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2w0 CDCs > Set A Vol 3 Self Test > Flashcards

Set A Vol 3 Self Test Flashcards

1
Q

Who appoints munitions inspectors?

A

Flight chiefs or their equivalent

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2
Q

What is the minimum skill level required for an active duty person to be a certified munitions
inspector?

A

The 5 skill level

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3
Q

List three responsibilities of a munitions inspector

A

Informs the MASO, munitions control, and munitions supervision immediately upon receipt or
notifications of restricted or suspended munitions through CMRS that affect munitions serviceability.
Monitor shelf/service life dates by reviewing CAS and coordinate changes/updates with the MASO.
Determine and assign appropriate condition codes to all munitions assets as directed by applicable
TOs; initiate, maintain, and process applicable documents and historical records; ensure munitions
assets are properly tagged, marked, and packed.
Verify accuracy of inspection documentation and signs inspection form(s) as applicable; establish and
manage the SMI program

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4
Q

This type of corrosion affects the form, fit or function of

an item.

A

Major corrosion

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5
Q

Any nonconformance within specified requirements

A

Defect

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6
Q

A defect likely to result in hazardous or unsafe

conditions

A

Critical defect

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7
Q

A defect that reduces materially the usability of the item

A

Major defect

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8
Q

An item whose explosive material has been removed

and never replaced

A

Empty non-nuclear munitions item

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9
Q

The number of items selected at random for inspection

A

Sample size

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10
Q

The length of time an item can remain in storage under

prescribed packaging and storage conditions

A

Shelf life

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the munitions surveillance program?

A

To provide a high degree of confidence that munitions have not been adversely affected by storage
conditions, age, use, or the environment, and can be expected to perform as designed.

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12
Q

What TO governs the general inspection requirements for all inspections?

A

TO 11A–1–10, Air Force Munitions Surveillance Program and Serviceability Procedures.

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13
Q

When are inspectors required to open hermetically sealed containers?

A

When the specific item technical order directs that the container be opened and when the outer appearance
of the container indicates signs of damage or corrosion that may have penetrated the container.

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14
Q

List two requirements of the general inspection procedures

A
  1. Check the ammunition lot or serial number against CMRS to ensure the item(s) has not been restricted
    or suspended from use.
  2. Check the item TO, or current FED LOG disc to ensure the stock number, controlled item inventory
    code (CIIC), and nomenclature are correct.
  3. Check the external packaging for obvious defects and that the packaging is adequate to withstand
    additional handling, storage, and/or shipment.
  4. Check the external markings for the minimum required markings; verify that enough shelf and
    servicelife remains for the item’s intended use/application; and use the deficiency reporting system if
    required.
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15
Q

Which inspection incorporates reject limits in helping identify defects that reduce reliability?

A

Periodic inspection (PI).

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16
Q

What type of inspection is performed at the direction of competent authorities, the MAJCOM, or
ALC?

A

Special inspection (SPI).

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17
Q

What must you do if two condition codes apply to the same item?

A

Use the most restrictive condition code.

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18
Q

Which condition code applies if an item is issuable with qualification?

A

CC/B.

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19
Q

Which condition code applies if an item is considered unserviceable until limited restoration has
been accomplished?

A

CC/E.

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20
Q

Which condition code applies if an item is suspended in stock?

A

CC/J.

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21
Q

Which condition code applies if an item is suspended for emergency combat use only?

A

CC/N.

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22
Q

Which condition code tag identifies condition code H and P items?

A

DD Form 1577/1577–1.

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23
Q

Direct input is the preferred method of loading what type of information into CAS?

A

Inspection results.

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24
Q

What form is used to ensure that an accurate inspection history is captured when direct input is
not used?

A

AFTO IMT 102.

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25
Q

What CAS program displays condition and status of stockpile and custody assets?

A

Asset Balance Inquiry.

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26
Q

What CAS program is used by local MASOs and ESs at the ACP to provide final disposition
instructions on ADR actions?

A

Ammunition Disposition Request Process.

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27
Q

What CAS report is included with shipments to satisfy lot history record requirements IAW 11A–
1–10?

A

The lot history inspection report.

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28
Q

When you identify a discrepancy, what is the first thing you must determine?

A

If it is a shipping-type (item) discrepancy or packaging discrepancy

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29
Q

When reporting a supply discrepancy, which type of discrepancy applies if you receive an item in
the wrong condition code?

A

Shipping (item).

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30
Q

When reporting a supply discrepancy, which type of discrepancy applies if you receive an item in
the wrong container?

A

Packaging.

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31
Q

What form is used to report shipping or packaging discrepancies and contains replies from the
action activity?

A

SF 364.

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32
Q

Which discrepancy program identifies and reports problems with a carrier?

A

Transportation discrepancy report.

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33
Q

What forms are used to report transportation discrepancies?

A

SF 361 and Joint Message Form.

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34
Q

Which discrepancy program identifies deficiencies attributable to the manufacturer?

A

Product quality deficiency report.

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35
Q

Describe a Category I DR.

A

A discrepancy that if uncorrected would cause the following: death, serious injury, or severe occupational
illness; major loss or damage to equipment or a weapons system; unacceptable delays in combat or
operational readiness.

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36
Q

What TO identifies the proper marking requirements for inert and empty items?

A

TO 11A–1–53.

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37
Q

What is the definition of an inert item?

A

A munitions item or component whose explosive material has been replaced by an inert material.

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38
Q

What color identifies an item as practice?

A

Blue band.

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39
Q

What is the definition of an empty item?

A

Items whose explosives material has been completely removed, or left out at time of manufacture, and not
replaced by other materials.

40
Q

What are the marking requirements for empty items?

A

Impress and stencil the word “Empty” on the item.

41
Q

Which types of items are required to have holes drilled in the area that contained explosive
material?

A

All components stocklisted as explosive.

42
Q

What TO describes the procedures used to inspect empty containers?

A

TO 11A–1–60.

43
Q

What three areas must a person be knowledgeable of before inspecting munitions residue?

A

The precious metals recovery program, disposal of classified material, and demilitarization requirements
and procedures

44
Q

What is munitions residue?

A

The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal
functioning or demilitarization.

45
Q

What must be done to munitions residue items previously inspected if the container’s seals show
evidence of tampering?

A

Such a finding requires re-inspection and re-certification

46
Q

Where is the certificate of clearance placed for containers that are destined for reuse?

A

Inside the container.

47
Q

What is the mode of choice for shipping munitions overseas?

A

ISO container on a ship.

48
Q

During an initial inspection of an inbound shipment what do you inspect first?

A

The seals.

49
Q

What must the inchecker do if the received quantity, lot number or NSN is different from the
shipping document?

A

Circle the erroneous information on the document, enter correct information, and initial the changes

50
Q

If any transport vehicle is found or suspected to be in a hazardous condition attributable to other
than normal circumstances what action must be taken?

A

The vehicle is moved to a “suspect vehicle’ holding area, unless it is more hazardous to move the vehicle.

51
Q

What is the governing directive for munitions shipments by military air?

A

AFMAN 24–204.

52
Q

What TO helps you block and brace munitions for over-the-road travel?

A

TO 11A–1–61–1.

53
Q

Who regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?

A

The FAA.

54
Q

Who regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water in
commercial common carrier vessels?

A

The US Coast Guard.

55
Q

What is the Air Force container of choice when shipping munitions by ocean-going vessels?

A

The 20-foot-long International Organization for standardization (ISO) container

56
Q

Where can you find the criteria for inspecting the ISO container?

A

The MIL-HDBK–138B, Guide to Container Inspection for Commercial and Military Intermodal
Containers.

57
Q

What is the purpose of performance oriented packaging?

A

To keep the hazardous materials inside the container and away from people and the environment.

58
Q

The grandfathered rule applies to what items?

A

Government owned goods packaged before January 1, 1990.

59
Q

What gives you detailed instructions on how an item is packed and marked for transportation?

A

The special packaging instruction (SPI).

60
Q

What can you use to ensure that you have properly marked a container for transport?

A

The item TO, TO 11A–1–10, the SPI, MIL–STD 129/1, and the shipping publication for the mode of
transportation you are using.

61
Q

What TO can be used to verify the proper shipping name for a munitions item?

A

JHCS.

62
Q

What is the main purpose of a shipping inspection?

A

To ensure that the munitions prepared for shipment are the same as reflected on the shipping documents

63
Q

Who issues competent approval authority?

A

00-ALC.

64
Q

When would a certification of equivalency be issued?

A

When packaging does not meet CFR 49 requirements, but certifies that packaging meets or exceeds
standards to keep asset safe.

65
Q

When we enclose shipping documents in the number one container of the shipment what must
you mark the container with?

A

Documents Enclosed.

66
Q

What is the definition of a munitions storage magazine?

A

Any building or structure, except an operating building, used for the storage of explosives.

67
Q

What are the two general types of magazines?

A

Earth covered and aboveground

68
Q

What are the major differences between standard and non-standard ECMs?

A

Standard ECMs have reinforced concrete end walls and nonstandard ECMs are those igloos constructed
with other than concrete or steel arches or with other than concrete end walls.

69
Q

What is the most common type of munitions magazine?

A

Standard earth-covered arch-type igloo.

70
Q

What device ensures the ventilator flap doors close when temperatures reach a maximum of 155
to 165 °F?

A

A fusible link

71
Q

A firebreak of how many feet is required around ECM ventilators?

A

5 feet

72
Q

What is the ideal and most secure way of installing a hasp on a munitions facility?

A

Welding.

73
Q

To keep locks operating properly, how often should they be opened and closed?

A

Once a month

74
Q

What is the source document for explosives capacities and controls for your facilities?

A

The explosive site plan.

75
Q

What is quantity-distance (QD)?

A

Refers to the amount (quantity) of explosive material and the distances allowed between them and other
facilities, roads, runways, buildings, and so forth, for given degrees of protection

76
Q

What are QD principles based on?

A

The construction and type of PES; the explosives content of the PES; the construction and type of ES; the
distance separating the PES from the ES; and orientation of the PES and the ES in the case of igloos andmodules.

77
Q

List two instances when you would apply intraline distance (ILD).

A

Any two explosives operating locations; explosives operating buildings from explosives storage locations; activities that directly support the explosives operation or area

78
Q

What is inhabited building distance (IBD)?

A

The minimum allowable distance between a non-related inhabited building and an explosives location.

79
Q

List the three major types of barricades

A

Natural, artificial, and earth filled, steel bin-type.

80
Q

Why do we use fire and chemical warning signs and symbols?

A

To caution and inform anyone who may have a need to enter the area, building, or room with munitions
present.

81
Q

What actions are required if HD 1.2 items are involved in a fire?

A

Give an alarm; attempt to extinguish fire if in early stage. Fire fighting forces should fight the fire. If not, at
least prevent the spread of it. Provide protection from fragments

82
Q

If more than one fire symbol applies, which one should you use?

A

The symbol that applies to the most hazardous munitions in the facility.

83
Q

What type of symbol indicates fire division 4 is stored in a magazine?

A

A diamond.

84
Q

Name one reason the backing of fire symbols is required to be made of a noncombustible material
having the same design as the symbol.

A

In case the symbol burns off in a fire, the backing showing the design of the symbol will provide the
response forces with the information needed to determine the hazards involved.

85
Q

What exception must be followed when both nuclear and conventional munitions stored in the
same magazine?

A

Do not post symbols to facilities that hold special weapons.

86
Q

Where is the basic guidance for creating storage locations identified?

A

TO 11A–1–61–1.

87
Q

What identifies the standard location designator for munitions?

A

An 11 digit alphanumeric system.

88
Q

When are items considered compatible?

A

If they may be stored or transported together without significantly increasing either the probability of a
mishap or, for given quantity, the magnitude of the effects for such a mishap

89
Q

How many “lite” boxes are allowed in one storage location?

A

Only one per stock number, lot number, per condition code, per storage location

90
Q

What level of command normally sets the minimum requirements for the courtesy storage
agreement?

A

MAJCOM

91
Q

For what purpose was buffered storage designed and tested?

A

To increase the explosive storage capacity of limited NEW igloos within existing constraints without
increasing quantity distance separation requirements

92
Q

What type(s) of munitions are approved for use as buffers?

A

CBUs, 20 mm, and 30 mm.

93
Q

What is the maximum number of special weapons each vault can hold?

A

Four.

94
Q

Why do WS3s have an adjustable delay feature?

A

To give security forces time to respond to an unauthorized attempt to access a vault.

95
Q

What are the four major groups of a WS3?

A

The console group, monitor-indicator group, coder-transfer group, and the vault control group (vault
subsystem).

96
Q

What is the purpose of the WS3 vault control group?

A

Provides physical storage and security for special weapons and related equipment.

2w0 CDCs (13 decks)

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