Set B Vol 2 Self Test Flashcards
1
Q
What explosive do we use as the comparison to measure explosive power?
A
TNT.
2
Q
What are the economic requirements for military explosives?
A
Raw materials must be cheap and plentiful and the manufacturing process must be relatively cheap, simple, and safe. Raw materials must not be vital to other phases of the war effort.
3
Q
What is brisance?
A
The shattering or fragmentation effect of explosives.
4
Q
What term describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?
A
Volatility.
5
Q
When a military explosive does not react with the metal that encases it or with another explosive, it is said to have what characteristic?
A
A natural compatibility.
6
Q
What is meant by explosive toxicity?
A
An explosive’s poisonous characteristics.
7
Q
What is hygroscopicity?
A
The moisture-absorbing property of an explosive.
8
Q
What is the autocombustion rate of low explosives?
A
A few inches per minute to 1,300 feet per second.
9
Q
What term do we use to describe the tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion?
A
Deflagration.
10
Q
What condition is necessary for an explosive to detonate rather than deflagrate?
A
It must be confined.
11
Q
What are the basic components of an explosive train?
A
Detonator, booster, and bursting charge.
12
Q
What is a relatively small and sensitive initial component that begins the functioning of the explosive train?
A
Primer.
13
Q
What are the two means by which we can activate a detonator?
A
By the action of a primer or by a non-explosive impulse.
14
Q
What is the purpose of a delay?
A
A delay controls the timed delay in the functioning of the train.
15
Q
What does an explosive booster do?
A
Detonates a main charge.
16
Q
Of the three common explosive trains discussed here, which action—time, superquick, or delay—would cause a bomb to detonate on impact?
A
Superquick action.
17
Q
Which effect of a general-purpose bomb does the most damage: blast or fragmentation?
A
Blast.
18
Q
What effect causes greater penetration of the explosive charge?
A
Munroe effect.
19
Q
What happens when you increase the standoff distance of an explosive?
A
Its penetrating capability is increased.
20
Q
Name four weapons that use the Munroe effect.
A
(1) Artillery shells.
(2) Rocket warheads.
(3) Demolition charges.
(4) Antitank mines.
21
Q
What are the four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics?
A
Candlepower, color, weather, and light.
22
Q
What type of weather reduces the visibility range of pyrotechnics?
A
Moist weather, rain.
23
Q
How do we classify pyrotechnics?
A
According to their purpose as illuminants, signals, combinations of signal and illuminants and simulators.
24
Q
What are the two effects of signals?
A
Light and smoke
25
How can you identify pyrotechnic ammunition?
By its nomenclature, lot number, model designation, painting, marking, NSN, and DODIC.
26
How long does the AN–MK6 Mod 3 signal burn?
Approximately 40 minutes.
27
What is the candlepower rating of the AN–MK13 flare?
3,000 candlepower
28
Which day-night signal is designed to be used with only one hand?
The MK124 Mod 0.
29
How many flares does the personnel distress signal kit A/P 25S–1 contain?
Seven.
30
At what height and for how long does the A/P 25S–1 burn?
Minimum height of 300 feet for five seconds.
31
What is the A/P 25S–5A distress kit designed to do that the A/P 25S–1 is not?
Penetrate a heavy foliage canopy.
32
How long does the A/P 25S–5A distress signal kit flare burn?
Nine seconds.
33
What is the maximum height the M127A1 signal will reach?
650–700 feet.
34
What is the candlepower of the M127A1 ground illumination signal?
50,000.
35
What are the five main assemblies of the M131 ground illumination signal?
Launcher. Igniter. Delay. Parachute. Illumination composition.
36
What is the M131 signal designed to do?
To produce a distinctive red light above the ground fog, haze, or overcast.
37
What safety equipment is required for handling the MK50 Mod 0 flare?
Protective mask and butyl rubber gloves.
38
Which military weapons do we classify as “small arms”?
Those with a bore diameter (inside diameter of the barrel) of 0.50 inch or less.
39
What terms do we use to describe the measurement of small arms?
Gauge and caliber.
40
Which cartridge is the exception to shotgun gauging?
The .410 shotgun cartridge.
41
What color is the tip of an AP bullet painted?
Black.
42
Against what type of target do we use ball ammunition?
Personnel or light materiel targets.
43
What do grenade cartridges do?
Propel grenades and ground signals from rifles or carbines.
44
What is the purpose of tracer rounds?
To illuminate the path of the bullets so the gunner can correct his/her aim.
45
For what do we use noncombat ammunition?
Training and weapons testing.
46
Which type of round do we use for weapons loading training?
Dummy.
47
Why is wadcutter ammunition used?
It is used for medium-range practice and competitive shooting.
48
What is a small-arms cartridge?
A complete assembly of all components necessary to fire the weapon once.
49
What part of the cartridge case holds the projectile (bullet)?
The neck.
50
Where are the primer pocket and extracting groove located?
In the head of the cartridge.
51
What causes a bullet to spin?
The rifling in the gun barrel.
52
What is the purpose of the meplat?
Reduce the possibility of ricochet.
53
To what part of the cartridge case is the bullet crimped?
Cannelure.
54
What are the classifications of Air Force grenades?
Service, practice, and training.
55
Which grenade has a high-explosive or chemical filler?
The service grenade.
56
What are the uses for hand grenades?
Inflict casualties or damage and for screening and signaling.
57
What are some of the tactical uses of service grenades?
Fragmentation, irritant, riot control, screening smoke, signaling smoke, and incendiary.
58
What does the M26-series fragmentation grenade use for a metal body in place of the old cast-iron grenade body?
A thin metal body lined with a wire-wound coil.
59
What is the explosive filler for the M26-series grenades?
0.39 pound of composition B.
60
Why is the base of the M34 grenade tapered?
So that the grenade can be mounted on an M1A2 grenade projection adapter.
61
What is the filler agent for the M34 grenade?
15 ounces of white phosphorous (WP).
62
What are the uses of the M25-series grenades?
Riot and disturbance control.
63
Which grenades are used with the M1A2 grenade projection adapter?
Fragmentation grenades.
64
Which grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter?
Chemical grenades.
65
What publication contains guidance on the safety and handling of grenades?
AFMAN 91–201, Explosives Safety Standards, and applicable TOs.
66
Why must M34 grenades be stored fuze end up?
To avoid possible leakage of the filler.
67
What compound do you use to treat the floors of magazines used to store chemical grenades?
Sodium silicate.
68
What are some of the things that you look for in inspecting grenades?
Damaged, rusted, or poorly marked inner or outer containers. Unauthorized fuzes and for deformed or missing safety pins. Look for leaking or exuding fillers; cracks, damage, or corroded grenade body or fuze; loose fuze; lot number of fuze or grenade unknown; missing markings.
69
What is the killing agent of the M18A1 antipersonnel mine?
700 steel balls.
70
What is the effective kill range of the M18A1 mine?
100 meters.
71
When using a claymore mine, what safety precaution must you observe?
Personnel up to 100 meters to the sides and rear of these mines should take cover for protection.
72
What is the special feature that makes the M14 almost nondetectable by magnetic mine detectors?
Its practically all plastic construction.
73
What are the two limitations of the light mortars?
They have a short range and a small-explosive charge.
74
What type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?
Medium mortar (the 81-mm).
75
What is required to move heavy mortars?
Trucks or tracked mortar carriers.
76
What initiation source do we primarily use to detonate HEs?
Blasting caps.
77
Name the two types of blasting caps.
Electric and nonelectric blasting caps.
78
What is the purpose of the yellow painted bands on military safety/time fuses?
Used to estimate the length of burn during tactical situations where a test burn is not feasible
79
What is the rate of detonation for detonating cord?
Between 20,000 and 21,000 feet per second.
80
What is the purpose of the M60 igniter?
It is used to light a safety/time fuse.
81
For what do we use a flash vented squib?
It is used to ignite pyrotechnic or incendiary compositions or black powder
82
What is the purpose of the initiator well on the TNT demo block?
Receiving the initiating explosive/charge.
83
What is the advantage of military dynamite over commercial dynamite?
Military dynamite is safer to store, transport and handle.
84
What is the purpose of the M1A4 priming adapter?
It is used to secure electric or nonelectric blasting caps in a threaded activator well of a demolition charge
85
What is the M1 clip used to hold together?
Two strands of detonating cord.
86
How do we classify fuzes?
By their position, action, and method of arming.
87
Name the types of fuze action.
Impact, time, and proximity.
88
What principle of detonation does the proximity fuze use?
Once the bomb reaches the preset HOF, it detonates
89
What are the two main types of fuze arming?
Mechanically timed and electronically timed.
90
What are the most common safety features found in bomb fuzes?
Seal wires, cotter pins, safety blocks, and the detonator safe feature.
91
What safety device is normally installed at the time of manufacture?
Safety blocks.
92
When do you remove the sealing wire from an M904 nose fuze?
Prior to takeoff.
93
What is the purpose of the empty delay cavity on the M904 and M905 fuze?
It acts as an interrupter to the explosive train of the fuze during handling.
94
Which adapter booster do we use with the M904 fuze?
T45 adapter booster.
95
What provides the rotational force required to arm the M905 fuze?
ATU–35-series drive assembly.
96
What happens to the FMU–54/B fuze if the fin malfunctions?
The fuze will not arm.
97
What provides ground handling safety for the FMU–54?
The safing pin.
98
Name at least three different electrical fuzes.
(1) FMU–81.
(2) FMU–124.
(3) FMU–139.
(4) FMU–143.
(5) FMU–152.
99
How many FZU–2/B boosters are required for use when an FMU–81/B fuze is installed in the tail of a bomb?
One.
100
Which fuze has only one safety device that is installed through the safety release shaft and safety device assembly?
FMU–124.
101
Which fuze(s) is used by both the Navy and the Air Force?
(1) FMU–139.
| (2) FMU–152.
102
What provides electrical power in the FMU–139A/B fuze?
FZU–48 initiator.
103
What provides electrical power in the FMU–143 series fuze?
FZU–32 initiator.
104
What capability does the FMU–152 series fuze provide?
Hardened target capability that provides safing, in-flight cockpit selection, and arming fuzing functions for general–purpose and penetrating, unitary warheads.
105
What provides electrical power in the FMU–152 series fuze?
FZU–55 initiator.
106
What type of sensor is the DSU–33?
Doppler ranging radar proximity sensor.
107
List the types of munitions that use the DSU–33.
M117; Mk 80-series general-purpose bombs; JDAM.
108
Which tail fuzes are employed with the DSU–33?
(1) FMU–139.
| (2) FMU–152.
109
Which dispenser(s) uses the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?
The SUU–64/B, SUU–65/B and SUU–66B.
110
What are the function height settings for the FZU–39/B?
Ranges from 300 to 3,000 feet.
111
Which booster does the FMU–113/B fuze use?
The FZU–2/B booster.
112
What indicates the FMU–113/B fuze is armed?
Any position of the armed indicator that is red.
113
How much of the assembled M117 series bomb weight is the explosive charge?
Approximately 45 percent.
114
Which conical fin does the M117 use?
MAU–103 fin.
115
Which AIR fin does the M117 use?
BSU–93/B fin.
116
What are the combined effects of the MK80 series bombs?
Blast, penetration, and fragmentation.
117
Which MK80 series bomb weighs approximately 500 pounds?
MK82 series.
118
How can an MK82 series bomb produce a mining or penetrating effect?
By using delayed action fuze.
119
Which fin is designed for high-speed, low-altitude delivery on the MK82 series bomb?
The BSU–49/B.
120
What is the NEW of the MK84 bomb?
945.
121
What are penetrator bombs designed to do?
Designed to be used on hardened targets. Examples are HAS, reinforced concrete buildings, underground command and control facilities, and runways.
122
What are the four penetrator bombs the Air Force uses?
(1) BLU–109 series.
(2) BLU–113 series.
(3) BLU–118 series.
(4) BLU–122 series.
123
What is the BLU–109/B penetrator bomb capable of doing?
It can penetrate four to six feet of reinforced concrete.
124
What penetrator is a 4,000-pound class penetrator bomb?
BLU–113.
125
Which penetrator is used as the warhead for the GBU–28 A/B and GBU–28 B/B?
BLU–113.
126
What penetrator bomb was designed to be more lethal in confined spaces?
BLU–118.
127
What penetrator is a 5,000-pound class bomb?
BLU–122.
128
What munition does the external appearance of the M129 resemble?
M117 750-pound GP bomb.
129
What is the payload of the M129 series bomb?
110 paper rolls.
130
What separates the two bomb halves of the M129 series leaflet and MJU–1 series countermeasure bomb?
Detonating cord.
131
What bomb was developed to drop leaflets from high-performance aircrafts?
PDU–5/B
132
What bomb was developed to drop leaflets from high-performance aircrafts?
Situations where friendly forces and/or civilians are close to the target.
133
What is the NEW of the BLU–126/B LCDB?
27 pounds.
134
Why does the Air Force use practice bombs?
To provide a low-cost target practice for the flight crews of fighter and bomber aircraft.
135
When is the CXU–3A/B spotting charge used?
When the danger of starting brush or forest fires is high.
136
What practice bomb simulates the MK82 high-drag bomb?
The BDU–48/B.
137
What live item does the MK106 simulate?
Retarded nuclear weapon.
138
Which CBU–87 series bomb comes equipped with a dummy proximity sensor?
The CBU–87/B.
139
Explain how a CBU–87 functions.
When the mechanical timer expires or the HOF setting for the proximity sensor is reached, an explosive bolt functions allowing the fins to cant and spin the dispenser. When the dispenser reaches a preset rpm, the LSCC functions and cuts the dispenser into three sections from front to rear.
140
What type of bomblets are used in the CBU–87?
Anti-materiel/anti-tank.
141
Which bomblets are loaded in the CBU–87?
BLU–97/B and the BLU–97A/B.
142
What is the major difference between the CBU–89/B and CBU–87/B?
They are physically the same except the CBU–89/B does not have canted fins, an explosive bolt, and it utilizes the SUU–64 dispenser.
143
How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in the CBU–89?
72 each BLU–91/B bomblets and 22 each BLU–92/B mines.
144
In what configuration is the CBU–89/B delivered from the manufacturer?
They are delivered as a complete round with bomb lugs, arming wires, all internal components, and a dummy FZU–39/B sensor installed.
145
For what type of target are the BLU–91/B bomblets designed?
Tanks.
146
How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in a CBU–97/B?
10 each BLU–108/B submunitions.
147
For what type of target is the CBU–97 series designed?
Tanks and armored support vehicles.
148
What CBU–97 series device destroys the target when it’s detected?
An explosive forged penetrating projectile is fired, destroying the target through kinetic energy.
149
Which CBU series is considered to be wind-corrected munitions?
(1) CBU–103.
(2) CBU–104.
(3) CBU–105.
150
Where is the WCMD kit mounted on the CBU–103, –104, and –105 dispenser bodies?
In the tail, replacing the fins.
151
What components make up the WCMD kit?
A fin guidance system, variable position umbilical connector, operational flight program software, fin release lanyard, and a fin release safing pin.
152
How does the WCMD function?
The WCMD tail kit provides guidance and navigation during free flight. Correction for wind effects, ballistics dispersion and launch transients for munitions delivered from high altitude are communicated with the carrier aircraft prior to weapon separation. The CAA cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight.
153
How are 20 mm cartridges classified?
According to their purpose.
154
How is an API round initiated?
On impact.
155
What is the SAPHEI PGU–28 series round used for?
Aircraft and light materiel targets.
156
What are the combat effects of an HEI round?
It is a combined explosive and incendiary effect.
157
Name two uses for 20 mm dummy ammo
Testing feeder assemblies after maintenance and for drill.
158
The 20 mm cartridge case is usually made of what material?
Usually brass
159
What prevents the gas from escaping past the projectile when the round is fired?
The rotating band.
160
What is the purpose of the bourrelet?
It acts as a forward-bearing surface to prevent the projectile from wobbling as it passes through the bore.
161
What do the other chemicals in double-base propellant do?
They minimize smoke and flash, increase stability, and permit uniform loading during manufacture.
162
Which 20 mm round requires a fuze to detonate the projectile?
The HEI round.
163
What is the safety feature of the M505 fuze?
The fuze is bore safe.
164
How does the M505 fuze arm?
Centrifugal force caused by the spinning of the projectile.
165
How can we identify 20 mm ammunition?
By model number, lot number, and manufacturer’s symbol, all of which are marked or stamped on the side of the projectile.
166
Where and when is the lot number assigned?
At the manufacturing plant at the time of manufacture.
167
Remember, all of the components of a 20 mm round have a lot number assigned to them. Where is the lot number located that is used to control a complete round?
On the side of the projectile.
168
Is a 20 mm target practice round live or inert?
The projectile is inert and the cartridge is live.
169
What Air Force aircraft fires the 25 mm round?
The AC–130 gunship.
170
What cannon fires the 25 mm round?
The GAU–12 cannon.
171
How do we classify 25 mm ammo?
According to its purpose.
172
What is the one difference between the components of a 20 mm round and a 25 mm round?
The 25 mm round has an ignition booster to ensure consistent propellant ignition.
173
Which 25 mm round(s) uses the M115 percussion primer?
They all do.
174
What fuze is used in the 25 mm HEI round?
M505.
175
What color is 25 mm dummy ammo?
Gold.
176
What markings can you find on the cartridge case of 25 mm ammo?
Caliber, type of projectile, designation, and drawing reference number.
177
How are 25 mm rounds packaged?
Bulk 25 mm ammunition is packaged in either 80- or 100-round configurations depending on the NSN.
178
How do we classify 30 mm ammo?
According to its purpose.
179
The PGU–15 30 mm round used for what purpose?
Pilot training, weapon testing, and aircraft system checkout.
180
What impact fuze is used on the 30 mm HEI round?
M505A3.
181
How far from the muzzle of the barrel is the fuze fully armed?
30–65 feet.
182
What are the two purposes of the fumer charge in the API and APIT rounds?
Reduce air drag during flight to the target and to give a visible trace of the flight path.
183
What produces the heat and incendiary effects of the API round?
Target friction.
184
What does the projectile retaining screw in the PGU–16/A dummy round do?
It holds the projectile in the cartridge and simulates the weight of the propellant and the center of gravity of the round.
185
The 30 mm cartridge case is made of what material?
Aluminum.
186
What type of propellant does the 30 mm round use?
Double-base.
187
How can you identify 30 mm ammo?
By its model number, lot number, part number, and color coding.
188
What color(s) are API and APIT rounds painted?
Both rounds have a black projectile with a red band and white markings.
189
What color are dummy rounds painted?
Bronze or gold projectile with black markings.
190
Where is the ammunition lot number stamped?
On the side of the cartridge case.
191
How is ammunition for M2A1 cannon classified?
According to the type of projectile and/or fuze.
192
Which round has a red tracer composition and an M69 dummy fuze?
40 mm AAA target practice tracer (TPT) round.
193
What fuze does the PGU–9 C/B round use?
FMU–154/B fuze.
194
What is the minimum specification no arm distance for the FMU–154/B?
140 feet.
195
What is the function of the MK1 ammunition box?
Holds four MK 4, MK 5 or MK 6 clips for a total of 16 rounds.
196
What is the classification of 105 mm ammo the Air Force currently uses?
Fixed.
197
Why is the 105 mm HE round used?
Conventional fire support for harassment and interdiction, fragmentation, mining, and blast effect.
198
What point detonating fuze is used with the PGU–44/B?
FMU–153.
199
What round produces approximately 13,000 fragments upon detonation?
HF PGU–45/B.
200
If the proximity mode fails, how does the FMU–160/B fuze detonate?
By impact (point detonating backup).
201
What is the NEW of the inert PGU–43/B TP round with live supplementary charge?
0.3 pound TNT supplementary charge.
202
What cartridge is designed to clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon?
105 mm, clearing.
203
Which military aircraft carry countermeasure flare/decoy flares?
All major tactical fighters, current bombers, and cargo aircraft.
204
What is used to safe an ALA–17 flare for handling?
Shorting clip.
205
What is the maximum number of MJU–7-series flares that the MJU–12 flare magazine holds?
15.
206
Why is the SD–206 Smokey Devil flare simulator used?
It is a simulator loaded and dispensed the same as the M206 but instead of burning, it provides a yellowish smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes.
207
What countermeasure consists of a towed decoy?
AN/ALE–50 TDS.
208
What is the maximum number of decoys that can be carried on a B–1B?
Eight.
209
What is meant by “frequency reflecting dipoles”?
Metallic strips cut to match different RF wavelengths.
210
What is the purpose of chaff munitions?
They are used to scramble enemy radar signal returns.
211
What is the candlepower range for aircraft parachute flares?
60,000–2,000,000 candlepower.
212
How do most aircraft parachute flares extend their illumination time?
By using parachutes.
213
What is the purpose of illumination flares?
Provide illumination for reconnaissance, bombardment, emergency night landings, or search and rescue.
214
What is the purpose of target marker flares?
They mark an area on the ground and provide a colored flame which is distinguishable in the presence of other burning illumination flares.
215
What is the average burning time of the LUU–1/B target marker flare?
30 minutes.
216
What color light does the LUU–5/B provide?
Green.
217
What type of illumination does the LUU–19 series flare provide?
Near-infrared region for use with night vision goggles.
218
How many LUU series flares can the SUU–25E/A hold?
Eight.
219
What is the most noticeable difference between the SUU–25E/A and the SUU–25F/A?
The SUU–25E/A has a five-ohm toggle switch located in the center manifold on the forward bulkhead.
220
How are flares ejected from the SUU–25E/A?
Rearward by gas pressure supplied by an impulse cartridge.
221
Which impulse cartridge is used in the SUU–25?
ARD 863–1.
222
What is a CAD?
A device that uses a self-contained removable explosive cartridge to provide a source of gas pressure to perform its intended function.
223
When are mechanically operated initiators fired?
When the initiator pin is withdrawn by a force of 20–35 pounds.
224
How are gas fired initiators activated?
When gas pressure is supplied from an initiator or other CAD, its force on the firing pin shears the shear pin and propels the firing pin against the cartridge.
225
What do thrusters do?
Position ejection seats, stow control columns, and open the canopy or escape hatch locks.
226
What are catapults designed to do?
Eject the pilot’s seat and the pilot from an aircraft under emergency situations.
227
What do removers do?
Jettison the canopy forcibly from the aircraft.
228
What is a PAD?
A device that uses a propellant that is an integral part of the device to provide a source of gas pressure to perform its intended function.
229
Why are impulse cartridges used?
They furnish explosive power to separate bombs, fuel tanks, missiles, and other stores from aircraft.
230
Name the two types of impulse cartridges
Explosive and nonexplosive.
231
How is a typical impulse cartridge fired?
Electrical initiation.
232
When does the service life of an impulse cartridge start?
When the hermetically sealed container is opened.
233
What precaution must you remember to take when handling impulse cartridges?
Ground yourself.
234
What is a major hazard of PADs?
EMR, static electricity, or RF energy.
235
When may you remove shunts, clips, and other shorting devices from a PAD?
For continuity testing or for installation of the device.
