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Pharma 1 (DUMP) > ANTISEPTICS AND DISINFECTANTS > Flashcards

ANTISEPTICS AND DISINFECTANTS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a fixative in electron microscopy?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Methanol
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Acetone

A

C. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is widely used as a fixative in electron microscopy due to its ability to cross-link proteins and preserve the structural integrity of biological specimens.

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2
Q

Formalin is an aqueous solution of:

A. Methanol
B. Acetone
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Formaldehyde

A

D. Formaldehyde
Rationale: Formalin is the aqueous solution of formaldehyde with methanol added to prevent polymerization.

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3
Q

Which aldehyde is more active at an alkaline pH?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

B. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is more active at an alkaline pH, resulting in more rapid bactericidal effects.

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4
Q

What is the chemical formula of methanal?

A. CH2O
B. C2H4O2
C. CH4O
D. C2H2O2

A

A. CH2O
Rationale: Methanal, another name for formaldehyde, has the chemical formula CH2O.

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5
Q

Formaldehyde’s action as a sporicidal agent is due to its ability to:

A. Prevent germination
B. Penetrate into bacterial spores
C. Cross-link proteins
D. Increase pH

A

B. Penetrate into bacterial spores
Rationale: Formaldehyde can penetrate deep into bacterial spores, leading to its sporicidal properties.

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6
Q

Which agent is slower in action as a bactericidal, sporicidal, and virucidal compared to glutaraldehyde?

A. Methanol
B. Acetone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Ethanol

A

C. Formaldehyde
Rationale: While both formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde have similar properties, formaldehyde is slower in action compared to glutaraldehyde.

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7
Q

In which concentration range is the formaldehyde solution (Formalin) typically found?

A. 10 - 20%
B. 25 - 30%
C. 34 - 38%
D. 40 - 45%

A

C. 34 - 38%
Rationale: Formalin typically contains 34-38% (wt/wt) CH2O with methanol to prevent polymerization.

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8
Q

The loss of infectivity in viruses when exposed to glutaraldehyde is believed to be associated with changes in the:

A. Genetic material
B. Capsid
C. Enzymatic activity
D. Lipid bilayer

A

B. Capsid
Rationale: It has been inferred that glutaraldehyde-induced loss of infectivity is associated with capsid changes in viruses.

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9
Q

Which of the following is considered a mutagenic agent?

A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Formaldehyde
C. Methanol
D. Acetone

A

B. Formaldehyde
Rationale: Formaldehyde is proposed as a mutagenic agent, indicating its potential to cause mutations in DNA.

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10
Q

Which aldehyde interacts with lysine residues on the surface of hepatitis A virus (HAV)?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Methanal

A

C. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde interacts with lysine residues on the surface of hepatitis A virus (HAV).

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11
Q

For the disinfection of surgical equipment, which agent is preferred?
A. Ethanol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Acetone
D. Methanol

A

B. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is commonly used for the sterilization of endoscopes and surgical equipment due to its effective disinfectant properties.

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12
Q

What is the primary target of glutaraldehyde in fungi?
A. Cell nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell wall

A

D. Cell wall
Rationale: For fungi, the primary target site for glutaraldehyde appears to be the fungal cell wall.

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13
Q

Which disinfectant is often used in operating rooms?
A. Dettol
B. Lysol
C. Cidex
D. Hydrogen Peroxide

A

C. Cidex
Rationale: Cidex, which contains glutaraldehyde, is frequently used as a disinfectant in operating rooms.

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14
Q

Formaldehyde is an alkylating agent that can react with all the following groups EXCEPT:
A. Carboxyl
B. Sulfhydryl
C. Hydroxyl
D. Phosphate

A

D. Phosphate
Rationale: Formaldehyde acts as an alkylating agent, reacting with carboxyl, sulfhydryl, and hydroxyl groups, but not with phosphate groups.

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15
Q

Glutaraldehyde’s mechanism of action on mycobacteria is:
A. Well-understood and defined
B. Likely involves the cell wall
C. Based on pH level interactions
D. Related to its volatility

A

B. Likely involves the cell wall
Rationale: The action of glutaraldehyde on mycobacteria is not clearly defined, but it’s believed to involve interactions with the mycobacterial cell wall.

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16
Q

Which agent is used for the preservation of cadavers?
A. Methanol
B. Acetone
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Formaldehyde

A

D. Formaldehyde
Rationale: Formaldehyde is commonly used for the preservation of cadavers due to its fixative properties.

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17
Q

In which pH range is glutaraldehyde more active?
A. Acidic
B. Neutral
C. Alkaline
D. None of the above

A

C. Alkaline
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is more active at an alkaline pH.

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18
Q

Which agent should not be combined with an acid?
A. Ethanol
B. Formaldehyde
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Acetone

A

C. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde should not be used together with an acid due to its activity being optimized at alkaline pH.

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19
Q

Which compound forms protein-DNA cross-links in SV40 and inhibits DNA synthesis?
A. Methanol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Formaldehyde
D. Ethanol

A

C. Formaldehyde
Rationale: Formaldehyde is known to form protein-DNA cross-links in SV40, which in turn inhibits DNA synthesis.

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20
Q

Glutaraldehyde’s action against bacterial spores at low concentrations is to:
A. Kill them instantly
B. Enhance their germination
C. Inhibit their germination
D. Cause mutation

A

C. Inhibit their germination
Rationale: At low concentrations, glutaraldehyde inhibits the germination of bacterial spores.

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21
Q

Which of the following aldehydes is known to reduce the activity of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)?
A. Formaldehyde
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Methanal

A

B. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde has the property of reducing the activity of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg).

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of glutaraldehyde on non-sporulating bacteria?
A. Cross-linking amino groups in protein
B. Enhancing transport processes into the cell
C. Strong association with outer layers
D. Inhibition of transport processes into cell

A

B. Enhancing transport processes into the cell
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde inhibits transport processes into the cell rather than enhancing them.

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23
Q

Which aldehyde is used in the manufacture of resins and textiles due to its polymerization properties?
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Formaldehyde
D. Propionaldehyde

A

C. Formaldehyde
Rationale: Formaldehyde is used in the production of resins and textiles because of its ability to undergo polymerization.

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24
Q

For the disinfection at low temperatures, which agent is preferred?
A. Ethanol
B. Acetone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Glutaraldehyde

A

D. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is particularly used for low temperature disinfection.

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25
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the action of glutaraldehyde on protozoa?
A. The mechanism of action is well-defined
B. It acts primarily on the protozoan nucleus
C. It enhances the germination of protozoa
D. The mechanism of action is unknown

A

D. The mechanism of action is unknown
Rationale: The exact mechanism by which glutaraldehyde affects protozoa is not clearly understood.

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary action mechanism of Triclocarban (TCC) against bacteria?

A. DNA replication inhibition

B. Protein synthesis disruption

C. Cell wall synthesis inhibition

D. Destruction of the semipermeable character of the cytoplasmic membrane

A

D. Destruction of the semipermeable character of the cytoplasmic membrane

Rationale: TCC acts by adsorbing to and destroying the semipermeable character of the cytoplasmic membrane, leading to bacterial cell death.

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27
Q
  1. Triclocarban (TCC) is most effective against which type of bacteria?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

B. Gram-negative bacteria

C. Both gram-positive and gram-negative equally

D. Neither, it’s an antifungal

A

A. Gram-positive bacteria

Rationale: TCC is particularly active against gram-positive bacteria and less so against gram-negative bacteria.

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28
Q
  1. Triclocarban (TCC) is commonly found in which consumer product?

A. Painkillers

B. Sunscreens

C. Soaps and deodorants

D. Toothpaste

A

C. Soaps and deodorants

Rationale: TCC is extensively used in consumer soaps and deodorants due to its antimicrobial properties.

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29
Q
  1. The outer barrier of a bacterial cell, which TCC targets, is known as:

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Mitochondrial membrane

C. Cytoplasmic membrane

D. Nucleus

A

C. Cytoplasmic membrane

Rationale: TCC targets the cytoplasmic membrane, disrupting its semipermeable nature and leading to bacterial cell death.

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30
Q
  1. Which bacteria possess an additional outer membrane making them more resistant to certain antimicrobials?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

B. Gram-negative bacteria

C. Mycobacteria

D. Spirochetes

A

B. Gram-negative bacteria

Rationale: Gram-negative bacteria have an extra outer membrane that can act as a barrier to many antimicrobial agents.

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31
Q
  1. Prolonged use of antimicrobial agents like TCC can lead to:

A. Enhanced skin moisturization

B. Resistance in bacteria

C. Vitamin synthesis

D. Decreased microbial diversity

A

B. Resistance in bacteria

Rationale: Overuse of antimicrobial agents can lead to the development of resistant bacterial strains.

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32
Q
  1. What property does Triclocarban (TCC) lack for the skin?

A. Moisturizing effect
B. Appreciable substantivity (persistency)
C. UV protection
D. Cooling effect

A

B. Appreciable substantivity (persistency)
Rationale: TCC does not have a long-lasting or persistent effect on the skin.

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33
Q
  1. How does Triclocarban (TCC) induce cell death?

A. By increasing the pH of the cytoplasmic membrane
B. By depriving the cell of nutrients
C. By adsorbing to and destroying the semi-permeable character of the cytoplasmic membrane
D. By inducing DNA damage in the cell

A

C. By adsorbing to and destroying the semi-permeable character of the cytoplasmic membrane
Rationale: TCC’s mechanism of action involves adsorbing to the cytoplasmic membrane and compromising its semi-permeable nature, leading to cell death.

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following products is NOT typically associated with the use of Triclocarban (TCC) ?

A. Shampoos
B. Hand sanitizers
C. Sunscreens
D. Deodorants

A

C. Sunscreens
Rationale: The content provided does not mention sunscreens in relation to TCC, while it does refer to soaps and deodorants, and by extension, products like shampoos and hand sanitizers could potentially contain TCC.

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35
Q
  1. Which biocide is most widely used in antiseptic products?
    a) Alexidine
    b) Chlorhexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

b) Chlorhexidine
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is mentioned as the most widely used biocide in antiseptic products.

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36
Q
  1. Chlorhexidine is not effective against which of the following?
    a) Spores
    b) Lipid-enveloped viruses
    c) Non-enveloped viruses
    d) Mycobacteria
A

a) Spores
Rationale: It’s specified that Chlorhexidine is not sporicidal.

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37
Q
  1. What makes Alexidine chemically distinct from Chlorhexidine?
    a) Ethylhexyl end groups
    b) Lipid envelopes
    c) Polymeric structures
    d) Presence of chlorine
A

a) Ethylhexyl end groups
Rationale: Alexidine differs from Chlorhexidine due to its ethylhexyl terminal groups.

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is used as a contact lens cleanser?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

b) Alexidine
Rationale: Alexidine is noted for its use in contact lens cleansing.

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39
Q
  1. High concentrations of bisbiguanide affect Bacillus spores at…?
    a) Ambient temperatures
    b) Low temperatures
    c) Elevated temperatures
    d) Freezing temperatures
A

c) Elevated temperatures
Rationale: Bisbiguanide has a marked sporicidal effect on Bacillus spores at elevated temperatures.

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40
Q
  1. What is the activity of Chlorhexidine against mycobacteria?
    a) Mycobacteriostatic
    b) Mycobactericidal
    c) Mycobacteria-enhancing
    d) None of the above
A

a) Mycobacteriostatic
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is mycobacteriostatic, meaning it inhibits their growth but doesn’t kill them.

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41
Q
  1. Which disinfectant is commonly used in swimming pools?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

c) Polymeric Biguanides
Rationale: Polymeric Biguanides are noted for their use in swimming pool sanitation.

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42
Q
  1. Which agent has a mechanism causing protoplast and spheroplast lysis in non-sporulating bacteria?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

a) Chlorhexidine
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is a membrane-active agent that causes protoplast and spheroplast lysis in non-sporulating bacteria.

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43
Q
  1. Chlorhexidine’s antiviral activity is primarily active against which viruses?
    a) Non-enveloped viruses
    b) DNA viruses
    c) RNA viruses
    d) Lipid-enveloped viruses
A

d) Lipid-enveloped viruses
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is mainly active against lipid-enveloped viruses.

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a use of Chlorhexidine?
    a) Handwashing
    b) Contact lens cleanser
    c) Oral products
    d) Disinfectant
A

b) Contact lens cleanser
Rationale: Alexidine, not Chlorhexidine, is used as a contact lens cleanser.

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45
Q
  1. Which agent causes intracellular coagulation in yeast?
    a) Chlorhexidine at low concentrations
    b) Chlorhexidine at high concentrations
    c) Alexidine
    d) Vantocil
A

b) Chlorhexidine at high concentrations
Rationale: At high concentrations, Chlorhexidine causes intracellular coagulation in yeast.

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46
Q
  1. What is Vantocil a mixture of?
    a) Polyhexamethylene biguanides (PHMB)
    b) Chlorhexidine derivatives
    c) Alexidine components
    d) Bisbiguanide mixtures
A

a) Polyhexamethylene biguanides (PHMB)
Rationale: Vantocil is a mixture of polyhexamethylene biguanides (PHMB).

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47
Q
  1. What is the effect of Chlorhexidine on bacterial spores?
    a) Sporicidal
    b) Prevents spore development
    c) Enhances spore growth
    d) Both a and b
A

b) Prevents spore development
Rationale: Chlorhexidine inhibits spore development but doesn’t kill them (not sporicidal).

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48
Q
  1. Which biocide is pH dependent and loses efficacy in the presence of organic matter?
    a) Alexidine
    b) Chlorhexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

b) Chlorhexidine
Rationale: Chlorhexidine’s activity is pH-dependent and is greatly reduced in the presence of organic matter.

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following is not inactivated by Chlorhexidine?
    a) Rotavirus
    b) HAV
    c) Lipid-enveloped viruses
    d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa phage F116
A

c) Lipid-enveloped viruses
Rationale: Chlorhexidine does not inactivate non-enveloped viruses like rotavirus and HAV, but is active against lipid-enveloped viruses.

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50
Q
  1. What does a mycobacteriostatic agent do?
    a) Kills mycobacteria
    b) Enhances the growth of mycobacteria
    c) Inhibits the growth of mycobacteria
    d) None of the above
A

c) Inhibits the growth of mycobacteria
Rationale: A mycobacteriostatic agent inhibits the growth of mycobacteria without necessarily killing them.

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51
Q
  1. Which of the following agents causes protoplast rupture and cellular leakage in yeast?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

a) Chlorhexidine
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is a membrane-active agent that causes protoplast rupture and cellular leakage in yeast.

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52
Q
  1. Chlorhexidine displays a variable activity against which microorganisms?
    a) Bacteria
    b) Fungi
    c) Viruses
    d) Protozoa
A

c) Viruses
Rationale: Chlorhexidine’s antiviral activity is described as variable.

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53
Q
  1. Which disinfectant is used in the food industry?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

c) Polymeric Biguanides
Rationale: Polymeric Biguanides are used as disinfectants in the food industry.

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54
Q
  1. Which agent has a fast bactericidal action?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

b) Alexidine
Rationale: Alexidine is described as having faster bactericidal activity.

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55
Q
  1. At what stage does Chlorhexidine inhibit bacterial spores?
    a) Germination
    b) Development
    c) Maturation
    d) Dissemination
A

b) Development
Rationale: Chlorhexidine prevents the development of spores but doesn’t inhibit germination.

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56
Q
  1. Which among the following biocides is used in hospital disinfection?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

d) Vantocil
Rationale: Vantocil, which is a mixture of PHMB, is used in hospitals as a disinfectant.

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57
Q
  1. What is the primary effect of Chlorhexidine on lipid-enveloped viruses?
    a) Enhances viral activity
    b) Inactivates the viruses
    c) No significant effect
    d) Unknown
A

b) Inactivates the viruses
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is mainly active against lipid-enveloped viruses, implying it inactivates them.

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following biocides exhibits a membrane-active mechanism on a wide range of microorganisms?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides
    d) Vantocil
A

a) Chlorhexidine
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is described as a membrane-active agent for several microorganisms, including non-sporulating bacteria and yeast.

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59
Q
  1. In its interaction with E. coli, which disinfectant showcases a specific adsorption to phosphate-containing compounds?
    a) Chlorhexidine
    b) Alexidine
    c) Polymeric Biguanides (PHMB)
    d) Vantocil
A

c) Polymeric Biguanides (PHMB)
Rationale: The sequence of events for PHMB interaction with E. coli includes strong and specific adsorption to phosphate-containing compounds.

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following is widely used for hard surface disinfection?

A)N-chloro compounds

B) Sodium dichloroisocyanurate

C) Sodium hypochlorite

D) Chloramine - T

A

C) Sodium hypochlorite

Rationale: Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used for hard surface disinfection and is a primary component in household bleach.

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61
Q
  1. Which halogen-releasing agent is effective against spillages containing HIV or HBV?

A) Chloramine - T

B) Sodium hypochlorite

C) Chlorine dioxide

D) Iodine

A

B) Sodium hypochlorite

Rationale: Sodium hypochlorite is effective in disinfecting spills that may contain viruses like HIV or HBV.

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62
Q
  1. What type of agent is sodium dichloroisocyanurate?

A) Iodophor

B) N-chloro compound

C) Tincture

D) Oxidizing agent

A

B) N-chloro compound

Rationale: Sodium dichloroisocyanurate is an N-chloro compound.

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63
Q
  1. How do chlorine-releasing agents destroy microbes?

A) Decrease cellular pH

B) Disrupt cellular DNA

C) Oxidize cellular proteins

D) Dehydrate the cell

A

C) Oxidize cellular proteins

Rationale: Chlorine-releasing agents are strong oxidizing agents that target and destroy the cellular activities of proteins.

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64
Q
  1. Which halogen-releasing agent has been used as an antiseptic for over 150 years?

A) Iodophor

B) Sodium hypochlorite

C) Iodine

D) Chloramine - T

A

C) Iodine

Rationale: Both aqueous and alcoholic solutions (tinctures) of iodine have a long-standing history of use as antiseptics.

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65
Q
  1. What is the primary disadvantage of using aqueous solutions of iodine?

A) They are highly reactive.

B) They are unstable.

C) They are not effective against fungi.

D) They can bleach surfaces.

A

B) They are unstable.

Rationale: Aqueous solutions of iodine are generally unstable.

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66
Q
  1. Which amino acids does iodine specifically react with?

A) Lysine and arginine

B) Alanine and glycine

C) Cysteine and methionine

D) Proline and serine

A

C) Cysteine and methionine

Rationale: Iodine particularly reacts with free-sulfur amino acids, namely cysteine and methionine.

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67
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a chlorine-releasing agent?

A) Sodium dichloroisocyanurate

B) Chloramine - T

C) Povidone-iodine

D) Sodium hypochlorite

A

C) Povidone-iodine

Rationale: Povidone-iodine is an iodophor, not a chlorine-releasing agent.

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68
Q
  1. Iodophors are developed as iodine carriers to overcome which problem of iodine?

A) Inefficiency

B) Irritation and staining

C) High cost

D) Limited availability

A

B) Irritation and staining

Rationale: Iodophors were designed to address issues like irritation and staining associated with direct iodine use.

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69
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary mechanism of iodine against viruses?

A) Disrupts DNA replication

B) Disrupts surface proteins

C) Oxidizes the cell

D) Increases cellular pH

A

B) Disrupts surface proteins

Rationale: For enveloped viruses, iodine likely affects surface proteins, though it can also interfere with unsaturated bonds in membrane fatty acids.

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70
Q
  1. Chlorine dioxide is a type of:

A) Iodophor

B) Oxidizing agent

C) Tincture

D) N-chloro compound

A

B) Oxidizing agent

Rationale: Chlorine dioxide is a chlorine-releasing agent, which are typically oxidizing agents.

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71
Q
  1. Iodine attacks which part of the viruses?

A) The DNA core

B) The RNA core

C) The lipid bilayer

D) The surface proteins

A

D) The surface proteins

Rationale: Iodine likely disrupts the surface proteins of enveloped viruses.

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72
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered less active against certain fungi and spores compared to tinctures?

A) Chlorine dioxide

B) Sodium hypochlorite

C) Povidone-iodine

D) Chloramine - T

A

C) Povidone-iodine

Rationale: While iodophors retain the germicidal activity of iodine, they are considered slightly less effective against specific fungi and spores compared to tinctures.

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73
Q
  1. Which halogen-releasing agent can cause irritation and excessive staining?

A) Sodium dichloroisocyanurate

B) Chloramine - T

C) Iodine

D) Chlorine dioxide

A

C) Iodine

Rationale: Iodine is associated with irritation and excessive staining.

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74
Q
  1. The problems associated with iodine were resolved with the introduction of:

A) Tinctures

B) Chlorine dioxide

C) Iodophors

D) Sodium hypochlorite

A

C) Iodophors

Rationale: Iodophors, like povidone-iodine, were developed to address the limitations of direct iodine use.

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75
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a property of iodine?

A) Bactericidal

B) Oxidizing

C) Virucidal

D) Fungicidal

A

B) Oxidizing

Rationale: Iodine possesses :
-bactericidal,
-fungicidal,
-tuberculocidal,
-virucidal,
-sporicidal
properties but is not primarily described as an oxidizing agent in this context.

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76
Q
  1. What happens to bacterial spores during treatment with chlorine-releasing agents at higher concentrations?

A) The spores increase in size.

B) The spores multiply.

C) The spores lose refractivity and undergo lysis.

D) The spores form a protective layer.

A

C) The spores lose refractivity and undergo lysis.

Rationale: At elevated concentrations of chlorine-releasing agents, bacterial spores lose refractivity, their coats separate from the cortex, and they undergo lysis.

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77
Q
  1. Which of the following iodophors is widely used as antiseptics and disinfectants?

A) Poloxamer-iodine

B) Povidone-iodine

C) Both A and B

D) Neither A nor B

A

C) Both A and B

Rationale: Both povidone-iodine and poloxamer-iodine are widely used iodophors for antiseptic and disinfectant purposes.

78
Q
  1. Iodine primarily reacts with which component in the cell leading to cell death?

A) Nucleotides

B) Carbohydrates

C) Fatty acids

D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

Rationale: Iodine rapidly penetrates into microorganisms, affecting key groups of proteins and reacting with nucleotides, fatty acids, and specific amino acids, leading to cell death.

79
Q

Which ion in silver compounds plays an essential role in bacterial inactivation?
a) SO₄²⁻
b) NO₃⁻
c) Ag⁺
d) Na⁺

A

c) Ag⁺
Rationale: Silver ions (Ag⁺) have a strong affinity for thiol groups in enzymes and proteins, leading to bacterial inactivation.

80
Q

Silver nitrate can be used to treat:
a) Cold
b) Warts
c) Tuberculosis
d) Malaria

A

b) Warts
Rationale: High concentrations of silver nitrate can act as a chemical cautery agent and treat warts.

81
Q

Silver salts inhibit the growth of fungi by:
a) Increasing the water content
b) Binding to key functional groups of fungal enzymes
c) Introducing oxygen
d) Providing essential nutrients

A

b) Binding to key functional groups of fungal enzymes
Rationale: Silver salts can bind to key functional groups in fungal enzymes, rendering them non-functional.

82
Q

Silver Sulfadiazine (AgSD) combines which two bacterial agents?
a) Ag⁺ and Sodium
b) Ag⁺ and sulfadiazine (SD)
c) Ag⁺ and nitrate
d) Sodium and sulfadiazine

A

b) Ag⁺ and sulfadiazine (SD)
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is a combination of silver ion (Ag⁺) and sulfadiazine (SD).

83
Q

Which of the following bacteria is inhibited by Ag+ through cell division disruption?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Bacillus subtilis

A

c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Rationale: Ag⁺ acts to inhibit cell division and cause damage to the cell envelope and its contents of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

84
Q

Silver sulfadiazine is primarily used in topical creams for preventing infections in:
a) Fractures
b) Stomach ulcers
c) Burns and wounds
d) Cold and flu

A

c) Burns and wounds
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is widely recognized for its effectiveness in preventing infections in burns and wounds.

85
Q

Bacterial inhibition by AgSD is achieved when Ag+ binds to:
a) Lipids
b) Proteins
c) Base pairs in the DNA helix
d) Carbohydrates

A

c) Base pairs in the DNA helix
Rationale: Bacterial inhibition occurs when Ag+ binds to a significant number of base pairs in the DNA helix.

86
Q

Neosporin contains which silver compound for its antimicrobial properties?
a) Silver nitrate
b) Silver chloride
c) Silver bromide
d) Silver sulfadiazine

A

d) Silver sulfadiazine
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is commonly used in topical creams like Neosporin.

87
Q

Which property of silver nitrate allows it to treat chancre sores in the mouth?
a) Its protein synthesis property
b) Its carbohydrate breakdown property
c) Its protein coagulation property
d) Its lipid emulsification property

A

c) Its protein coagulation property
Rationale: Silver nitrate can act as a chemical cautery agent due to its protein coagulation property.

88
Q

Silver nitrate can be found in the form of:
a) Pills
b) Injections
c) Sprays
d) Inhalers

A

c) Sprays
Rationale: Silver nitrate is available in forms such as sprays and sticks.

89
Q

Which functional groups in enzymes and proteins do silver ions specifically target?
a) Amino groups
b) Hydroxyl groups
c) Thiol groups
d) Phosphate groups

A

c) Thiol groups
Rationale: Silver ions (Ag⁺) have a strong affinity for thiol groups in enzymes and proteins.

90
Q

Which compound has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity?
a) Silver chloride
b) Silver bromide
c) Silver sulfadiazine
d) Silver oxide

A

c) Silver sulfadiazine
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is recognized for its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity.

91
Q

For which application is silver nitrate NOT typically used?
a) Cauterizing wounds
b) Treating warts
c) Fungal infections
d) Treating burns

A

c) Fungal infections
Rationale: While silver nitrate can be used for cauterizing wounds and treating warts, it’s not specifically known for treating fungal infections.

92
Q

Flamazine contains which silver compound?
a) Silver nitrate
b) Silver oxide
c) Silver chloride
d) Silver sulfadiazine

A

d) Silver sulfadiazine
Rationale: Flamazine is a topical cream that contains silver sulfadiazine.

93
Q

Silver sulfadiazine works against susceptible bacteria by producing:
a) Deep internal cellular damage
b) Surface and membrane bles
c) Nuclear breakdown
d) Protein denaturation

A

b) Surface and membrane bles
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine produces bles on the surface and membrane of susceptible bacteria.

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of silver compounds?
a) Binding to DNA
b) Inhibiting cell division
c) Increasing bacterial replication
d) Damaging the cell envelope

A

c) Increasing bacterial replication
Rationale: Silver compounds act to inhibit bacteria, not promote their replication.

95
Q

Which heavy metal, along with silver salts, binds to functional groups of fungal enzymes?
a) Gold
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Zinc

A

c) Copper
Rationale: Along with silver salts, copper binds to key functional groups of fungal enzymes.

96
Q

What is the effect of Ag+ on the DNA of bacteria when using Silver Sulfadiazine (AgSD)?
a) Enhances replication
b) Binds to base pairs inhibiting transcription
c) Increases mutation rate
d) Acts as a protective shield

A

b) Binds to base pairs inhibiting transcription
Rationale: Bacterial inhibition

97
Q

Which of the following plays a crucial role in bacterial inactivation by silver nitrate?
a. Ag+ interaction with hydroxyl groups
b. Ag+ interaction with carboxyl groups
c. Ag+ interaction with thiol groups in enzymes
d. Ag+ interaction with amine groups

A

c. Ag+ interaction with thiol groups in enzymes
Rationale: Silver ions have a strong affinity for thiol groups, which when disrupted leads to bacterial inactivation.

98
Q

Silver nitrate can be used to treat:
a. Common cold
b. Warts
c. Bone fractures
d. Hair loss

A

b. Warts
Rationale: Silver nitrate’s protein coagulation property allows it to act as a chemical cautery agent for warts.

99
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of silver nitrate?
a. Bacterial inactivation
b. Fungicidal activity
c. Boosting immune response
d. Cell division inhibition in certain bacteria

A

c. Boosting immune response
Rationale: Silver nitrate has antimicrobial properties but doesn’t boost the immune response.

100
Q

Silver sulfadiazine inhibits bacterial replication by binding to:
a. Cell membrane
b. RNA
c. Proteins
d. DNA

A

d. DNA
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine inhibits bacterial replication by binding to DNA base pairs, which inhibits transcription.

101
Q

Neosporin, used to prevent infections in wounds, contains:
a. Silver Acetate
b. Silver Sulfadiazine
c. Silver Nitrate
d. Silver Chloride

A

b. Silver Sulfadiazine
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is a primary component in topical creams like Neosporin.

102
Q

Silver salts inhibit fungal growth by:
a. Increasing humidity
b. Decreasing temperature
c. Binding to functional groups of fungal enzymes
d. Introducing oxygen

A

c. Binding to functional groups of fungal enzymes
Rationale: Silver salts act on the functional groups of fungal enzymes, rendering them non-functional.

103
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is particularly vulnerable to which silver compound?
a. Silver Acetate
b. Silver Phosphate
c. Silver Nitrate
d. Silver Sulfate

A

c. Silver Nitrate
Rationale: Silver nitrate acts to inhibit cell division and damages the cell contents of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

104
Q

Which bacterial agent is combined with Ag+ in Silver Sulfadiazine?
a. Sulfate
b. Sulfite
c. Sulfadiazine
d. Sulfonate

A

c. Sulfadiazine
Rationale: Silver Sulfadiazine is a combination of Ag+ and Sulfadiazine (SD).

105
Q

Silver nitrate, at high concentrations, has the property of:
a. Protein digestion
b. Protein synthesis
c. Protein coagulation
d. Protein transportation

A

c. Protein coagulation
Rationale: Due to its protein coagulation property, silver nitrate can act as a chemical cautery agent.

106
Q

Which of the following metals also binds to key functional groups of fungal enzymes like silver salts do?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Magnesium

A

c. Copper
Rationale: Both silver salts and other heavy metals like copper bind to key functional groups of fungal enzymes.

107
Q

For what primary purpose is Flamazine used?
a. Easing muscle pain
b. Reducing blood pressure
c. Preventing infections in burns and wounds
d. Treating insomnia

A

c. Preventing infections in burns and wounds
Rationale: Flamazine contains silver sulfadiazine, which is primarily used for its effectiveness in preventing infections in burns and wounds.

108
Q

Silver sulfadiazine produces bles on the membrane of:
a. Resistant bacteria
b. Susceptible bacteria
c. All fungi
d. Viruses

A

b. Susceptible bacteria
Rationale: Unlike silver nitrate, silver sulfadiazine produces bles on the surface and membrane of susceptible bacteria.

109
Q

Which group does Ag+ primarily bind to in bacterial inactivation?
a. Hydroxyl
b. Carboxyl
c. Thiol
d. Amine

A

c. Thiol
Rationale: Ag+ has a strong affinity for thiol groups in enzymes and proteins, leading to bacterial inactivation.

110
Q

Silver nitrate can be effectively used as a:
a. Sunscreen
b. Chemical cautery
c. Sedative
d. Muscle relaxant

A

b. Chemical cautery
Rationale: Silver nitrate can burn warts and treat sores due to its protein coagulation property.

111
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which silver compounds act?
a. Boosting immune response
b. Binding to DNA
c. Interacting with thiol groups
d. Binding to functional groups of enzymes

A

a. Boosting immune response
Rationale: Silver compounds have antimicrobial properties but they don’t boost the immune response.

112
Q

Which bacteria’s cell envelope and contents are damaged by Ag+?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Rationale: Silver nitrate acts to inhibit cell division and damages the cell contents of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

113
Q

Which compound has broad spectrum activity against various pathogens?
a. Silver Chloride
b. Silver Phosphate
c. Silver Sulfadiazine
d. Silver Acetate

A

c. Silver Sulfadiazine
Rationale: Silver Sulfadiazine is known for its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity.

114
Q

Which silver compound is often used in sticks or sprays?
a. Silver Sulfadiazine
b. Silver Chloride
c. Silver Nitrate
d. Silver Acetate

A

c. Silver Nitrate
Rationale: Silver nitrate is available in various forms, including sticks and sprays.

115
Q

Silver sulfadiazine’s mechanism involves:
a. Boosting immune response
b. Binding to RNA
c. Preventing ATP synthesis
d. Inhibiting transcription by binding to DNA

A

d. Inhibiting transcription by binding to DNA
Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine binds to DNA base pairs, which in turn inhibits transcription and thus stops bacterial replication.

116
Q

What is the effect of Ag+ on the DNA of bacteria when using Silver Sulfadiazine (AgSD)?
a) Enhances replication
b) Binds to base pairs inhibiting transcription
c) Increases mutation rate
d) Acts as a protective shield

A

b) Binds to base pairs inhibiting transcription
Rationale: Bacterial inhibition occurs when Ag+ binds to a significant number of base pairs in the DNA helix, which in turn inhibits transcription.

117
Q
  1. Which compound is extensively employed for disinfection and sterilization?
    A. Peracetic acid
    B. Phenol
    C. Hydrogen peroxide
    D. Ethanol
A

C. Hydrogen peroxide
Rationale: The text mentions that hydrogen peroxide is widely used for disinfection, sterilization, and antisepsis.

118
Q
  1. What concentrations of hydrogen peroxide are required for sporicidal activity?
    A. 1-5%
    B. 3-7%
    C. 10-30%
    D. 40-50%
A

C. 10-30%
To achieve sporicidal activity, higher concentrations between 10-30% and prolonged contact times are needed. This efficacy is markedly amplified in its gaseous phase.

119
Q
  1. How does hydrogen peroxide primarily function as an antimicrobial agent?
    A. Inducing coagulation of cell contents
    B. Producing hydroxyl free radicals
    C. Extracting water from microbes
    D. Increasing cellular pH
A

B. Producing hydroxyl free radicals
Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide acts as an oxidant by producing hydroxyl free radicals that target essential cell structures.

120
Q
  1. Which compound is known to be more potent than hydrogen peroxide as a biocide?
    A. Ethanol
    B. Phenol
    C. Peracetic acid
    D. Hydrochloric acid
A

C. Peracetic acid
Rationale: The text mentions that peracetic acid is a stronger biocide compared to hydrogen peroxide.

121
Q
  1. In which of the following settings is peracetic acid NOT mentioned as a disinfectant?
    A. Schools
    B. Wineries
    C. Playgrounds
    D. Hospitals
A

C. Playgrounds
Rationale: The text does not list playgrounds as a place where peracetic acid is used as a disinfectant.

122
Q
  1. Which compound induces the release of potassium as an early sign of membrane impairment?
    A. Peracetic acid
    B. Phenol
    C. Ethanol
    D. Hydrogen peroxide
A

B. Phenol

123
Q
  1. What byproducts are produced when hydrogen peroxide degrades?
    A. Water and carbon dioxide
    B. Water and oxygen
    C. Nitrogen and oxygen
    D. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
A

B. Water and oxygen
Rationale: The text mentions that hydrogen peroxide decomposes into water and oxygen.

124
Q
  1. For what specific ailment is hydrogen peroxide particularly effective as a preventive measure?
    A. Flu
    B. Tetanus
    C. Measles
    D. Malaria
A

B. Tetanus
Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide is efficacious in preventing tetanus due to its sporicidal properties against Clostridium tetani.

125
Q
  1. At what concentrations is peracetic acid effective against a variety of microbes?
    A. Below 1%
    B. Below 0.3%
    C. 3-5%
    D. 10-30%
A

B. Below 0.3%
Rationale: The text mentions that peracetic acid is effective at concentrations below 0.3%.

126
Q
  1. What is a primary target of hydrogen peroxide when it disrupts cell structures?
    A. Carbohydrates
    B. Exposed sulfhydryl groups and double bonds
    C. Amino acids
    D. Cell walls
A

B. Exposed sulfhydryl groups and double bonds
Rationale: Research suggests that exposed sulfhydryl groups and double bonds are primary targets of hydrogen peroxide.

127
Q
  1. Which compound is NOT considered environmentally benign when it degrades?
    A. Peracetic acid
    B. Phenol
    C. Hydrogen peroxide
    D. Ethanol
A

B. Phenol
Rationale: The text mentions hydrogen peroxide as environmentally benign because it decomposes into water and oxygen. Phenol was not mentioned in this context.

128
Q
  1. Which microorganism is NOT mentioned to be targeted by hydrogen peroxide?
    A. Bacteria
    B. Viruses
    C. Protozoa
    D. Yeasts
A

C. Protozoa
Rationale: Exhibits broad-spectrum effectiveness against a variety of microbes, including bacteria, bacterial spores, viruses, and yeasts.
Particularly efficacious in preventing tetanus due to its sporicidal properties against Clostridium tetani.

129
Q
  1. In recent times, peracetic acid has been appreciated for its use in what application?
    A. Pool cleaning
    B. Drinking water purification
    C. Wastewater treatment
    D. Airing out indoor spaces
A

C. Wastewater treatment
Rationale: Peracetic acid has been recognized for its utility as a water purifier in wastewater treatments.

130
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of phenols at elevated concentrations?
    A. Inducing coagulation of cell contents
    B. Producing hydroxyl free radicals
    C. Causing irreversible cellular harm
    D. Increasing cellular pH
A

B. Producing hydroxyl free radicals
Rationale: Phenols at high concentrations cause coagulation of cellular contents, leading to irreversible cellular harm. They don’t produce hydroxyl free radicals.

131
Q
  1. What compound is employed for low-temperature liquid sterilization of medical devices?
    A. Hydrogen peroxide
    B. Phenol
    C. Ethanol
    D. Peracetic acid
A

D. Peracetic acid
Rationale: Peracetic acid is used for low-temperature liquid sterilization of medical devices.

132
Q
  1. Which microorganism is hydrogen peroxide sporicidal against, making it effective in preventing a specific ailment?
    A. Escherichia coli
    B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    C. Clostridium tetani
    D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

C. Clostridium tetani
Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide is sporicidal against Clostridium tetani, which causes tetanus.

133
Q
  1. What is the chemical structure of peracetic acid?
    A. CH3CH2OH
    B. C6H5OH
    C. CH3COOH
    D. CH3COOOH
A

D. CH3COOOH
Rationale: The chemical structure of peracetic acid is given as CH3COOOH.

134
Q
  1. Hydrogen peroxide has a broad-spectrum efficacy against which of the following?
    A. Only bacteria
    B. Only viruses
    C. Bacteria and yeasts
    D. Bacteria, bacterial spores, viruses, and yeasts
A

D. Bacteria, bacterial spores, viruses, and yeasts
Rationale: The text mentions that hydrogen peroxide has broad-spectrum effectiveness against a variety of microbes, including bacteria, bacterial spores, viruses, and yeasts.

135
Q
  1. Which compound is NOT mentioned as a disinfectant for food processing equipment during pasteurization?
    A. Ethanol
    B. Peracetic acid
    C. Phenol
    D. Hydrogen peroxide
A

C. Phenol
Rationale: The text mentions peracetic acid as a sanitizing agent for food processing during processes like pasteurization.

136
Q
  1. Which compound functions by producing hydroxyl free radicals that target and disrupt essential cell structures?
    A. Phenol
    B. Peracetic acid
    C. Ethanol
    D. Hydrogen peroxide
A

D. Hydrogen peroxide
Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide functions as an oxidant by producing hydroxyl free radicals that target essential cell structures.

137
Q
  1. Phenols induce the release of which ion as an early sign of membrane damage?
    A. Sodium (Na+)
    B. Calcium (Ca2+)
    C. Magnesium (Mg2+)
    D. Potassium (K+)
A

D. Potassium (K+)
Rationale: The text specifies that phenols induce the release of potassium (K+), indicating membrane damage.

138
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the action of phenols at higher concentrations on cell constituents?
    A. Stimulation of cell growth
    B. Induction of cell mutation
    C. Coagulation of cytoplasmic constituents
    D. Cell wall reinforcement
A

C. Coagulation of cytoplasmic constituents
Rationale: At elevated concentrations, phenols lead to the coagulation of cellular contents.

139
Q
  1. What is the outcome of the coagulation of cellular contents by phenols?
    A. Temporary cellular malfunction
    B. Cellular rejuvenation
    C. Irreversible cellular damage
    D. Temporary cellular hibernation
A

C. Irreversible cellular damage
Rationale: The coagulation of cellular contents by phenols results in irreversible cellular harm.

140
Q

What is the chemical name for Triclosan?

a) 2,2,4-Trihydroxydiphenyl ether
b) Irgasan DP 100
c) 2,4,4’-trichloro-2’-hydroxydiphenyl ether
d) Irgasafe

A

c) 2,4,4’-trichloro-2’-hydroxydiphenyl ether
Rationale: Triclosan is chemically known as 2,4,4’-trichloro-2’-hydroxydiphenyl ether.

141
Q

Triclosan exhibits particular activity against which type of bacteria?

a) Gram-negative bacteria
b) Gram-positive bacteria
c) Yeasts
d) Viruses

A

b) Gram-positive bacteria
Rationale: Triclosan is particularly active against gram-positive bacteria.

142
Q

Which combination increases the permeability of bacterial outer membranes?

a) Triclosan and sodium fluoride
b) Triclosan and EDTA
c) Triclosan and alcohol
d) Triclosan and chlorhexidine

A

b) Triclosan and EDTA
Rationale: When combined with EDTA, triclosan increases the permeability of bacterial outer membranes.

143
Q

Hexachlorophene inhibits which part of the bacterial cell?

a) Cytoplasm
b) Cell wall
c) Ribosomes
d) Electron transport chain

A

d) Electron transport chain
Rationale: Hexachlorophene is known to inhibit the membrane-bound part of the electron transport chain.

144
Q

Which product contains Triclosan?

a) Colgate
b) pHisoHex
c) Safeguard
d) Dove

A

c) Safeguard
Rationale: Safeguard is a product known to contain Triclosan.

145
Q

The primary effects of Triclosan are believed to be on the:

a) Nuclear membrane
b) Mitochondria
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Cytoplasmic membrane

A

d) Cytoplasmic membrane
Rationale: It’s suggested that the primary effects of Triclosan are on the cytoplasmic

146
Q

What potential side effect is associated with Triclosan?

a) Enhancing vitamin absorption
b) Causing hay fever
c) Stimulating hair growth
d) Improving digestion

A

b) Causing hay fever
Rationale: Triclosan has been associated with allergies and hay fever.

147
Q

Hexachlorophene has raised concerns due to potential toxicity in:

a) Adults
b) Adolescents
c) Neonates
d) Senior citizens

A

c) Neonates
Rationale: There have been concerns about Hexachlorophene’s toxicity, especially in neonates.

148
Q

Toothpaste without Triclosan typically contains which antibacterial agent?

a) Sodium fluoride
b) Stannous fluoride
c) Chlorhexidine
d) Calcium fluoride

A

b) Stannous fluoride
Rationale: Toothpaste without Triclosan often contains stannous fluoride as an antibacterial agent.

149
Q

Which activity does Hexachlorophene NOT exhibit?

a) Inducing leakage in cells
b) Inhibiting respiration
c) Promoting cell division
d) Leading to protoplast lysis

A

c) Promoting cell division
Rationale: Hexachlorophene causes leakage, inhibits respiration, and leads to protoplast lysis but does not promote cell division.

150
Q

Which of the following products does NOT contain Hexachlorophene?

a) Antibacterial soaps
b) pHisoHex
c) Shaving creams
d) Moisturizing lotions

A

d) Moisturizing lotions
Rationale: Hexachlorophene is used in antibacterial soaps, pHisoHex, and shaving creams, but not typically in moisturizing lotions.

151
Q

In studies with E. coli, Triclosan at subinhibitory concentrations inhibits the uptake of:

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Essential nutrients
d) Water

A

c) Essential nutrients
Rationale: At subinhibitory concentrations, Triclosan has been found to inhibit the uptake of essential nutrients in E. coli.

152
Q

Hexachlorophene’s usage in antiseptic products is restricted due to:

a) Limited efficacy
b) High cost
c) Concerns about toxicity
d) Limited availability

A

c) Concerns about toxicity
Rationale: Due to concerns about its potential toxicity, especially in neonates, Hexachlorophene’s usage in antiseptic products is limited.

153
Q

Which of the following is a potential risk of using toothpaste with Triclosan?

a) Enhanced digestion
b) Increased antibacterial resistance
c) Improved memory
d) Reduced dental plaque

A

b) Increased antibacterial resistance
Rationale: Using antibacterial toothpaste containing Triclosan can potentially increase the risk of developing antibacterial resistance.

154
Q

Hexachlorophene causes leakage in:

a) Viruses
b) Fungi
c) Animal cells
d) Bacterial cells

A

d) Bacterial cells
Rationale: Hexachlorophene induces leakage in bacterial cells.

155
Q

At higher concentrations, Triclosan causes:

a) Cell proliferation
b) Cell dormancy
c) Rapid release of cellular components and cell death
d) Increase in cell size

A

c) Rapid release of cellular components and cell death
Rationale: At bactericidal concentrations, Triclosan causes rapid release of cellular components, leading to cell death.

156
Q

Triclosan has been linked to:

a) Bone strength increase
b) Allergies and hay fever
c) Improved eyesight
d) Hair darkening

A

b) Allergies and hay fever
Rationale: Triclosan has been associated with allergies and hay fever.

157
Q

Hexachlorophene inhibits which process in bacteria?

a) Reproduction
b) Digestion
c) Respiration
d) Motion

A

c) Respiration
Rationale: Hexachlorophene inhibits respiration in bacteria.

158
Q

Triclosan remains in the:

a) Urine for a short time
b) Blood for an extended period
c) Saliva for a week
d) Stomach for a few hours

A

b) Blood for an extended period
Rationale: Triclosan has the potential to remain in the blood for extended periods.

159
Q

Which product is NOT associated with Triclosan?

a) Cetaphil
b) Safeguard
c) Dove
d) Antibacterial toothpaste

A

c) Dove
Rationale: Dove is not known to contain Triclosan.

160
Q

What are Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (QACs) also known as?

A) Anionic detergents
B) Cationic detergents
C) Nonionic detergents
D) Zwitterionic detergents

A

B) Cationic detergents
Rationale: QACs have a positive charge, thus they are termed as ‘cationic’.

161
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common use for QACs in clinical settings?

A) Preoperative disinfection of unbroken skin
B) Disinfection of drinking water
C) Application to mucous membrane
D) Disinfection of noncritical surfaces

A

B) Disinfection of drinking water
Rationale: QACs are mainly used for surface disinfection and not typically for disinfecting drinking water.

162
Q

QACs are particularly effective at…

A) Oxidizing metals
B) Hard-surface cleaning and deodorization
C) Acting as a buffering agent
D) Neutralizing acids

A

B) Hard-surface cleaning and deodorization
Rationale: QACs are renowned for their hard-surface cleaning and deodorizing properties.

163
Q

What primarily facilitates the binding of QACs to microbial cells?

A) Hydrogen bonding
B) Opposite charge attraction
C) Covalent bonding
D) van der Waals forces

A

B) Opposite charge attraction
Rationale: The positive charge of QACs allows them to bind with negatively charged microbial cell surfaces.

164
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the mode of action of QACs on bacteria?

A) Oxidation of cellular proteins
B) Leakage of intracellular materials
C) Adsorption to the cell wall
D) Reaction with the cytoplasmic membrane

A

A) Oxidation of cellular proteins
Rationale: QACs do not oxidize cellular proteins. They cause leakage, adsorption, and react with the membrane.

165
Q

QACs are considered to be:

A) Broad-spectrum antimicrobials
B) Effective only against viruses
C) Effective only against fungi
D) Narrow-spectrum antimicrobials

A

A) Broad-spectrum antimicrobials
Rationale: QACs are effective against a wide range of microorganisms, hence termed broad-spectrum.

166
Q

Which property makes QACs useful in many commercial fabric softeners?

A) Their oxidizing nature
B) Their cationic nature
C) Their anionic nature
D) Their zwitterionic nature

A

B) Their cationic nature
Rationale: The cationic nature of QACs allows them to neutralize the negative charge on fibers, resulting in a softer feel.

167
Q

Which microorganisms are known to exhibit some resistance against QACs?

A) Gram-negative bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Fungi
D) Gram-positive bacteria

A

A) Gram-negative bacteria
Rationale: The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria can provide some protection against QACs.

168
Q

Which of the following is a potential side effect of overusing QACs?

A) Reduced microbial resistance
B) Enhanced microbial growth
C) Increased microbial resistance
D) No change in microbial properties

A

C) Increased microbial resistance
Rationale: Overuse of any antimicrobial can lead to increased resistance among microorganisms.

169
Q

In which of the following environments would the effectiveness of QACs likely be reduced?

A) In the presence of organic matter
B) On hard surfaces
C) On unbroken skin
D) On mucous membranes

A

A) In the presence of organic matter
Rationale: Organic matter can interfere with the activity of QACs, reducing their effectiveness.

170
Q

What type of charge do Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (QACs) possess that allows them to interact with microbial cell surfaces?

A. Neutral
B. Anionic (negative)
C. Cationic (positive)
D. Both Anionic and Cationic

A

C. Cationic (positive)

Rationale: QACs are termed as cationic detergents, which means they possess a positive charge. This positive charge allows them to effectively bind to and interact with the negatively charged surfaces of many microbial cells.

171
Q

Which of the following is NOT a noted application of QACs?

A. Preoperative disinfection of unbroken skin
B. Dehydration of organic materials
C. Hard-surface cleaning
D. Deodorization

A

B. Dehydration of organic materials

Rationale: While QACs are known for disinfection, hard-surface cleaning, and deodorization, there’s no mention in the provided information that they are used for the dehydration of organic materials.

172
Q

In the mechanism of action of QACs against microorganisms, what occurs after the membrane disorganization?

A. Adsorption to the cell wall
B. Leakage of intracellular low-molecular-weight material
C. Degradation of proteins
D. Binding with autolytic enzymes

A

B. Leakage of intracellular low-molecular-weight material

Rationale: Once the QACs have penetrated and caused disorganization of the microbial cell membrane, the next step is the leakage of intracellular components, particularly those of low molecular weight. This leakage is indicative of the loss of cellular integrity, leading to the cell’s eventual death.

173
Q

Which component of the microbial cell is most directly affected by QACs leading to membrane disorganization?

A. Cytoplasmic content
B. Nucleic acids
C. Cytoplasmic membrane
D. Autolytic enzymes

A

C. Cytoplasmic membrane

Rationale: QACs target the cytoplasmic membrane of the microbial cell. By reacting with the lipid or protein components of this membrane, they cause its disorganization. This is a crucial step in their antimicrobial action, leading to a cascade of events that culminate in the death of the microbial cell.

174
Q

Which of the following brands is often associated with bleach but might also manufacture products with QACs?

A. Dettol
B. Lysol
C. Johnson & Johnson
D. Chlorox (Clorox)

A

D. Chlorox (Clorox)

Rationale: Chlorox (or Clorox) is a brand predominantly known for its bleach-based products. However, like many major cleaning product manufacturers, they have diversified their product range and could potentially produce cleaning agents with other active ingredients, such as QACs.

175
Q

Which of the following is a vapor-phase sterilant?

A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Povidone-iodine

A

B. Ethylene oxide

176
Q

What are vapor-phase sterilants particularly useful for?

A. Drinking water purification
B. Sterilizing heat-sensitive medical devices
C. Hand sanitization
D. Wound cleaning

A

B. Sterilizing heat-sensitive medical devices
Rationale: Vapor-phase sterilants are ideal for heat-sensitive items that cannot withstand traditional heat sterilization.

177
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action for alkylating agents?

A. DNA disruption
B. Protein denaturation
C. Reacting with sulfhydryl groups
D. Oxidation of metals

A

D. Oxidation of metals
Rationale: Alkylating agents attack organic compounds like DNA and proteins but do not typically oxidize metals.

178
Q

What is a disadvantage of using ethylene oxide as a sterilant?

A. It is non-explosive
B. It is non-mutagenic
C. It can be corrosive
D. It may leave toxic residues

A

D. It may leave toxic residues
Rationale: Ethylene oxide can leave behind toxic residues if not properly aerated after sterilization.

179
Q

Why is formaldehyde gas not widely used in healthcare for sterilization?

A. It is explosive
B. It is non-effective
C. It has potential health effects
D. It is costly

A

C. It has potential health effects
Rationale: Concerns related to health effects limit the widespread use of formaldehyde gas in healthcare settings.

180
Q

Which of the following sterilants is considered more potent in vapor form than in liquid form?

A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Sodium hypochlorite
C. PAA (peracetic acid)
D. Povidone-iodine

A

C. PAA (peracetic acid)
Rationale: PAA is considered more potent as an oxidizing agent in its vapor form than in its liquid form.

181
Q

Which compound, when used as a vapor-phase sterilant, is often paired with gas plasma in low-temperature sterilization systems?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Ethanol

A

B. Hydrogen peroxide
Rationale: Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide is commonly used in combination with gas plasma in low-temperature sterilization systems.

182
Q

Which of the following enzyme-reactive groups do alkylating agents react with?

A. Hydroxyl
B. Carboxyl
C. Sulfhydryl
D. Phosphate

A

C. Sulfhydryl
Rationale: Alkylating agents are particularly reactive with sulfhydryl and other enzyme-reactive groups.

183
Q

Vapor-phase sterilants are preferable for heat-sensitive items because they:

A. Can be used at high temperatures
B. Act slowly for precision
C. Are always non-toxic
D. Operate at lower temperatures

A

D. Operate at lower temperatures
Rationale: Vapor-phase sterilants can effectively sterilize without the need for high temperatures, thus preserving heat-sensitive items.

184
Q

Which sterilant can be explosive?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Ethylene oxide
C. PAA
D. Glutaraldehyde

A

B. Ethylene oxide
Rationale: Ethylene oxide is explosive, which is one of its disadvantages as a sterilant.

185
Q

Which of the following is a liquid sterilant?
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Formaldehyde gas
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Gas plasma

A

C. Glutaraldehyde
Rationale: Glutaraldehyde is a liquid sterilant used for disinfection and sterilization.

186
Q

What property do vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide and PAA share?
A. They are both alkylating agents
B. They have limited penetrability
C. They react with hydroxyl groups
D. They are non-reactive with enzyme groups

A

B. They have limited penetrability
Rationale: Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide and PAA, while effective, might not penetrate as deeply or as effectively in certain applications.

187
Q

Which of the following is non-explosive?
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Formaldehyde
D. PAA

A

C. Formaldehyde
Rationale: Formaldehyde is non-explosive, unlike ethylene oxide.

188
Q

Which agent is mutagenic?
A. Formaldehyde
B. Ethanol
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Isopropyl alcohol

A

C. Ethylene oxide
Rationale: Ethylene oxide is known to be mutagenic, posing risks if residues are not removed properly.

189
Q

Why are vapor-phase sterilants often preferred for certain medical equipment?
A. They are cheaper
B. They are always non-toxic
C. They don’t damage heat-sensitive equipment
D. They can be used without any precautions

A

C. They don’t damage heat-sensitive equipment
Rationale: Vapor-phase sterilants can sterilize without the high temperatures that could damage heat-sensitive medical devices.

190
Q
A

Pharma 1 (DUMP) (16 decks)

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