor immune responses.

315
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Ipilimumab?

A. Enterocolitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Dermatitis

A

Answer: C. Cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is associated with Trametinib, not Ipilimumab.

316
Q

Which drug is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. Pegylated Interferon

A

Answer: D. Pegylated Interferon
Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients.

317
Q

Which drug is associated with the risk of new primary cutaneous malignancies?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. Ipilimumab

A

Answer: A. Vemurafenib and B. Dabrafenib
Rationale: Both Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies.

318
Q

Which drug is a prostaglandin analog used to treat hypotrichosis of the eyelashes?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Bimatoprost
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: C. Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

319
Q

Which drug is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Bimatoprost
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: D. Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase, which inhibits polyamine synthesis.

320
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus?

A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Bimatoprost
D. Podophyllum Resin

A

Answer: D. Podophyllum Resin
Rationale: Podophyllum Resin is contraindicated during pregnancy because of potential cytotoxic effects on the fetus.

321
Q

Which drug is known to cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects?
A. Doxepin
B. Pramoxine
C. Vemurafenib
D. Dabrafenib

A

Answer: A. Doxepin
Rationale: Doxepin, an antipruritic agent, can cause drowsiness and anticholinergic effects.

322
Q

Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of BRAF inhibitors?
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Keratoacanthoma
D. New primary melanomas

A

Answer: A. Cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is associated with Trametinib, not the BRAF inhibitors Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib.

323
Q

Which drug is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses?
A. Fluorouracil
B. Ingenol Mebutate
C. Minoxidil
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: A. Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil is used topically for the treatment of multiple actinic keratoses.

324
Q

Which drug is derived from Euphorbia peplus?
A. Fluorouracil
B. Ingenol Mebutate
C. Minoxidil
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: B. Ingenol Mebutate
Rationale: Ingenol Mebutate is derived from Euphorbia peplus and is used for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis.

325
Q

Which drug is a 5a-reductase inhibitor?
A. Minoxidil
B. Finasteride
C. Bimatoprost
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: B. Finasteride
Rationale: Finasteride is a 5a-reductase inhibitor that blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

326
Q

Which drug is associated with the risk of cardiomyopathy?
A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. Ipilimumab

A

Answer: C. Trametinib
Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy.

327
Q

Which drug is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes?
A. Minoxidil
B. Finasteride
C. Bimatoprost
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: C. Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is a prostaglandin analog used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

328
Q

Which drug is known to inhibit thymidylate synthetase activity?
A. Fluorouracil
B. Ingenol Mebutate
C. Minoxidil
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: A. Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, interfering with the synthesis of DNA.

329
Q

Which drug is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months?
A. Minoxidil
B. Finasteride
C. Bimatoprost
D. Eflornithine

A

Answer: D. Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine is effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used for 6 months.

330
Q

Which drug is indicated for the treatment of unresectable or metastatic melanoma?
A. Vemurafenib
B. Dabrafenib
C. Trametinib
D. All of the above

A

Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale: Vemurafenib, Dabrafenib, and Trametinib are all indicated for the treatment of unresectable or metastatic melanoma.

331
Q

Which of the following is a topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid?

A) Bexarotene
B) Vismodegib
C) Vorinostat
D) Alitretinoin

A

Answer: D) Alitretinoin
Rationale: Alitretinoin (Panretin) is the topical formulation of 9-cis-retinoic acid.

332
Q

Bexarotene selectively binds and activates which receptor subtype?

A) Retinoid Y receptor
B) Retinoid Z receptor
C) Retinoid X receptor
D) Retinoid W receptor

A

Answer: C) Retinoid X receptor
Rationale: Bexarotene is a member of a subclass of retinoids that selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes.

333
Q

Vismodegib is primarily used to treat which type of carcinoma?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Merkel cell carcinoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Transitional cell carcinoma

A

Answer: C) Basal cell carcinoma
Rationale: Vismodegib is used for the treatment of metastatic or locally advanced basal cell carcinoma.

334
Q

Which of the following agents is a histone deacetylase inhibitor?

A) Romidepsin
B) Alitretinoin
C) Vismodegib
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: A) Romidepsin
Rationale: Romidepsin is a histone deacetylase inhibitor approved for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

335
Q

Which condition is Alitretinoin approved to treat?

A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
C) AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma
D) Actinic keratosis

A

Answer: C) AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma
Rationale: Alitretinoin is approved for the treatment of cutaneous lesions in patients with AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma.

336
Q

Which agent is known to increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies including squamous cell carcinoma?

A) Vismodegib
B) Vorinostat
C) Vemurafenib
D) Romidepsin

A

Answer: C) Vemurafenib
Rationale: Vemurafenib and dabrafenib increase the risk for new primary cutaneous malignancies.

337
Q

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Bimatoprost?

A) Pruritus
B) Conjunctival hyperemia
C) Increased brown iris pigmentation
D) Hepatotoxicity

A

Answer: D) Hepatotoxicity
Rationale: Bimatoprost can cause pruritus, conjunctival hyperemia, and increased brown iris pigmentation, but hepatotoxicity is not a known side effect.

338
Q

Which agent is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase?

A) Vismodegib
B) Eflornithine
C) Bexarotene
D) Vorinostat

A

Answer: B) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine is an irreversible inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylase, which plays a role in hair growth.

339
Q

Which agent is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy?

A) Vemurafenib
B) Trametinib
C) Bexarotene
D) Romidepsin

A

Answer: B) Trametinib
Rationale: Trametinib use is associated with a defined risk of cardiomyopathy.

340
Q

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A) Vismodegib
B) Bexarotene
C) Alitretinoin
D) Romidepsin

A

Answer: B) Bexarotene
Rationale: Bexarotene is used for the treatment of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

341
Q

Which agent is the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma?
A) Vismodegib
B) Romidepsin
C) Vorinostat
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: A) Vismodegib
Rationale: Vismodegib is the first hedgehog pathway inhibitor available for the oral treatment of metastatic basal cell carcinoma.

342
Q

Which of the following agents is a Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA-4) blocker antibody?
A) Vismodegib
B) Ipilimumab
C) Romidepsin
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: B) Ipilimumab
Rationale: Ipilimumab is a Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA-4) blocker antibody used for the treatment of melanoma.

343
Q

Which agent is known to inhibit thymidylate synthetase activity, interfering with the synthesis of DNA?
A) Fluorouracil
B) Vismodegib
C) Bexarotene
D) Vorinostat

A

Answer: A) Fluorouracil
Rationale: Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthetase activity, interfering with the synthesis of DNA.

344
Q

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of actinic keratosis?
A) Ingenol Mebutate
B) Vismodegib
C) Romidepsin
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: A) Ingenol Mebutate
Rationale: Ingenol Mebutate is used for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis.

345
Q

Which agent is associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions, including severe dermatologic reactions?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Trametinib
C) Bexarotene
D) Romidepsin

A

Answer: A) Vemurafenib
Rationale: All BRAF inhibitors, including Vemurafenib, are associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions.

346
Q

Which agent is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes?
A) Vismodegib
B) Bimatoprost
C) Romidepsin
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: B) Bimatoprost
Rationale: Bimatoprost is used for the treatment of hypotrichosis of the eyelashes.

347
Q

Which agent is an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients?
A) Pegylated Interferon
B) Vismodegib
C) Romidepsin
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: A) Pegylated Interferon
Rationale: Pegylated Interferon is used as an adjuvant therapy for stage III node-positive melanoma patients.

348
Q

Which of the following agents is NOT a kinase inhibitor of BRAF V600E mutation?
A) Vemurafenib
B) Dabrafenib
C) Trametinib
D) Bexarotene

A

Answer: D) Bexarotene
Rationale: Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib are kinase inhibitors of BRAF V600E mutation, while Trametinib is a kinase inhibitor of both BRAF V600E and V600K mutations.

349
Q

Which agent is effective in reducing facial hair growth in women when used for 6 months?
A) Vismodegib
B) Bimatoprost
C) Romidepsin
D) Eflornithine

A

Answer: D) Eflornithine
Rationale: Eflornithine is effective in reducing facial hair growth in about 30% of women when used for 6 months.

350
Q

Which agent is known to selectively bind and activate retinoid X receptor subtypes?
A) Vismodegib
B) Bimatoprost
C) Bexarotene
D) Romidepsin

A

Answer: C) Bexarotene
Rationale: Bexarotene is a member of a subclass of retinoids that selectively binds and activates retinoid X receptor subtypes.

Pharma 1 (DUMP) (16 decks)

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