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2w0 CDCs > Set A Vol 1 Self Test > Flashcards

Set A Vol 1 Self Test Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three general functional areas (subdivisions) of the 2W career field

A

Munitions systems, aircraft armament, and nuclear weapons

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2
Q

Why are job descriptions identified in the AFECD general in nature?

A

Because they must apply to a wide range of jobs within a career field or subdivisions and do not include all
duties and responsibilities of the specialty

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3
Q

What duties and responsibilities for specific skill levels of a specialty are not described in the
AFECD?

A

Unique base or command requirements

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4
Q

Why is it important for you to be familiar with the duties of all the subdivisions of the 2W career
field?

A

Because all the subdivisions of the 2W career field interrelate with each other to carry out the mission.

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5
Q

Identify the subdivisions of the 2W career field (excluding 2W0X1) and their specific
responsibilities.

A

1) Aircraft armament (2W1X1) - responsible for the loading of nuclear and nonnuclear air munitions,
explosives, and propellant devices on aircraft. 2) Nuclear weapons (2W2X1) - performs and manages
maintenance, inspection, storage, handling, modification, accountability and repair of nuclear weapons,
weapon components, associated equipment, and general or specialized test and handling equipment

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6
Q

What AFSC is assigned to personnel while in basic training?

A

9T000.

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7
Q

New airmen who have completed basic training are assigned what title and AFS code in the 2W0
career field until they are upgraded to the 3-skill level?

A

Munitions systems helper, AFSC 2W011

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8
Q

What AFSC identifies a semi-skilled individual?

A

The 2W051.

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9
Q

Whose primary responsibility is it to maintain qualification in a given specialty?

A

Each individual’s

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10
Q

At what skill level can a munitions specialist expect to perform supervisory positions within the unit?

A

7 level, craftsman

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11
Q

What are general duties and responsibilities of a 2w071, craftsman?

A

Supervises, inspect/process munitions, plan. Must have the experience to accomplish task.

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12
Q

What are the duties and responsibilities of a 2W071?

A

Supervising or performing functions of receipting, identifying, inspecting, storing, reconditioning, issuing,
delivering, maintaining, testing, and assembling guided and unguided munitions, as well as preparing and
maintaining documentation and records for inventory management actions.

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13
Q

What is the minimum grade of a munitions systems superintendent?

A

Senior Master sergeant (E–8)

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14
Q

What title and AFSC are assigned to a 2W0 who has reached the top of the career ladder?

A

Munitions systems manager, 2W000 (CEM).

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15
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the management of the CFETP?

A

AFCFM.

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16
Q

What are the topics discussed during a U&T Workshop?

A

Career field trends, new munitions, new training requirements, and needed changes to the current CFETP.

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17
Q

Where is the U&TW usually held?

A

Ammo Schoolhouse, Sheppard AFB, TX.

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18
Q

If you want to find the career field progression requirements, to what section of the CFETP Part I
would you refer?

A

Section B.

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19
Q

When, if ever, may a 3-skill level apprentice perform a task unsupervised?

A

When the apprentice is trained and qualified to perform the task unsupervised, except where prohibited by
safety or security requirements.

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20
Q

When may 5-skill level personnel be considered for supervisory duties?

A

After completing Airman Leadership School.

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21
Q

What is the minimum length of time a trainee must spend in on-the-job training before being
upgraded to the 5-skill level?

A

12 months.

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22
Q

What section of the CFETP Part II identifies the STS (most used section)?

A

Section A.

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23
Q

What section of the CFETP Part II identifies the core task table used by supervisors for upgrade
requirements?

A

Section B.

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24
Q

What replaces the paper-based CFETP and is now the standard tool to track and manage job
position duty-based training?

A

Training Business Area (TBA).

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25
Q

Who establishes the basic concepts and policies for munitions?

A

The Air Staff.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of a 2W0XX U&TW?

A

To periodically audit formal training courses and develop required changes

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27
Q

How are MAJCOMs organized in the United States?

A

On a functional basis.

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28
Q

How are MAJCOMs organized overseas?

A

On a geographical basis.

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29
Q

A supported command develops support plans and annexes for contingency operations specifically for whom?

A

Combatant commanders

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30
Q

During contingency operations, who establishes lower echelon ammunition control points?

A

MAJCOM

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31
Q

What supports smaller geographic areas within the theater?

A

RACP.

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32
Q

Which MAJCOM manages munitions sustainment organizations?

A

AFMC.

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33
Q

Name the two control points AFMC establishes as operational entities.

A

Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point (Ogden) and the Air Force Tactical Missile Control Point
(Warner Robins).

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34
Q

Who is the biggest center that the AFMC operates?

A

GACP

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35
Q

Which control point manages the Air Superiority Missile inventory and operates the TMCP?

A

GACP, armament division at Robins AFB

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36
Q

Explain the structure of a typical wing in descending order

A

Wing, group, squadron, flight, section and element.

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37
Q

Which type of wing is capable of self-support in functional areas like maintenance, supply, and
munitions?

A

Operational wing.

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38
Q

Which organization is a level just below the wing with approximately 500 to 2,000 people?

A

Group.

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39
Q

How is a typical munitions flight broken down?

A

Into three sections—production, systems, and materiel; it also has at least nine elements

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40
Q

What is the purpose of the logistics system?

A

To create and sustain force generation capabilities whenever and wherever needed to conduct military
operations. On the broadest level, logistics is a key aspect of program management to acquire and sustain
weapons systems.

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41
Q

If a maintenance squadron exceeds 700 authorized positions, who may authorize it to be split up
into an equipment maintenance squadron and a component maintenance squadron?

A

MAJCOM

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42
Q

What organizational element establishes a program to monitor and assess the quality of
maintenance performed?

A

Quality assurance.

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43
Q

What organization is responsible for maintaining the central TO file?

A

Quality assurance personnel

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44
Q

Who appoints the munitions flight chief?

A

Squadron commander or equivalent.

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45
Q

Who must select and appoint munitions inspectors?

A

Munitions supervision personnel.

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46
Q

Who develops and publishes unit movement control procedures?

A

Munitions supervision personnel.

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47
Q

What is the title of the person that is responsible to the assigned commander and is the appointing
official for the effective and efficient management of the munitions stockpile?

A

Munitions accountable systems officer.

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48
Q

Who must appoint the CAS system administrators?

A

MASO

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49
Q

Who must ensure that the element master training plans cover peacetime and contingency tasks?

A

Munitions flight section chief.

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50
Q

Who must establish and maintain a hazardous waste program?

A

Munitions flight section chief.

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51
Q

Who must enforce supply discipline in a typical munitions activity?

A

Element NCOIC.

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52
Q

In a typical munitions activity, who must ensure pre-task safety briefings are accomplished before
the start of any munitions operation?

A

Munitions crew chief.

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53
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and
maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers?

A

Production section.

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54
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions
activities and in-processes accountable transactions in CAS when relayed from other munitions
activities?

A

Systems section.

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55
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, breaks out,
inspects, ships, inventories, transports, disposes locally, and processes transactions in CAS for
conventional munitions, containers, dispensers, and training items and coordinates transportation?

A

Materiel section.

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56
Q

What is the key to any successful military operation?

A

A well thought out plan.

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57
Q

What is an OPLAN?

A

Any plan, except for the single integrated operational plan, for the conduct of military operations

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58
Q

Within which annex listed in the OPLAN would you find nonnuclear munitions requirements?

A

Annex D.

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59
Q

What is the IGESP?

A

A plan that is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence, and are fully
developed by the planning efforts of many functional experts. The IGESP translates major command
operation planning concepts into base level capabilities to support forces.

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60
Q

What is the ESP?

A

A plan that is primarily associated with locations without a permanent Air Force presence and may contain
only the minimum data necessary to make initial beddown decisions. ESPs may be developed in short time frames to meet contingency needs without full coordination.

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61
Q

What is the MEP?

A

A plan tailored specifically to munitions operations to support the OPLAN tasking. Munitions flight
supervision develops the MEP to provide detailed guidance for conducting munitions operations when the
IGESP is not sufficient or does not exist using other plans so that we know our tasking.

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62
Q

When developing a MEP what is the most efficient way to identify resources available at a deployed location?

A

Doing a site survey

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63
Q

What is the formula to compute the daily consumption rate of munitions?

A

Primary aircraft authorization x sortie rate x standard configuration load x expenditure per sortie factor.

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64
Q

What are the 4 orders used to direct preparation, planning, development, and execution plans in response to crises?

A

Warning, planning, alert, and execute

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65
Q

What initiates the supporting and supported command to develop a course of action?

A

The WARNORD

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66
Q

When is an ALERTORD issued?

A

When the situation requires continued execution planning after the warning or planning order is issued.

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67
Q

Who is authorized to issue the EXORD, and what is its purpose?

A

The Secretary of Defense, and to direct the deployment and/or employment of forces.

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68
Q

What type of inspection is the foundation of the AFIS?

A

Internal

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69
Q

Who typically performs external inspections for a unit within a wing?

A

Outside agencies, like MAJCOM IG teams

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70
Q

If overhead protection is not available, what can you use to protect critical assets?

A

Barrier materials.

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71
Q

Who must ensure requirements for permanently covered bomb build areas, vehicle/AGE storage
shelters, and covered munitions trailer holding areas are developed and constructed?

A

Commanders and munitions flight officers/chiefs.

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72
Q

Which munitions flight element serves as the UCC?

A

Munitions control.

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73
Q

List two items that controlling activities should do when operating in a contaminated environment.

A

Limit personnel movement to only those conducting critical mission operations.
Use contaminated assets only when uncontaminated resources are unavailable.

74
Q

What can be used to remove chemical agents in dust form?

A

Five percent chlorine solution

75
Q

Why should the decontamination of munitions assets begin as soon as possible after an attack?

A

To achieve the highest percentage of decon effectiveness.

76
Q

What chemical decontamination kit is used on equipment and munitions and what type of liquid
solution?

A

M295 kit and a five percent chlorine bleach solution or soap and water.

77
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or
compromise would result in great harm to strategic capability of the US?

A

PL1.

78
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or
compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the US?

A

PL2.

79
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or
compromise would damage the US war-fighting capability?

A

PL3.

80
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of PL1, PL2, or
PL3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would adversely
affect the operational capability of the Air Force?

A

PL4

81
Q

Name the two security areas where an ammo troop will likely perform their duties

A

(1) Restricted areas.

(2) Controlled areas.

82
Q

What distance is a boundary for a close-in security area from the resource?

A

No closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet from the resource, except when an individual resource
IDS is used. In that case, no closer than 10 feet, but it can be further than 60 feet, depending on the
individual sensor characteristics and the area configuration.

83
Q

What resources are generally stored within a controlled area?

A

PL4 (CAT 1, 2, 3 munitions)

84
Q

Give an example of when a NDA may be used.

A

Unplanned emergency dispersal of aircraft to civilian airports.
Emergency landings of aircraft carrying nuclear weapons

85
Q

What must you have prior to being authorized regular access to a security area?

A

A regular need for entry into the area.

86
Q

What munitions items are assigned CIIC, and what is the intended purpose of the codes?

A

All munitions items are assigned a CIIC; to identify the degree of security that must be applied to an item
while the item is in storage or in transit.

87
Q

What are the four categories of the CIICs?

A

Classified, sensitive, pilferable, and unclassified

88
Q

Who assigns CIICs to munitions items?

A

The item manager

89
Q

What type of items fall into the sensitive category, and what type of protection and control is
required?

A

Includes such items as narcotics and drug abuse items; precious metals; items which are of high value,
highly technical, or of a hazardous nature; and small arms, ammunition, explosives and demolition material.
This type of material requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or
regulations.

90
Q

What type of items fall into the pilferage category, and what type of protection and control is
required?

A

Includes items such as aircraft engines, hand tools and shop equipment, firearms, ammunition and
explosives, individual clothing and equipment, office machines, photographer equipment and supplies,
communication/electronic equipment and parts, and vehicular equipment and parts. These items require
special control to prevent pilferage but which do not meet the definition of any other pilferage code,

91
Q

What type of items fall into very-high-risk category I?

A

Complete man-portable nonnuclear missiles and rockets when in a ready to fire configuration (i.e., Redeye, Stinger, and LAW).

92
Q

When an item is assigned a pilferable code, what does that indicate about the item?

A

Item has ready resale value or civilian utility application and subject to theft.

93
Q

What are the two conditions required for an OPSEC vulnerability?

A

There is a weakness that could reveal critical information.

There is an adversary with both the intent and the capability to exploit that weakness (i.e., a threat).

94
Q

What are three operations indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Specialized equipment.
Specialized training.
Increased telephone calls, conferences, and longer working hours (including weekends).

95
Q

What are three communications indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Specialized and unique communications equipment.
Power sources.
Increases and decreases in communications traffic.

96
Q

What are three administrative indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Military orders.
Distinctive emblems, logos, and other markings on personnel, equipment.
Supplies

97
Q

What are three logistics and maintenance support indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Unique sized and shaped boxes, tanks, and other containers.
Prepositioned equipment.
Technical representatives.

98
Q

What are the major goals of the AF nuclear surety program?

A

To achieve maximum safety consistent with operational requirements, to maintain our record of zero
accidental or unauthorized nuclear yields and to reduce the potential for, and the possible effects of, nuclear
mishaps.

99
Q

What are the criteria for the selection and retention of individuals who work around nuclear
weapons?

A

Individuals who are emotionally stable and have demonstrated good judgment and professional
competence

100
Q

What are the two PRP positions?

A

Critical and controlled.

101
Q

Who is responsible for the certification of personnel into the PRP?

A

The commander

102
Q

What are at least three mandatory selection requirements a person must meet prior to being
placed in a PRP position.

A

Meet the minimum standard of “S–1” of the physical profile series. The S stands for “psychiatric,”
and the 1 indicates “no psychiatric disorder.”
Have the technical competence needed to perform the duties assigned.
Have the required security clearance or investigation

103
Q

What are the requirements for individuals who make up a two-person concept team?

A

Individuals are certified under PRP, know the nuclear surety requirements of the task they perform, can
promptly detect an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure, have successfully completed nuclear surety
training, and are designated to perform the required task.

104
Q

When may a two-person team member go unobserved temporarily?

A

Momentarily, when performing certain tasks

105
Q

What is each team member’s responsibility in the two-person concept?

A

To enforce the two-person concept until relieved by authorized personnel or until the nuclear weapon or
critical component is secured, take immediate, positive steps to prevent or stop incorrect procedures or
unauthorized acts, and report deviations immediately to the appropriate supervisor.

106
Q

When are you authorized to deviate from the two-person concept?

A

When the nuclear weapon system safety rules specifically authorize a deviation or during an emergency
that presents an immediate threat to the safety of personnel or the security of a nuclear weapon or critical
component.

107
Q

What are three personnel restrictions to watch for while performing two-person duties?

A

Two interim-certified individuals may not form a two-person concept team.
A person who does not qualify as a member of a two-person concept team may enter a no-lone zone
to perform a task only if escorted by a two-person concept team.
Entry controllers may not form a two-person concept team with people inside the no-lone zone.

108
Q

What is a no-lone zone?

A

An area where no lone individual is authorized and where the two-person concept must be enforced because it contains nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon systems, or critical components.

109
Q

The “Dull Sword” is a flag word used to identify what?

A

A nuclear weapon safety deficiency not falling into the accident or incident categories.

110
Q

What AFI provides detailed criteria for Dull Sword categories?

A

AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports

111
Q

What are three events or conditions involving Nuclear Weapons that are classified as a Dull
Sword?

A

Minor weapons damage (safety related).
Malfunction, failure, or anomaly that results in damage to nuclear weapons systems due to sources of
electrical energy (lightning, over voltage, power fluctuations).
Exposure of nuclear weapons or nuclear component to any natural phenomenon in which man has no
control (that is, earthquake or floods).

112
Q

What are three events or conditions involving Nuclear Certified Support Equipment that are
classified as a Dull Sword?

A

Stability, steering or brake system problems that affect the safe steering, stopping, towing, or holding
in park of a tow or transport vehicle (cargo, loading, or lifting).
Defects or failures in vehicle structural members (including the pintle hooks and mounting structure,
fifth wheels) that support the load or transmit the towing or braking force.
Inadequate restraint of loads attributed to trailer tiedown points or tiedown patterns.

113
Q

Where does the authority originate for the Air Force to develop its mishap prevention program?

A

Federal law and DOD directives and instructions.

114
Q

What sections can make up the safety branch at a flying unit?

A

Ground, flight, missile, explosives, and nuclear safety sections.

115
Q

What is the primary function of the safety office?

A

To provide the base commander and subordinate units a central point of expertise in flight, ground, and
weapons safety.

116
Q

Who is responsible for enforcing all safety requirements and standards within their specific area
or activity?

A

Supervisors.

117
Q

Who is responsible for understanding and observing the safety standards that have been
established to prevent injury to themselves and others, or damage to equipment and property?

A

Everyone.

118
Q

What are the two major categories of human factors contributing to hazards in the work place?

A

Mental and physical.

119
Q

What is the primary cause of common materials handling injuries such as strains, sprains,
fractures, and bruises?

A

Unsafe work practices.

120
Q

What is the best way to reduce back injuries?

A

Reduce exposure.

121
Q

Explain the main purpose of vegetation control.

A

Limit the probability of combustible vegetation causing an unacceptable hazard to munitions in storage

122
Q

What is the fire extinguisher requirement for an explosive laden vehicle?

A

At least two portable 2A: 10BC rated extinguishers.

123
Q

What is static electricity?

A

A hazard created when charges accumulate to the point where an uncontrolled discharge occurs through, or
in the presence of, a hazardous substance susceptible to initiation.

124
Q

The DOD hazard classification system is based on the system recommended for international use
by which organization?

A

The United Nations.

125
Q

What criterion is used to subdivide ammunition and explosives into hazard classes?

A

The hazard and its potential for injury or damage.

126
Q

What are the principle hazards of hazard class/division 1.1?

A

Blast and mass detonation.

127
Q

Explain which type of items fall into hazard class/division 1.5

A

Items that have a mass explosive hazard but are so insensitive that there is very little probability of
initiation or of transition from burning to detonation under normal conditions of transport.

128
Q

What form is used to report a hazard?

A

AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

129
Q

Which TO will help you find another TO by using an alphabetical listing?

A

TO 00–5–18, Method & Procedures Air Force Technical Order Numbering System

130
Q

Which TO WP contains packaging requirements (refer to the work package table above)?

A

Work package 6.

131
Q

What are the four qualifications a supervisor must have with regards to explosives safety

A

Be knowledgeable of all the hazards involved in the operation.
Convey emergency procedures to the workers and visitors.
Maintain strict housekeeping standards.
Know what steps to take when abnormal conditions arise.

132
Q

What is the basic concept of explosives safety?

A

Preventing the premature, unintentional, or unauthorized initiation of explosives and devices containing
explosives and minimizing the effects of explosions, combustion, toxicity, and any other harmful effects.

133
Q

Where do you find the criteria (procedures) for specific munitions and operations?

A

Technical publications and other standard publications such as command and local directives.

134
Q

What is the purpose behind the development of local written explosive operations procedures?

A

To give detailed guidance when explosives operations are not covered in sufficient detail by other standard
publications, such as technical orders or MAJCOM OIs.

135
Q

What is the purpose of the pretask safety briefing?

A

To ensure all operating personnel have the same degree of knowledge regarding the completion of the task.

136
Q

What is the minimum withdrawal distance of HC/D 1.2 items involved in a fire?

A

2,500 feet.

137
Q

Besides the missile itself, what other items should be considered under missile safety for their
mishap potential?

A

Ground support and operational equipment, personnel, and the operational environment.

138
Q

What must be followed to provide safe operations within the missile environment?

A

A positive mishap prevention program.

139
Q

Why are FFOs so hazardous?

A

Because of their directional response and potentially long-range effect if activated inadvertently on the
ground

140
Q

Explain INRAD.

A

Refers to the ionizing radiation emitted from the radioactive materials in the components of a nuclear
weapon. It is the radiation inherent to the design of nuclear weapons

141
Q

Who must comply with the ALARA concept?

A

Units with a nuclear contingency or limited nuclear mission

142
Q

List the primary methods to achieve the ALARA concept.

A

Minimize the time individuals spend near weapon systems.
Increase personnel distance from weapon systems.
Use shielding.
Take a combination of these actions.

143
Q

What are the radiation limits for occupationally exposed workers and pregnant females?

A

For occupationally exposed workers - 5,000 mrems (5 rems); for pregnant females - 500 mrems

144
Q

When engineering design cannot reduce radiation exposure to acceptable levels, what other
methods are used?

A

Personal protective procedures and administrative controls, such as time restrictions.

145
Q

What are four ways to reduce the time spent near weapons?

A

Plan the work to be performed before the start of the operation.
Gather necessary tools, tech data, and materials needed for the work.
Avoid any unnecessary work near the weapons.
Consolidate work requirements to minimize the total time required in the nuclear weapons
maintenance areas.

146
Q

What are two advantages of establishing a bench stock?

A

The required items are on hand instead of in base supply.

Communication and transportation requirements are reduced between the users and base supply

147
Q

What are two disadvantages of establishing a bench stock?

A

Considerable effort is required, on the part of base supply and the maintenance activity, to establish
and maintain bench stocks.
A location, which can be secured, is required in the shop where the bench stock is located

148
Q

Each item approved for bench stock is assigned a 14-digit document number consisting of what
elements of data?

A

Activity code, organization code, shop code, DOLD, and item number

149
Q

MRA and MAQ are terms associated with bench stock items when stock levels are not
determined by what method?

A

Consumption of the item(s).

150
Q

How often should bench stock items be replenished?

A

Once every 30 days or more often if necessary

151
Q

Who has the responsibility to keep government property in operational and in the best possible
condition?

A

All AF members.

152
Q

What are two requirements a container must meet before it is considered reusable?

A

Protect serviceable items against natural and induced environments and physical damage. Protect
unserviceable items against further deterioration when returned to the depot or manufacturer.
Be capable of being opened and closed without impairing the container’s ability to provide its original
level of protection.

153
Q

Long-life containers should withstand at least how many trips?

A

100.

154
Q

Short-life containers should withstand at least how many trips?

A

10

155
Q

When does a reusable container lose its identity?

A

When it contains munitions or missile items.

156
Q

How many spare containers should a unit retain?

A

Enough to break down all built-up complete rounds

157
Q

What is the purpose of maintenance data documentation (MDD) collection?

A

To provide managers at all levels with information about jobs performed by each organization or work
center.

158
Q

How does analysis of the collected data assist managers?

A

By identifying problem areas. Management actions can then be exercised to meet and support operation and
maintenance requirements.

159
Q

Where would you look to find rules and procedures concerning data management?

A

TO 00–20–2, AFI 21 series, system user manuals, and MAJCOM implementing directives

160
Q

Name the MDD system used at most bases to document daily maintenance actions

A

IMDS

161
Q

Who is responsible for making certain that all maintenance documentation is complete and
accurate?

A

The performing work center supervisor

162
Q

What are the four types of maintenance performed on munitions equipment?

A

(1) Preventive, (2) Periodic, (3) Unscheduled maintenance, and (4)In-progress/end-item inspections.

163
Q

Which type of maintenance is performed after a specified period of miles or hours of operation
are compiled against a vehicle or piece of equipment?

A

Preventive.

164
Q

Which type of maintenance are you performing when you are following a TCTO?

A

Periodic.

165
Q

Which type of maintenance is performed when it is not predicted, planned, or programmed?

A

Unscheduled.

166
Q

What is the purpose of AFTO Form 95?

A

To provide a method of maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions for support and
training equipment and other components designated by higher authority (e.g., MAJCOM and the LG).

167
Q

What should you annotate in the “Remarks” block of AFTO Form 95?

A

Any condition that could have a bearing on future maintenance of the equipment.

168
Q

What information is recorded on AFTO Form 244?

A

Maintenance, inspection, and historical data for SE and training equipment. It documents delayed
discrepancies and corrective actions, service, periodic and special inspections, and inspection status.

169
Q

What three locations on the AFTO Form 244 are name entries required??

A

DISCOVERED BY, CORRECTED BY, and INSPECTED BY blocks

170
Q

What is the purpose of red symbols?

A

To alert users and maintenance technicians as to the status of an item of equipment

171
Q

Name the three red symbols from the most serious condition to the least serious condition

A

Red X, red dash, and the red diagonal.

172
Q

What’s the definition of reliability?

A

The ability of a system and its parts to perform its mission without failure, degradation, or demand on the
support system.

173
Q

What is maintainability?

A

The measure of the ability of an item to be retained in (preventive) or restored to (corrective) a specified
condition when maintenance is performed by personnel having specific skills, using prescribed procedures
and resources, at each prescribed level of maintenance and repair.

174
Q

What is the purpose of RAMS?

A

To provide an accurate means of assessing present performance levels, as well as predicting future
reliability standards for Air Force AIM and AGM assets.

175
Q

What are the three levels of maintenance?

A

Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

176
Q

How do failure trends fit into the RAMS program?

A

They may affect engineering changes resulting in systems improvement.

177
Q

What is the purpose of TMRS?

A

To track and report important information about tactical missiles and missile components. Also, to give the
missile maintenance or storage manager visibility of missile and component identification, inspection,
TCTOs, time change, serviceability, and location data.

178
Q

Which missile systems are tracked in TMRS?

A

AIM–7, AIM–9, AIM–120, AGM–45, AGM–65, AGM–88, and GBUs.

179
Q

What does the missile update menu allow you to do?

A

Update complete missile record, missile component data, missile PE data, missile IPI data, missile TCTO
data, missile location data, missile flight hour data, and missile component failure information

180
Q

Which type of unassembled components can be tracked using TMRS?

A

Both serviceable and unserviceable

181
Q

How can you activate the online user’s manual in the TMRS program?

A

While in the system, press the F5 key.

2w0 CDCs (13 decks)

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