Sepsis Flashcards

1
Q

define sepsis

A

life threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysregulated host response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define septic shock

A

sepsis with persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain MAP >65mmHg and having serum lactate of >2mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what scoring system can be used to assess a patient (>18yrs) with a suspected infection their risk of needing a prolonged stay in the ICU ?

A

qSOFA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the categories for the qSOFA scoring system?

A

> altered mental state
hypotension (systolic BP less than 100mHg)
tachypnoea (>22/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a qSOFA outcome of more than two suggest what?

A

a poorer outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

define SIRS ( septic inflammatory response syndrome)

A

2 or more of the following features:

> temperature less than 36C more than 38C
more than 90 bpm
resp. rate.: more than 20 b/min
PaCO2 less than 4.3kPa
WBC: less than 4 X 10^9
more than 12 X 10^9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what features may be present consistent with immunosuppression?

A

> loss of delayed hypersensitivity
inability to clear infection
predisposition to nosocomial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the first phase of the pathophysiology of sepsis?

A

release of bacterial toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what bacterial toxin is released by gram negative bacteria?

A

lipopolysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what bacterial toxin is released by gram positive bacteria?

A

> super-antigens (streptococcal exotoxins, staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome)

> microbial associated molecular pattern (lipoteichoic acid, muramyl dipeptides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is stage 2 of the pathophysiology of sepsis?

A

release of mediators in response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

stage 2 pathophysiology

describe the gram negative endotoxin release

A

produce lipopolysaccharides which need a binding protein to bind to macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gram positive organisms produce lipoteichoic acid in stage 2. do they need a binding protein to bind to macrophages?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe exotoxin release in stage 2 pathophysiology

A

small amounts of super-antigens produce large amounts of mediators to be secreted creating a cascade effect leading to a cytokine storm (patients can die within a few hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do pro-inflammatory mediators lead to?

A

septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what so compensatory anti-inflammatory mediators lead to?

A

immunoparalysis

17
Q

what is phase 3 of the pathophysiology of sepsis?

A

effects of specific mediators

18
Q

what are the effects of anti-inflammatory mediators in stage 3?

A

> inhibit TNF alpha
augment cute phase reaction
inhibit activation of anticoagulation system
creates negative feedback of proinflammatory mediators

19
Q

what are the effects of pro-inflammatory mediators?

A

> hyperthermia
promotes endothelial leukocytes adhesion
releases arachidonic acid metabolites
vasodilation via NO
increases coagulation (tissue factor release and membrane coagulants)

20
Q

what does the clinical manifestation of sepsis depend on?

A

> environment (travel, hospitalisation, occupation)

> organism (virulence factor and bioburden)

> host (immunosuppression, comorbidities, splenectomy, age)

21
Q

what are the general features of sepsis?

A
> fever more than 38C
> hypothermia less than 36C (elderly and young)
> tachycardia more than 90
> tachypnoea more than 20
> altered mental state
> hyperglycaemia more than 8 mmol/l
22
Q

what inflammatory variables can present in sepsis?

A
> leucoytosis
> leucopenia (immunocompromised)
> normal WCC with >10% immature forms
> high crp
> high procalcitonin
23
Q

what haemodynamic variables can present in sepsis?

A

> arterial hypotension (MAP <70mHg)

> SvO2 >70%

24
Q

what organ dysfunction variables can present in sepsis?

A
> arterial hypoxaemia
> increased creatinine
> coagulation abnormalities
> thrombocytopenia
> hyperbilirubinemia
> ileus (lack of digestive propulsion)
25
Q

what tissue perforation variables can present in sepsis?

A

> skin mottling
capillary perfusion
increased lactate

26
Q

Name sepsis 6

A
Blood cultures
Blood lactate
Urine output
Oxygen
IV antibiotics
IV fluids
27
Q

what is type A lactate a marker of?

A

generalised hypoperfusion

28
Q

what is type B lactate a marker of?

A

> mitochondrial toxins
alcohol
malignancy
metabolism errors

29
Q

what is urine output a marker of?

A

renal dysfunction

30
Q

true or false

if the temperature spikes you should take 2 sets of blood cultures

A

true

31
Q

what is your aim for oxygen concentration in a septic patient?

A

94%-98%

32
Q

when should you refer your septic patient to HDU?

A
> decreasing BP unresponsive to fluids
> lactate >2
> oliguria
> liver dysfunction
> elevated creatinine
> bilateral infiltrates
> hypoxaemia
33
Q

when is a septic patient admitted to ITU?

A

> septic shock

> multiorgan failure

34
Q

you see a patient with an increased resp. rate, BP 90/40 and who has not passed urine in 18 hours.
they have ashen skin and cyanosis of the lips as well as a non blanching rash.

are they high, moderate or low risk for sepsis?

A

high. you would also want to check from their history for objective evidence of altered mental state.

35
Q

what in a patients history may put them at moderate risk of sepsis?

A

> history of altered metal state
acute deteriorating ability to function
impaired immune system
trauma, surgery, or invasive procedure in last 6 weeks