SFA - How Much Do You Remember from Surg Tech?

Question 1

THE SURGICAL INCISION THAT ALLOWS FOR THE BEST VISUALIZATION FOR A BILLROTH I PROCEDURE IS:

A. MCBURNEY’S
B. PFANNENSTIEL
C. MIDLINE
D. SUBCOSTAL

Answer 1

C. MIDLINE

a. A McBurney’s incision is used for an open appendectomy
b. The Pfannenstiel incision is a low abdominal incision used often in GYN procedures
c. The midline incision runs along the linea alba and is used in most abdominal procedures, as it provides visualization to most of the abdominal contents
d. The subcostal incision runs parallel to the ribcage on either side of the abdomen and can be used on procedures involving the gallbladder or liver

Question 2

CSF IS FORMED IN THE LATERAL VENTRICLES OF A PATIENT AND MAY NOT PROPERLY FLOW INTO THE THIRD VENTRICLE THROUGH THE FORAMEN OF:

A. MAGENDIE INTO THE FOURTH VENTRICLE
B. MONRO INTO THE FOURTH VENTRICLE
C. SYLVIUS INTO THE FOURTH VENTRICLE
D. LUSCHKA INTO THE FOURTH VENTRICLE

Answer 2

C. SYLVIUS INTO THE FOURTH VENTRICLE

a. The foramen of Magendie drains CSF from the fourth to the cisterna magna
b. The foramen of Monro drains is also known as the interventricular foramen connecting the two lateral ventricles
c. The foramen of Sylvius drains CSF from the third to the fourth and is also referred to as the cerebral aqueduct
d. The foramen of Luschka drains CSF from the fourth ventricle and communicates with the subarachnoid

Question 3

WHEN TRANSFERRING A THORACOTOMY PATIENT TO RECEOVERY, THE CHEST DRAINAGE SYSTEM SHOULD BE:

A. DISCONNECTED
B. PLACED AT THE PATIENT’S SIDE
C. POSITIONED ABOVE THE PATIENT’S HEAD
D. MAINTAINED BELOW THE PATIENT’S CHEST LEVEL

Answer 3

D. MAINTAINED BELOW THE PATIENT’S CHEST LEVEL

a. A disconnected drainage system will cause loss of negative pressure
b. Keeping the drainage system at the patient’s side will not prevent re-entry of air and fluid into the chest cavity
c. Elevating the system above the chest level can cause re-entry of air and fluid into the chest cavity, resulting in a pneumothorax
d. Keeping the drainage system below the patient’s chest level prevents re-entry of air and fluid into the chest cavity

Question 4

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES REQUIRES AN INCISION IN THE SUPRASTERNAL NOTCH?

A. MEDIASTINOSCOPY
B. BRONCHOSCOPY
C. PAROTIDECTOMY
D. PERICARDECTOMY

Answer 4

A. MEDIASTINOSCOPY

a. A mediastinoscopy views the mediastinum through an incision in the suprasternal notch
b. A bronchoscopy views the tracheobronchial tree via the oropharynx
c. A parotidectomy is the surgical excision of the parotid gland, located below the ear and the neck area, and requires an incision in this area
d. A pericardectomy is stripping of the pericardium from the heart and requires a median sternotomy incision or a thoracotomy

Question 5

T-TUBE DRAIN MAY BE USED FOLLOWING:

A. A SPENENECTOMY
B. A CHOLEDOCHOTOMY
C. AN APPENDECTOMY
D. A HERNIORRHAPY

Answer 5

B. A CHOLEDOCHOTOMY

a. A splenectomy is usually not drained; however, a Hemovac or JP is more commonly used during this procedure if drainage is needed
b. A Tube drain is used to irrigate and to demonstrate patency of the CBD. A T-tube’s unique design fits into the common duct and facilitates drainage outside the body
c. A T-tube would not be used in an appendectomy. A Penrose or JP is more likely to be used during this procedure
d. Hernias are not usually drained

Question 6

A TYPE OF REGIONAL ANESTHEISA IN WHICH A TOURNIQUET IS APPLIED AND LOCAL ANESTHETIC IS ADMINISTERED INTRAVENOUSLY IS CALLED A:

A. BIER BLOCK
B. PERIPHERAL NERVE BLOCK
C. MAC
D. CAUDAL ANESTHESIA

Answer 6

A. BIER BLOCK

a. A Bier block utilizes a double-cuffed tourniquet to prevent the anesthetic agent from traveling throughout the body
b. A peripheral nerve block is given at a specific site to numb a nerve in the body
c. Monitored anesthesia care (MAC) involves giving IV medication to place the entire body in a depressed state
d. caudal anesthesia is injection of local anesthesia into the epidural space in the spine

Question 7

DURING A CRANIOTOMY, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF BONE IS ENTERED?

A. FLAT
B. ROUND
C. LONG
D. SHORT

Answer 7

A. FLAT

a. Several cranial bones are flat bones
b. Round bones are found within tendons, in the patella, or on the head of the first metatarsal
c. Long bones are found in the arms and legs and consist of a shaft and two ends
d. Short bones are foound in the wrist and ankle

Question 8

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST ACCEPTABLE TECHNIQUE WHEN PLACING A PATIENT IN THE LITOTOMY POSITION?

A. ARMS PLACED ON ARM BOARDS PLACED AT 110 DEGREES
B. LEGS PLACED IN STIRRUPS ONE AT A TIME
C. BOTH LEGS PLACED IN STIRRUPS SIMULTANEOUSLY
D. HIPS PLACED ABOVE THE LOWER BREAK OF THE TABLE

Answer 8

C. BOTH LEGS PLACED IN STIRRUPS SIMULTANEOUSLY

a. Arms are placed on arm boards at 90 degree or less
b. Legs should not be placed one at a time due to back, knee, and hip pain; also for pressure injury to skin, nerve, and blood vessels and blood pressures changes
c. Both legs should be placed simultaneous to prevent hip and back pain, blood pressure changes, and pressure injury to the skin, nerves, and blood vessels
d. The hips should be placed at the break in the table so they are in the correct position when the lower portion of the table is removed

Question 9

A SURGEON ASKS FOR WARM IRRIGATION AFTER A RIGHT HEMICOLECTOMY. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE REASON FOR IRRIGATING AT THIS POINT IN THE PROCEDURE?

A. TO CLEAN OUT THE AREA OF ANY LOOSE TISSUE
B. TO MAINTAIN THE CORE BODY TEMPERATURE
C. TO ELIMINATE ANY INFECTION-CAUSING MICROBES
D. TO AID VISUAL INSPECTION FOR LEAKAGE

Answer 9

D. TO AID VISUAL INSPECTION FOR LEAKAGE

a. Irrigation would help with removing’s loose tissue, but it is not the main reason this is done
b. Body temperature is maintained by using thermoregulatory devices, not irrigation
c. Irrigation would not completely eliminate infection-causing microbes
d. A watertight seal of all anastomoses is essential to prevent peritonitis. Irrigation aids in visually inspecting the seal

Question 10

ROD-SHAPED BACTERIA ARE CALLED:

A. BACILLI
B. COCCI
C. VIBRIO
D. SPIRALS

Answer 10

A. BACILLI

a. Rod-shaped bacteria are called bacilli. They can be slightly curved or straight. Bacillus is Latin for “stick”
b. Cocci are round, spherical-shaped bacteria
c. Vibrio are comma-shaped bacteria
d. Spiral-shaped bacteria are called spirochetes

Question 11

A TYPE OF PASSIVE TRANSPORT WHEN SALT CRYSTALS DISSOVLE IN WATER IS KNOWN AS:

A. PHAGOCYTOSIS
B. ENDOCYTOSIS
C. OSMOSIS
D. DIFFUSION

Answer 11

D. DIFFUSION

a. In phagocytosis, large particles are engulfed and digested by lysosomes within the cell
b. Endocytosis is a type of active transport in which molecules are engulfed and then carried to the cell center
c. Osmosis is when particles cross a permeable membrane such as a cell wall
d. Diffusion is simple movement of particles within a solution. When the salt is added to water, the molecules simply disperse within the solution

Question 12

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF LASER IS TYPICALLY USED FOR STONE FRAGMENTATION IN THE URETER?

A. ARGON
B. KRYPTON
C. CARBON DIOXIDE
D. HOLMIUM: YAG

Answer 12

D. HOLMIUM: YAG

a. Argon is used for procedures on the retina
b. Krypton is used to destroy tissue in the retina
c. Carbon dioxide is used for neurosurgical and reconstructive procedures
d. Holmium:YAG is used to fragment stones in the ureter

Question 13

NECROTIZING FASCIITIS CONFIRMED TO THE PERINEUM AND SCROTUM IS KNOWN AS:

A. CELLULITIS
B. GEROTA’S FASCIITIS
C. BOIL
D. FOURNIER’S GANGRENE

Answer 13

D. FOURNIER’S GANGRENE

a. Cellulitis is inflammation of skin and subcutaneous tissue
b. Gerota’s fascia is located in the abdomen
c. Boil infected hair follicle usually caused by staphylococcus aureus
d. Fournier’s gangrene is necrotizing fasciitis of scrotum and perineum

Question 14

WHERE IS THE GASTROCNEMIUS MUSCLE LOCATED?

A. ARM
B. CALF
C. BACK
D. THIGH

Answer 14

B. CALF

a. The bicep is the main muscle in the arm
b. The gastrocnemius is a muscle in the posterior portion of the lower leg
c. The latissimus is the main muscle in the back
d. The quadriceps is the main muscle in the thigh

Question 15

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE CORRECT SKIN PREPARATION FOR A FEMALE PATIENT UNDERGOING A RIGHT MASTECTOMY WITH POSSIBLE AXILLARY DISSECTION?

A. SHOULDER, UPPER ARM AND EXTENDING DOWN TO THE ELBOW, AXILLA, CHEST TO THE TABLE LINE, AND TO THE LEFT SHOULDER
B. BASE OF THE NECK, SHOULDER, SCAPULA, CHEST TO MIDLINE, AND CIRCUMFERENCE OF UPPER ARM DOWN TO THE ELBOW
C. ENTIRE ARM, SHOULDER, AXILLA, INCLUDING THE HAND
D. CHIN TO UMBILICUS AND LATERALLY TO THE TABLE LINE

Answer 15

A. SHOULDER, UPPER ARM AND EXTENDING DOWN TO THE ELBOW, AXILLA, CHEST TO THE TABLE LINE, AND TO THE LEFT SHOULDER

a. For procedure in the area of the chest and breast, the areas to be prepped include the shoulder, the upper arm extending down to the elbow, the axilla, and the chest to the table line to the shoulder opposite from the affected side
b. Preparing the base of the neck, shoulder, scapula, chest to midline, and circumference of the up[per arm down to the elbow is recommended for shoulder procedures
c. Preparing the entire arm, shoulder, and axilla, including the hand, is recommended for hand procedures
d. Preparing the chin to umbilicus and laterally to the table line does not prepare for the possible axillary node dissection

Question 16

WHEN POSITIONING A PATIENT FOR LITHOTOMY, CARE SHOULD BE TAKEN TO AVOID INJURY OF THE PERONEAL NERVE, WHICH CAN CAUSE INJURY TO THE:

A. HIP
B. ANKLE
C. FOOT
D. ELBOW

Answer 16

A. HIP

a. The peroneal nerve is located in the hip
b. The peroneal nerve is not located near the ankle
c. The foot is not the location of the injury but may be the cause of the injury
d. The peroneal nerve is not located near the elbow

Question 17

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFLEXES INVOLVES PLANTAR FLECION OF THE FOOT?

A. ACHILLES
B. PATELLAR
C. BABINSKI
D. ABDOMINAL

Answer 17

A. ACHILLES

a. This stretch involves plantar flexion of the foot by contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles in response to tapping the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon
b. This stretch involves extension of the leg at the knee joint
c. This reflex results from gentle stroking of the lateral outer margin of the sole
d. This reflex involves contraction of the muscles that compress the abdominal wall

Question 18

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES MAY BE USED TO REMOVE A CARCINOMA FROM THE HEAD OF THE PANCREAS?

A. HELLER
B. WHIPPLE
C. BANKART
D. BILLROTH I

Answer 18

B. WHIPPLE

a. A Heller is a myotomy procedure
b. A Whipple procedure is performed on a patient with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
c. A Bankart procedure is done to repair stability of the shoulder
d. A Billroth I is a partial gastrectomy procedure

Question 19

THE PARATHYROID GLAND REGULATES:

A. INSULIN
B. CALCIUM
C. SODIUM
D. ALDOSTERONE

Answer 19

B. CALCIUM

a. The pancreas regulates insulin
b. The parathyroid releases parathyroid hormone, which acts to increase calcium levels in the blood
c. The kidneys regulate sodium production
d. Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex and increases sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

Question 20

A WOUND THAT HAS REGROWTH OF DAMAGED BLOOD VESSELS AND SYNTHESIZES SCAR TISSUE IS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOUND HEALING PHASES?

A. INFLAMMATORY
B. MIGRATORY
C. PROLIFERATIVE
D. MATURATION

Answer 20

B. MIGRATORY

a. The inflammatory phase has a blood clot and the wound is loosely united
b. A clot becomes a scab and epithelial cells migrate during the Migatory phase. Damaged blood vessels begin to regrow
c. Extensive growth of epithelial cells beneath the scab is the Proliferation phase
d. The scab will fall once healing is complete at the Maturation pjhase

Question 21

A WOUND THAT HAS REGROWTH OF DAMAGED BLOOD VESSELS AND SYNTHESIZES SCAR TISSUE IS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOUND HEALING PHASES?

A. INFLAMMATORY
B. MIGRATORY
C. PROLIFERATIVE
D. MATURATION

Answer 21

B. MIGRATORY

a. The inflammatory phase has a blood clot and the wound is loosely united
b. A clot becomes a scab and epithelial cells migrate during the Migatory phase. Damaged blood vessels begin to regrow
c. Extensive growth of epithelial cells beneath the scab is the Proliferation phase
d. The scab will fall once healing is complete at the Maturation phase

Question 22

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE NAME OF THE INCISION MADE IN A SIMPLE OPEN NEPHRECTOMY?

A. GIBSON
B. LOW TRANSVERSE
C. SUBCOSTAL FLANK
D. MCBURNEY’S

Answer 22

C. SUBCOSTAL FLANK

a. A Gibson incision is used for renal transplantation or as an extraperitoneal approach for distal ureters
b. A low transverse or Pfannenstiel incision is used for a C-section or a suprapubic prostatectomy
c. A subcostal flank incision is made in a simple open nephrectomy
d. A McBurney’s incision is used to access the appendix in a open appendectomy

Question 23

AN EXCISED LIPOIMA WAS FILLED WITH NON-PRULENT SEROSANGUINEOUS FLUID. WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DOCUMENTED AS THE WOUND CLASSIFICATION FOR THIS PROCEDURE?

A. CLEAN WOUND
B. DIRTY-INFECTED
C. CLEAN-CONTAMINATED
D. CONTAMINATED

Answer 23

D. CONTAMINATED

Question 24

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CRANIAL NERVES NUCLEI ARE ASSOCAITED WITH THE MEDULLA?

A. TRIGEMINAL
B. ABDUCENS
C. FACIAL
D. VAGUS

Answer 24

D. VAGUS

a. Trigeminal nerves (V) controls the sensation of the face, forehead, and mouth
b. Abducens nerves (VI) controls lateral movement of the eyes
c. Facial nerves (VII) controls the muscles in the face and scalp
d. The medulla contains nuclei associated with vestibulocochlear nerves (VIII), glossopharyngeal nerves (IX) vagus nerves (X), accessory nerves (XI), and hypoglossal nerves (XII)

Question 25

A PATIENT IS HAVING A HEMOLYTIC REACION. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS SHOULD THE SURGICAL TEAM TAKE FIRST?

A. ADMINISTER DANTROLENE
B. STOP THE TRANSFUSION
C. MONITOR URINE OUTPUT
D. SEND A BLOOD SAMPLE TO BLOOD BANK

Answer 25

B. STOP THE TRANSFUSION

a. Dantrolene should not be given. It is administered for MH
b. Hemolytic reactions occur from blood transfusions. If a hemolytic reaction is suspected, the transfusion should be immediately stopped
c. Urine output is monitored closely in these patients, as hypovolemia may hinder kidney function; however, monitoring urine output is not the first action to take
d. A blood sample should be drawn and sent to the blood bank directly after stopping the transfusion to rule out mismatch

Question 26

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A TYPE OF EMERGENCY THAT DOES NOT REQUIRE FEDERAL ASSISTANCE AND IS MOST LIKELY TO OCCUR IN A LARGER CITY?

A. MASS CASUALTY EVENT
B. PANDEMIC
C. NATURAL DISASTER
D. TERRORISM

Answer 26

A. MASS CASUALTY EVENT

a. A mass casualty event is a localized emergency and may overwhelm healthcare facilities, but does not require federal assistance
b. A pandemic is an infectious disease spread over a large area and becomes an emergency for public health and may require assistance from the CDC, which is federal
c. A natural disaster rises from a force of nature, such as a hurricane or tornado and may require government assistance
d. An act of terrorism is an act of violence that instills fear. It is a national emergency that requires assistance from the federal government

Question 27

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES ARE LIGATED AND DIVIDED DURING A CHOLECYSTECTOMY?

A. CYSTIC ARTERY AND CYSTIC DUCT
B. HEPATIC ARTERY AND HEPATIC DUCT
C. CYSTIC ARTERY AND CBD
D. HEPATIC ARTERY AND PANCREATIC DUCT

Answer 27

A. CYSTIC ARTERY AND CYSTIC DUCT

a. It is necessary to ligate and divide the cystic artery and cystic duct because they are the major structures supplying blood to the gall bladder and draining bile from the liver
b. Division and ligation of the hepatic artery and hepatic duct would cause sever damage to the liver
c. Although the cystic artery is ligated and divided,, the ligation of he CBD would occlude the flow of bile into the bowel, which is necessary for the emulsification of fats
d. Division and ligation of the hepatic artery and pancreatic duct would cause severe damage to the pancreas

Question 28

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANATOMICAL STRUCTURES IS LOCATED JUST UNDER THE DIAPHRAGM IN THE LEFT UPPER QUADRANT OF THE ABDOMEN?

A. STOMACH
B. APPENDIX
C. GALLBLADDER
D. LIVER

Answer 28

A. STOMACH

a. The stomach is located just under the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen
b. The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen
c. The gallbladder is located under the liver in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
d. The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen

Question 29

THE OXYGEN-CARRYING CAPACITY OF RBCS IS A FUCNTIN OF:

A. ALBUMIN
B. HEMOGLOBIN
C. HEMATOCRIT
D. PROTHROMBIN

Answer 29

B. HEMOGLOBIN

a. Albumin acts as a molecular carrier and helps to maintain blood volume and pressure
b. Hemoglobin is the iron-containing pigment of RBCs that carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues
c. Hematocrit is the measure of the percentage of blood cells that are erythrocytes
d. Prothrombin is plasma protein that is converted into thrombin in the clotting of the blood

Question 30

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PORTIONS OF THE COLON IS USED AS AN END COLOSTOMY FOLLOWING AN ABDOMINAL PERINEAL RESECTION?

A. CECUM
B. HEPATIC FLEXURE
C. SIGMOID
D. SPLENIC FLEXURE

Answer 30

C. SIGMOID

a. The cecum is a pouch in the lower abdominal cavity that receives undigested food material from the small intestine and is considered the first region of the large intestines
b. The hepatic flexure is the sharp bend between the ascending colon and the transverse colon
c. The sigmoid colon is used as an end colostomy following abdominal perineal resection
d. The splenic flexure is the sharp bend between the transverse and the descending colon

Question 31

IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SITUATIONS CAN A DNR ORDER BE CONTINUED IN AN UNCONSCIOUS PATIENT FOR A SURGICAL PROCEDURE?

A. THE PATIENT’S DURABLE POA REQUESTS IT BE CONTINUED
B. THE PATIENT’S FAMILY REQUESTS IT TO BE CONTINUED
C. THE SURGEON REQUESTS IT BE CONTINUED
D. TEH CRNA REQUESTS IT BE CONTINUED

Answer 31

A. THE PATIENT’S DURABLE POA REQUESTS IT BE CONTINUED

a. Many hospitals have a policy to rescind the DNR during surgery. The patient’s assigned Power of Attorney is legally permitted to make medical decisions when incapacitated
b. The patient’s family does not have legal authority by law to continue a DNR order
c. The surgeon does not have legal authority by law to continue a DNR order
d. The CRNA does not have legal authority by law to continue a DNR order

Question 32

A MAJOR FUNCTION OF THE COLON IS TO:

A. ABSORB WATER
B. SECRETE HORMONES
C. SECRETE DIGESTIVE ENZYMES
D. ABSORB THE PRODUCTS OF DIGESTION

Answer 32

A. ABSORB WATER

a. Reabsorbing water, along with eliminating digestive wastes, is a primary function of the colon
b. Secreting hormones is a function of the small intestine
c. Secreting digestive enzymes is a function of the parietal cells of the stomach
d. Absorbing the products of digestion is a function of the small intestine

Question 33

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE RECEIVING NERVE END OF ALL TRANSMISSION?

A. CELL BODY
B. DENDRITE
C. AXON
D. TRIGGER ZONE

Answer 33

B. DENDRITE

a. A cell body contains the nucleus and organelles relevant to a cell body
b. Dendrites contain numerous receptors which bind chemical messengers from other cells
c. Axons are the distal end of nerve cells, which propels information towards another neuron, muscle fiber, or gland cell
d. Nerve impulses arise at the trigger zone, then travel along the axon towards their final destination

Question 34

WHICH OF THE FOLLOIWING IS A NORMAL ADULT WBC COUNT?

A. 1,000 TO 4,000
B. 5,000 TO 10,000
C. 11,000 TO 14,000
D. 15,000 TO 20,000

Answer 34

B. 5,000 TO 10,000

a. An abnormally low WBC count, below 5,000 is called leukopenia
b. A normal WBC count is 5,000 to 10,000
c. A WBC count above 10,000 typical indicates a state of inflammation or infection
d. An elevated WBC count between 15,000 to 20,000 would indicate infection, malignancy, or trauma

Question 35

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWOING CONNECTIONS DO LIGAMENTS MAKE?

A. MUSCLE TO MUSCLE
B. MUSCLE TO BONE
C. TENDON TO MUSCLE
D. BONE TO BONE

Answer 35

D. BONE TO BONE

a. Muscle to muscle is connected by fasciae
b. A tendon is a tough band of fibrous connective tissue that usually connects muscle to bone
c. A tendon serves to move the bone or structure
d. Ligaments connect the ends of bones to form a joint