Set B Vol 2 UREs Flashcards

1
Q

A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be

A

cheap

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2
Q

Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce

A

vapors.

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3
Q

What property of an explosive do we refer to by the word “hygroscopicity?”

A

Moisture-absorbing property.

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4
Q

Upon what factor does the rate of detonation depend?

A

Degree of confinement and loading density

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5
Q

What are the basic components of an explosive train?

A

Detonator, booster, and a bursting charge.

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6
Q

What does an explosive train booster do?

A

Detonates the main charge

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7
Q

How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?

A

Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train

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8
Q

What effect does more damage than the fragmentation effect of a specific bomb?

A

Blast

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9
Q

The penetrating action of a shaped charge is the result of the

A

shock wave and a jet of dense gas

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10
Q

The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and

A

light.

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11
Q

What are the classifications of pyrotechnics?

A

Illuminants, signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators.

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12
Q

When considering pyrotechnics, two types of effects for signals are

A

light and smoke.

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13
Q

What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate?

A

Color of the signal produced.

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14
Q

What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal?

A

Smoke and flare.

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15
Q

When and where is the MK124 Mod 0 signal used?

A

Day or night, land or sea use.

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16
Q

How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?

A

50,000 candlepower.

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17
Q

What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as “small arms”?

A

Caliber .50.

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18
Q

What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?

A

.410.

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19
Q

What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?

A

The wad can cause injury.

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20
Q

What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?

A

Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant

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21
Q

What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?

A

Black powder.

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22
Q

How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?

A

250 meters

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23
Q

How far behind an M18A1 mine should personnel take cover before they fire it?

A

100 meters.

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24
Q

What mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?

A

Light

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25
What device(s) do we use to detonate high explosives (HE)?
Blasting caps.
26
What device is used to initiate time fuse?
M60 igniter.
27
The M112 demo block is made of what substance?
Composition C–4.
28
The difference between commercial dynamite and military dynamite is that military dynamite does not contain
nitroglycerin
29
In what length is fire wire issued?
500 feet.
30
How do we classify bomb fuzes?
Position, action, and method of arming.
31
The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and
proximity
32
Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?
Nose.
33
In an electronically-timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?
Electric charging assembly.
34
The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?
Cotter pins.
35
What action must you take to set the “SECONDS TO ARM” setting below six seconds on an M904 fuze?
Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.
36
What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?
T45.
37
In a bomb body, where is the M905 fuze installed?
The tail fuze well.
38
The FMU–54 series tail fuzes are used in
MK80 series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder.
39
With electrical fuzes, which device is used in place of arming wire?
Battery-firing device.
40
How many FZU–2/B boosters are used with the FMU–81/B fuze when installed in the nose fuze well and the tail fuze well, respectively?
Four; one.
41
What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze?
FZU–48/B initiator.
42
The FMU–143 series fuze was designed for use in
penetration bombs.
43
What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143 series fuze?
FZU–32 series fuze initiator.
44
What hazard is associated with the DSU–33 proximity sensor?
Thermal battery.
45
Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers?
FZU–39/B.
46
What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?
Height of function.
47
What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M series bomb?
Adapter booster.
48
Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb?
BSU–93/B
49
Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb?
BSU–49/B.
50
What air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK84 bomb?
BSU–50/B.
51
Which bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28A/B?
BLU–113.
52
Which bomb is filled with a thermobaric explosive?
BLU–118.
53
Externally, the M129 leaflet bomb is similar to the
M117, 750-pound bomb.
54
Which suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize?
SUU–76C/B.
55
The BLU–126/B bomb is identical to the
MK82, 500-pound bomb.
56
What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B?
27 pounds
57
What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb?
25 pounds
58
The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the
MK82 high-drag munition
59
Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–87 cluster bomb use?
SUU–65.
60
Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb?
BLU–97 bomblets
61
What is the only difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–87A/B cluster bombs?
The A/B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed
62
How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time?
2
63
How many projectiles are contained in each BLU–108/B submunition?
4
64
What ejects the BLU–108 series submunition into the airstream?
Airbag ejection system
65
The components of a wind corrected munitions dispenser consist of a fin guidance system, a variable position umbilical connector, and
operational flight program
66
Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight?
Control actuation assembly
67
What 20 millimeter (mm) round is used for drill or testing feeder assemblies?
Dummy
68
What M505 series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?
Fuze is bore safe.
69
What is the arming delay distance for the M505 fuze?
10–35 feet.
70
The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the
projectile.
71
When 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds may you expect to find in an M548 container?
200–250.
72
What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?
GAU–12
73
How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds?
Dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color.
74
When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container?
80 or 100.
75
How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 millimeter (mm) target practice round?
The primer ignites black power in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant.
76
What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?
Lock ring
77
Which component allows the 30 millimeter (mm) armor-piercing round to achieve target penetration?
Depleted uranium penetrator
78
What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?
As familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system
79
How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter (mm) AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round?
12 seconds.
80
Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round
Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze.
81
What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold?
16.
82
What aircraft fires 105 millimeter (mm) ammunition?
AC–130.
83
What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) high-explosive (HE) round?
Comp B
84
Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation (HF) PGU–45/B projectile produce?
13,000.
85
What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality?
15 feet.
86
The 105 millimeter (mm) clearing cartridge was designed to
clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon.
87
What are countermeasure flares designed to do?
Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft
88
Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare?
BBU–36/B.
89
The SD–206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides
smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes
90
Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use?
BBU–35/B
91
The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces
two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.
92
What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce?
Green light.
93
What output does the LUU–19 series illumination flare produce?
Light in the near-infrared region.
94
In which direction are flares launched from the SUU–25E/A flare dispenser?
Rearward.
95
What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser?
ARD 863–1.
96
The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately
65 (fps).
97
What are initiators, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do?
Supply gas pressure to operate other CADs
98
What are removers, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do?
Eject aircraft canopy.
99
What are the two types of impulse cartridges found in propellant-actuated devices (PADS)?
Explosive and nonexplosive.
100
What must you do before you handle any impulse cartridge?
Ground yourself.