Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

finals > sexual health > Flashcards

sexual health Flashcards

1
Q

is chalmydia gram +ve or -ve?

A

gram -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

do pts w/ chlamydia usually have symptoms?

A

no, usually asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does chlamydia present in females?

A

abnormal vaginal discharge
pelvic pain
abnormal bleeding
painful sex (dyspareunia)
painful urination (dysuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does chlamydia present in males?

A

urethral discharge or discomfit
painful urination (dysuria)
epididymis orchitis
reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the examination findings of chlamydia?

A

pelvic or abdo tenderness
cervical motion tenderness
inflamed cervix
purulent discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

NAAT test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which samples can be used for NAAT tests to diagnose chlamydia?

A

vulvovaginal swab
endocervical swab
first catch urine sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when is doxycycline contraindicated?

A

pregnancy and breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

other than treatment what else is involved in the management of chlamydia?

A

abstain for sex for 7 days of treatment

contact tracing and testing and treating partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the complications of chlamydia?

A

PID
chronic pelvic pain
infertility
ectopic pregnancy
conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the pregnancy related complications of chalmydia?

A

pre term delivery
premature rupture of membranes
low birth weight
neonatal infection (conjunctivitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is gonorrhoea gram +ve or gram -ve?

A

gram -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

is gonorrhoea more or less likely to be symptomatic than chlamydia?

A

more likely to be symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does gonorrhoea present in females?

A

odourless purulent discharge (may be green / yellow)

dysuria

pelvic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does gonorrhoea present in males?

A

odourless purulent discharge (may be green / yellow)

dysuria

testicualr pain / swelling (epididymis-orchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

NAAT test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which samples can be used for NAAT testing to diagnose gonorrhoea?

A

endocervical seal
vulvovaginal swab
urethral swab
first catch urine sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which additional swabs are recommended for MSM who have gonorrhoea?

A

rectal and pharyngeal swabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the management of gonorrhoea?

A

single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

should pts w/ gonorrhoea have a test of cure?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

should pts w/ chlamydia have a test of cure?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

other than treatment what else is involved in the management of gonorrhoea?

A

no sex for 7 days of treatment
test and treat partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the complications of gonorrhoea?

A

PID
chronic pelvic pain
infertility
epididymo-orchitis
conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what bacteria cases syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the average incubation period between initial infection and symptoms for syphilis?

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the 4 stages of syphilis?

A

primary syphilis
secondary syphilis
latent syphilis
tertiary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how does primary syphilis present?

A

painless ulcer called chancre at the original site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does secondary syphilis present?

A

systemic symptoms esp of the skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the typical course of secondary syphilis?

A

symptoms can resolve after 3-12 weeks and the pt can enter the latent phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the latent phase of syphilis?

A

the pt becomes asymptomatic while still being infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the time frame for early latent syphilis?

A

w/in 2 years of the initial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the time frame for late latent syphilis?

A

> 2 years of the initial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is tertiary syphilis?

A

can occur many years after the initial infection and affect many organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when does secondary syphilis typically present?

A

after the chancre has healed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does secondary syphilis present?

A

maculopapular rash
condylomata lata
low grade fever
lymphadenopathy
alopecia
oral lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is condylomata lata?

A

grey warty lesions around the genitals and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does tertiary syphilis present?

A

can present w/ several symptoms depending on the affected organ

gummatous lesions

aortic aneurysms

neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are gummas?

A

granulomatous lesions that can affect the skin, organs and bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the symptoms of neurosyphilis?

A

headache
altered behaviour
dementia
tabes doesalis
ocular syphilis
paralysis
sensory impairment
argyll robertson pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is tabes doesalis?

A

demyelination of the spinal cord posterior columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is argyll Robertson pupil?

A

constricted pupil that accommodates but does not react to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the diagnostic process for syphilis?

A

screening :antibody testing for antibodies to T pallidum bacteria

confirm T pallidum bacteria w/ dark field microscopy or PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the management of syphilis?

A

single deep IM dose off benzathine benzylpeincillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the alternatives to benzathine benzyslpenacillin for the treatment of syphilis?

A

ceftriazone, amoxicillin and doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the causes of erectile dysfunction?

A

vascular
neurological
hormonal
drug induced
psychogenic
systemic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how can you differentiate between an organic cause and a psychogenic cause of erectile dysfunction?

A

whether or not the pt gets nocturnal erections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the management of erectile dysfunction?

A

counselling
phsophodisterase 5 inhibitors
hormone treatment (if hormonal cause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the causative agent of genital warts?

A

human papilloma viruses 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how can genital warts be transmitted?

A

skin to skin contact
perinatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the incubation period of HPV for genital warts?

A

up to 8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what increases the risk of recurrence of genital warts?

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the 2 management options for genital warts?

A

topical agents
physical ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what can be used for topical treatment of genital warts ?

A

topical podophyllotoxin
topical imiquimod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the 2 options for physical ablation of genital warts?

A

cryotherapy
surgical excision

56
Q

what is the causative organism of trichomoniasis?

A

trichomonas vaginalis (flagellated protozoan)

57
Q

how is trichomoniasis transmitted?

A

sexual intercourse

58
Q

how does trichomoniasis present in females?

A

thin, frothy, yellow vaginal discharge
strawberry cervix on speculum
vaginal puritis
dysuria

59
Q

how does trichomoniasis present in males?

A

urethral discharge
urethral itch
dysuria

60
Q

how is trichomoniasis diagnosed?

A

mobile trichomonads on wet mount microscopy

NAAT - vulovaginal swabs for females and first pass urine samples for males

61
Q

what is the first line management of trichomoniasis?

A

400-500 mg of metronidazole B.D for 7 days

62
Q

what is the management of trichomoniasis in a patient who won’t comply w/ 7 days of treatment?

A

2g of oral metronidazole

63
Q

what advice should be given when treating trichomoniasis?

A

alcohol should be avoided during treatment and for 72 hrs after

64
Q

how does mycoplasma genitalium present in males?

A

clear urethral discharge
dysuria
epididymio-orchitis

65
Q

how does mycoplasma genitalium present in females?

A

dysuria
post coital bleeding

66
Q

is mycoplasma genitalium part of routine sexual health screening?

A

no

67
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for mycoplasma genitalium?

A

NAAT
females - vaginal swab
males - first void urine sample

68
Q

what is the management of an uncomplicated mycoplasma genitalium infection?

A

doxycycline 100mg B.D for 7 days then azithromycin 1g single dose then azithromycin 500mg daily for 2 days

69
Q

what is the total duration of treatment for an uncomplicated mycoplasma genitalium infection?

A

10 days

70
Q

what constitutes a complicated mycoplasma genitalium infection?

A

PID
epididymio-orchitis

71
Q

what is the management of a complicated mycoplasma genitalium infection?

A

moxifloxacin 400mg daily for 14 days

72
Q

is a test of cure done for mycoplasma genitalium?

A

yes

done at 5 wks following initiation of treatment

73
Q

what are the 2 causative agents of herpes simplex?

A

HSV-1 and HSV-2

74
Q

how is herpes simplex virus transmitted?

A

mucosal sufaces
broken skin

75
Q

how many pts develop symptoms at the time of acquisition of herpes simplex virus?

A

1/3

76
Q

what happens after acquisition of HSV?

A

the virus lies dormant in the local sensory ganglia

77
Q

what is the course of HSV infection?

A

it is a lifelong infection w/ periods of reactivation and symptoms

78
Q

what is the most common causative agent of herpes?

A

HSV-1

79
Q

what causative agent is most likely to cause recurrent symptoms of HSV?

A

HSV-2

80
Q

when are HSV symptoms most severe?

A

more severe at the time of initial infection rather than recurrent

81
Q

what is the investigation of HSV?

A

PCR swabs from the base of the ulcer

82
Q

what is the management of HSV?

A

400mg acyclovir orally T.D.S for 5 days

83
Q

when should treatment of HSV be started?

A

w/in 5 days of the onset of symptoms or in the prodromal phase if there is one

84
Q

what is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge?

A

bacterial vaginosis

85
Q

what is bacterial vaginosis caused by?

A

an overgrowth of anaerobic vaginal bacterial which causes an increase of vaginal pH (>4.5)

86
Q

how does BV present?

A

most pts are asymptomatic
thin, white, smelly discharge

87
Q

what is the management of asymptomatic non-pregnant women w/ BV?

A

no treatment

88
Q

what is the management of symptomatic / pregnant women w/ BV?

A

400-500mg metronidazole B.D for 7 days

89
Q

what are the complications of BV?

A

higher risk of acquiring and transmitting STIs

90
Q

what is PID?

A

an upper genital infection

91
Q

what is PID caused by?

A

a spreading infection from the endocervix which can be from STIs or commensal vaginal bacteria

92
Q

how can PID present?

A

abdo pain
pain during sex
abnormal vaginal discharge
abnormal bleeding patterns

93
Q

is there a diagnostic test for PID?

A

no

94
Q

does a negative STI screen rule out PID?

A

no

95
Q

what is the management of PID?

A

antibiotics to cover chlamydia, gonorrhoea and anaerobic bacteria

96
Q

what is the first line outpatient management for PID?

A

1g IM ceftriaxone single dose
100mg oral doxycycline B.D 14 days
400mg oral metronidazole B.D 14 days

97
Q

what is the first line inpatient management for PID?

A

2g IV ceftriaxone once daily
100mg IV or oral doxycycline B.D 14 days
400mg oral metronidazole B.D 14 days

98
Q

for inpatient management of PID how long should IV treatment be continued for?

A

for 24hrs following clinical improvement

99
Q

does first line treatment of PID cover mycoplasma genitalium?

A

no

100
Q

if a pt w/ PID is positive for mycoplasma genitalium what should be added to the treatment?

A

moxifacin

101
Q

are tests of cure requited for PID?

A

yes

102
Q

if a pt w/ PID is positive for chlamydia when is a test of cure done?

A

3-5wks after completing treatment if still symptomatic or suspect poor compliance

103
Q

if a pt w/ PID is positive for gonorrhoea when is a test of cure done?

A

2 wks after completing treatment

104
Q

if a pt w/ PID is positive for mycoplasma genitalium when is a test of cure done?

A

5 wks after completing treatment

105
Q

give 3 complications of PID

A

chronic pelvic pain
increased risk of ectopic pregnancies
sub fertility

106
Q

what is the pathophysiology of HIV?

A

human immunodeficiency virus infects CD4+ cells resulting in progressive destruction of the immune system and onset of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

107
Q

which type of HIV is more common in the UK?

A

HIV1

108
Q

describe what happens in stage 1 of HIV infection

A

HIV binds to CD4+ cells

infected CD4+ cells die and release visions which dissemate and infect more CD4+ cells

this goes on for 2-4 wks following exposure during which the pt is highly infectious

immune response to primary HIV causes mild to moderate non specific symptoms called seroconversion illness

109
Q

what happens in stage 2 of HIV infection?

A

the immune response controls the virus therefore the pt is asymptomatic despite low levels of viral replication

no symptoms but still infectious

110
Q

how long does stage 2 of HIV infection last?

A

timeline varies between individuals but can last for 10-15 yrs

111
Q

what happens in stage 3 of HIV infection?

A

occurs when persistent HIV infection compromises the ability of the immune system to replenish CD4+ cells

ability of the immune system to combat infection is severely reduced and so the pt becomes susceptible to opportunistic infections and malignancy

112
Q

what is the definition of AIDS?

A

1 or more AIDS defining illnesses in the presence of HIV infection OR by CD4+ count less than 200

113
Q

list 5 AIDS defining illnesses

A

pneumocystis pneumoia (pneumocystis jirovecii)

kapsois sarcoma

cerebral lymphoma

cytomegalovirus

non-hodgkins lymphoma

114
Q

what are the 2 investigations for HIV?

A

lab based tests on venipuncture samples

point of care tests on finger prick or mouth swab samples

115
Q

how do lab based tests on venipuncture samples work in the diagnosis of HIV?

A

detects the presence of HIV IgM and IgG antibodies and the viral p24 antigen

116
Q

what happens if there is a positive lab based test for HIV?

A

a second sample is done to confirm

117
Q

what happens if there is a negative lab based test for HIV?

A

the test is repeated at 12 weeks to confirm

118
Q

what is the benefit of point of care tests in the diagnosis of HIV?

A

they detect HIV IgM and IgG antibodies with increased sensitivity during early seroconversion and results are ready <1hr

119
Q

what is the downside of point of care tests?

A

there is a higher rate of false positives and so needs confirmed w/ lab tests

120
Q

is there a cure for HIV?

A

no

121
Q

what is the aim of management of HIV?

A

anti retroviral treatment aims to suppress viral replication to the point where it is undetectable and cannot be transmitted

122
Q

how many dif antiretrovirals are used in the treatment of HIV and why?

A

3 dif antiretrovirals

to target dif points of the HIV lifecycle

123
Q

which 3 drugs comprise the antiretroviral treatment in HIV?

A

2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and either:

integrase inhibitor
boosted protease inhibitor
non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

124
Q

what are the 2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that are usually used for HIV treatment?

A

tenofovir disproval and emitricibaine

125
Q

what is the purpose of PrEP?

A

reduces the risk of HIV acquisition in pts at high risk of HIV

126
Q

what is used for PrEP?

A

emtriciitabine and tenofovir disoproxil taken daily before exposure

127
Q

when should PEP be given?

A

following exposure to HIV

w/in 72 hrs of exposure and continued for 28 days

128
Q

what is used for PEP?

A

emtricitabine, tenofovir disoproxil and raltegravir

129
Q

does HIV affect life expectancy?

A

yes, lowers life expectancy

130
Q

what are the 2 resp complications of HIV?

A

pneumonia and TB

131
Q

what is the most common life threatening opportunistic infection in HIV?

A

pneumocystis carinii

132
Q

what are the 3 GI complications of HIV?

A

oesophageal / oral candidiasis
chronic diarrhoea
hepatomegaly (due to viral hepatitis or drug induced)

133
Q

what are the 2 neurological complications of HIV?

A

meningoencephalitis
toxoplasmosis

134
Q

what is the eye complication of HIV?

A

CMV retinitis

135
Q

what is the derm complication of HIV?

A

kaposis sarcoma

136
Q

which vaccination should men who have sex w/ men be offered?

A

hepatitis A

137
Q
A

finals (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions