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4th Year Exam > Senior Surgery > Flashcards

Senior Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 clinical features of appendicitis

A
  1. Periumbilical pain localising to RLQ (worse on movement)
  2. Vomiting
  3. Fever
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2
Q

Name 3 lab tests for suspected appendicitis

A

FBC (looking for mild leukocytosis)

CPR

Urine beta-HCG (women of childbearing age)

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3
Q

Name 3 things that would contribute to complicated appendicitis

A

Gangrene

Intra-abdominal abscess

Purulent intra-abdominal fluid

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4
Q

Where is McBurney’s point?

A

1/3 of distance from ASIS to umbilicus

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5
Q

Why is flank/back pain relevant in suspected appendicitis?

A

Indicative of tip of appendix being located in retrocecal position

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6
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

Palpation of the LLQ causes pain in the RLQ (examination finding in appendicitis)

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7
Q

List 3 clinical findings in appendicitis

A
  1. Rebound tenderness
  2. Guarding
  3. Positive Rovsing’s sign
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8
Q

What is psoas sign?

A

Pain with passive right hip extension or active right thigh flexion (retrocecal appendix)

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9
Q

Give 3 risk factors of appendicitis

A

Age (15-25 is peak)
Female (until age 30)
Positive Fx

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10
Q

Give an imaging option for non-pregnant adults with suspected appendicitis

A

Abdominal CT

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11
Q

What is gold standard treatment currently for appendicitis

A

Laparoscopic appendectomy

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12
Q

Give 4 features of biliary colic

A
  1. Acute RUQ/epigastric pain
  2. N&V
  3. Dyspepsia
  4. Flatulence
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13
Q

Name 4 investigations which may be used in biliary colic

A

FBC
Amylase
CRP
Plain X-Ray

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14
Q

Define the pathophysiology of cholecystitis

A

Obstruction of cystic duct/Hartmann’s pouch

Pressure within gallbladder increases

Relative ischaemia

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15
Q

Give 4 management options for cholecystitis

A
  1. NBM then low fat diet
  2. IV fluid
  3. Analgesia
  4. Antibiotics
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16
Q

Give 2 complications of cholecystitis

A

Resolution with recurrence

Gangrene

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17
Q

List causes of pancreatitis using I GET SMASHED

A

Idiopathic

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma

Steroids 
Mumps 
Autoimmune
Scorpion sting 
Hyperlipidaemia/Hypercalcaemia 
ERCP 
Drugs
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18
Q

Give 3 features of acute pancreatitis

A

Acute epigastric pain radiating to back

N&V

Pyrexia

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19
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

Haemorrhagic discolouration around umbilical area associated with acute pancreatitis

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20
Q

What is Grey Turner’s sign?

A

Haemorrhagic discolouration of left flank associated with acute pancreatitis

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21
Q

Briefly describe the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic enzymes prematurely activated and auto-digest, triggered by anything which injures acinar cells

=Local oedema, haemorrhage and necrosis

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22
Q

Give 4 lab tests which could be used in suspected acute pancreatitis

A 
WCC (raised)
CPR (raised)
Serum amylase (>3x upper limit)
Serum lipase
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23
Q

Give 3 imaging techniques used to diagnose pancreatitis

A

MRCP
Endoscopic US
Transabdominal USS

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24
Q

Outline the modified Glasgow (PANCREAS) score for pancreatitis

A
  • PaO2 <8kPa
  • Age >55 years
  • Neutrophils WBC>15 x109
  • Calcium <2mmol/l
  • Renal function (urea >16mmol/l)
  • Enzymes (ALT/AST >200)
  • Albumin <32g/l
  • Sugar - Glucose >10mmol/l
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25
Q

Give 4 management steps for pancreatitis

A

Analgesia
Fluid
Respiratory support
NO ABX

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26
Q

Give 2 acute and 2 chronic complications of pancreatitis

A

Acute - Necrosis + haemorrhage

Chronic - Chronic pancreatitis + exocrine failure

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27
Q

How is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis diagnosed?

A

Ascitic fluid with >250 neutrophils/mm3 without intra-abdominal source of infection or malignancy

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28
Q

In which patient group is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis commonly seen?

A

Pt. with frequent life-threatening infection e.g. cirrhotic pt.

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29
Q

How is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis treated?

A

Iv ABX

IV Albumin

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30
Q

Define diverticulitis

A

Inflammation of the diverticula which is acutely symptomatic

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31
Q

Give 4 clinical features of diverticulitis

A

Acute lower abdominal pain (commonly left-sided)
Fever
N&V
Constipation or diarrhoea

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32
Q

Give 4 examination findings for diverticulitis

A

Fever
Generalised tenderness
Guarding
Distended abdomen

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33
Q

Briefly outline the pathophysiology of diverticulitis

A

Mucosa extrudes colon at weakest point

Diverticula becomes blocked or directly in contact with food/faeces

Pressure = erosion of wall leading to inflammation

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34
Q

Give 3 risk factors for diverticulitis

A

Age >40
Low fibre diet
Western societies

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35
Q

In diverticulitis, what imaging is preferred for diagnostic conformation?

A

CT abdomen

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36
Q

Give 3 conservative management options for diverticulitis

A

IV Fluid
Analgesia
IV Triple therapy

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37
Q

Give a surgical management option for diverticulitis

A

Hartmann’s procedure (sigmoid resection and end colostomy)

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38
Q

Give 4 causes of an upper GI bleed

A

Peptic Ulcer
Varices
Mallory-Weiss Tear
Oesophageal cancer

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39
Q

Give 4 risks of an upper GI bleed

A

NSAID
H. Pylori
Smoking
Alcohol

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40
Q

Which scoring system helps identify upper GI bleed patients and how safe they are for discharge?

A

Glasgow Blatchford Score

(0= low risk
>0 = increasing risk)
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41
Q

Which score estimates mortality in pt. with active upper GI bleeding who have undergone endoscopy?

A

Rockall Score

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42
Q

Give 4 ways to acutely manage an upper GI bleed

A

IV Fluid
Oxygen
Blood administration
Sengstaken tube

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43
Q

What should be used to prevent sepsis in pt. with ruptured oesophageal varices?

A

Prophylactic ABX

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44
Q

Give 4 lab tests to investigate visceral perforation

A

FBC
Amylase (mildly elevated)
Urinalysis
Beta HCG

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45
Q

Give 2 imaging options in the investigation of visceral perforation

A

Erect CXR

CT abdo/pelvis

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46
Q

What is Rigler’s sign?

A

Free intraabdominal gas adjacent to a gas-filled loop of bowel then both sides of the bowel wall are well-defined

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47
Q

Give 3 Tx options in visceral perforation

A

NG tube to free drainage
Cross-match for blood
IV PPI in upper GI perf.

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48
Q

What is a true aneurysm?

A

Involves every layer of the vessel wall

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49
Q

Give 4 risk factors for a AAA

A

Age
Male
Fx (male 1st degree relative)
Smoking

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50
Q

How does a ruptured AAA usually present?

A

Acute severe back/lower abdominal pain

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51
Q

What is the Tx of a ruptured AAA?

A

Resuscitation

Open surgery or EVAR

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52
Q

Define acute limb ischaemia

A

Sudden decrease in limb arterial perfusion with potential threat to limb survival with onset <2 weeks

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53
Q

Name 6 things to assess for when examining an acutely ischaemic limb

A 
Pallor
Mottling
Temperature
CRT
Active movement
Passive movement
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54
Q

What are the 6Ps of an acutely ischaemic limb

A 
Pain
Pallor
Paraesthesia 
Paralysis
Pulselessness
Poikilothermia (limb takes temperature of surrounding area so may not always be cold)
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55
Q

Give 3 causes of acute limb ischaemia

A

Thrombo-embolic (e.g. AF)

Aneurysm

Trauma

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56
Q

What type of imaging is nearly always needed to see the extent of limb ischaemia?

A

CT angiography or arterial duplex USS

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57
Q

Give one drug management option in treating acute limb ischaemia

A

IV Heparin

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58
Q

Outline classes of cellulitis and their management

A

I: no systemic toxicity, out-patient oral antibiotics

II: +/- systemic illness, IV hospital Abx for 48 hours

III: significant systemic disease, IV hospital Abx

IV: sepsis syndrome/NF, IV + surgery

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59
Q

How are intra-abdominal abcesses managed?

A

ABX
Drainage
Laparoscopic washout

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60
Q

Give 4 steps in the management of peritonitis

A

Resuscitate
IV ABX
CXR +/- CTAP
Theatre

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61
Q

Name 5 risk factors for gallstones

A 
Female 
Fair 
Fertile 
Fat
Forty
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62
Q

Outline three major steps in the pathogenesis of gallstones

A
  1. Cholesterol Supersaturation
  2. Biliary stasis
  3. Increased bilirubin secretion
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63
Q

Name 3 complications of gallstones

A

Biliary colic
Obstructive jaundice
Gallstone ileus

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64
Q

Give 4 signs and symptoms of obstructive jaundice

A

Pale stool
Dark urine
Yellow sclera
Pruritus

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65
Q

What is the commonly used diagnostic imaging and treatment for symptomatic gallstones?

A

Abdominal USS

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

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66
Q

Define GORD

A

Motility disorder caused by reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus

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67
Q

Give three possible findings in a GORD history

A

Heartburn, especially after meals
Bitter taste in mouth
Epigastric and chest pain

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68
Q

Give 2 causes of GORD

A

Incompetent LOS

Hiatus Hernia

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69
Q

Give 2 risks of GORD

A

Obesity

NSAIDs

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70
Q

How is GORD diagnosed?

A
  • usually from clinical history
  • endoscopy
  • ambulatory reflux monitoring
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71
Q

Give 3 treatment options for GORD

A

Lifestyle advice
Antacids
PPI

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72
Q

Define hiatus hernia

A

Displacement of abdominal organs (commonly stomach) through oesophageal hiatus of diaphragm into the mediastinum

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73
Q

Give 3 conservative treatment options for a hiatus hernia

A

Antacid
H2 receptor antagonist
PPI

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74
Q

Name a commonly performed surgical technique on hiatus hernia

A

Laparoscopic fundoplication

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75
Q

Give 3 symptoms of gastritis

A

Indigestion
N&V
Epigastric pain

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76
Q

Give 2 diagnostic lab tests for gastritis

A

QFIT stool test for blood

H. pylori breath test

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77
Q

Give 3 causes of gastritis

A

H. pylori
Alcohol
Smoking

78
Q

Give 4 symptoms of peptic ulcer disease

A

Epigastric pain
Constipation
Nausea
Weight loss

79
Q

Give 2 main causes of peptic ulcer disease

A

H pylori infection (duodenal)

NSAIDs (gastric)

80
Q

What is the imaging of choice for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Upper endoscopy

81
Q

What is the standard treatment for H pylori associated peptic ulcer disease?

A

Omeprazole
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin

82
Q

How does chronic pancreatitis occur?

A

From longstanding inflammation of parenchyma to fibrous tissue.

Fibrosis = connective tissue loss = exocrine insufficiency

83
Q

Give 4 symptoms of chronic pancreatitis

A

Upper abdominal pain
N&V
Steatorrhoea
Weight loss

84
Q

Give 3 causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol
Idiopathic
Autoimmune

85
Q

Give 3 risk factors for pancreatic cancer

A

Smoking
Diabetes
High BMI

86
Q

Give 4 signs and symptoms of pancreatic cancer

A

Painless obstructive jaundice

Weight loss

Pale stool/dark urine

Palpable gallbladder

87
Q

Give 4 blood tests used in pancreatic cancer Dx

A

FBC (normochromic anaemia)
LFT
CRP
Tumour marker Ca19-9

88
Q

What is Whipple’s procedure?

A

Pancreaticduodenectomy +/- pylorus stunting for head of pancreas cancer

89
Q

What is the surgical management option for cancer in the body/tail of pancreas?

A

Distal or total pancreatectomy

90
Q

What are the most common types of oesophageal cancer?

A

Squamous cell

Adenocarcinoma

91
Q

Give 4 risk factors for oesophageal cancer

A

Smoking
Alcohol
Hot beverages
Barrett’s oesophagus

92
Q

Give 3 symptoms of oesophageal cancer

A

Weight loss
Progressive dysphagia
Anaemia

93
Q

What is gold standard Dx procedure for oesophageal cancer?

A

Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)

94
Q

What is the treatment of early and advanced oesophageal cancer?

A

Early: Endoscopic mucosal resection

Advanced: Chemo/surgery/palliative

95
Q

Give 3 signs of gastric cancer on examination

A

Palpable abdominal mass

Palpable Virchow’s node

Palpable Sister Mary Jane node (periumbilical)

96
Q

How does H pylori infection increase the risk of gastric cancer?

A

H Pylori makes urease which produces ammonia

Ammonia neutralises acid allowing alkaline microenvironment

Leads to cell damage and neoplasia

97
Q

Give 4 investigations for gastric cancer

A

FBC (microcytic anaemia)
Ca125 tumour marker
Upper GI endoscopy
CT thorax

98
Q

What are the surgical options for proximal and distal gastric cancers?

A

Proximal: Total gastrectomy
Distal: Subtotal gastrectomy

99
Q

Give 3 causes of bowel obstruction

A

Extra-luminal: Adhesion
Intra-luminal: Foreign body
Bowel wall: IBD

100
Q

Give 3 symptoms of bowel obstruction

A

Colicky abdominal pain
Constipation
Vomiting ?faeculent

101
Q

In an abdominal X-ray, what size should each part of bowel be?

A

Small bowel >3cm
Large bowel >6cm
Caecum >9cm

3,6,9 rule

102
Q

What is the non-surgical management of bowel obstruction

A

DRIP AND SUCK (fluid and NG tube)

Catheter
Electrolyte replacement

103
Q

Give 4 risk factors for colorectal cancer

A

IBD
Genetic
Smoking
Fx

104
Q

Give 3 symptoms of colorectal cancer

A

Obstructive symptoms
Tenesmus
Weight loss

105
Q

Give 4 investigations for colorectal cancer

A

FBC (microcytic anaemia)
CEA tumour marker
Faecal occult blood
Colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy

106
Q

What are the surgical management options for colorectal cancer (name 4)

A

Hemicolectomy (left or right)
Sigmoid colectomy
Anterior resection
APR

107
Q

Define diverticular disease

A

Occuring in the colon when high intra-luminal pressure causes lumen to herniate through weak spots in bowel wall

108
Q

Give 4 symptoms of diverticular disease

A

Abdominal pain (cramps)
Diarrhoea and constipation
PR bleeding
Bloating

109
Q

Give 2 complications of diverticular disease

A

Fistula

Obstruction

110
Q

Give 3 management options for diverticular disease

A

High fibre diet
Antispasmodics
Laxatives

111
Q

Define haemorrhoids

A

Excessive amounts of normal end anal cushions

112
Q

Where around the anus do haemorrhoids usually occur?

A

3, 7 and 11 o’clock

113
Q

Give 3 investigations of haemorrhoids

A

PR
Flexible Sigmoidoscopy
Proctoscopy

114
Q

Give 4 treatment options for haemorrhoids

A

Laxatives
Topical cream
Banding
Sclerotherapy

115
Q

Define the 4 classes of haemorrhoids

A

1: Not visible externally
2. Comes and goes from view
3. Stays but can be pushed back in
4. Cannot be pushed back in

116
Q

Give 4 pathophysiological changes in Crohn’s disease

A

Skip lesions

Patchy inflammation
(Cobblestone)

Inflammatory cell infiltrate

Granuloma

117
Q

Give 4 pathophysiological changes in Ulcerative Colitis

A

Goblet cell loss

Crypt abscesses

Erosions

Inflammatory cell infiltrate

118
Q

Give 4 drugs used in Ulcerative colitis management

A

Aminosalicylates (remission)

Corticosteriods (In relapse)

Thiopurines

Anti-TNF (E.g. infliximab)

119
Q

Give 4 drugs used in Crohn’s management

A

Glucocorticoids

5ASA

Azathioprine

Methotrexate

120
Q

Give 3 complications of UC

A

Colorectal cancer
Perforation
Toxic Megacolon

121
Q

Give 3 complications of Crohn’s

A

Colorectal cancer
Fistuale
Renal disease

122
Q

What are the SIRS criteria

A

Temp <36 or >38
HR>90
RR>20
WCC <4 OR >12

123
Q

Define a polyp

A

Any growth from the lining of large bowel

124
Q

What is an

a) Pedunculated polyp
b) Sessile polyp

A

a) On a stalk

b) Flat

125
Q

Define hernia

A

Abnormal protrusion of a viscous through the wall of its containing cavity

126
Q

What is an indirect hernia compared to a direct hernia?

A

Indirect: caused when inguinal ring fails to close

Direct: usually when abdominal muscles become weak (doesn’t disappear when pt. coughs)

127
Q

Give 3 features of an ileostomy

A

Usually green effluent

Filled with porridge consistency

Spouted

128
Q

Give 3 features of a colostomy

A

Usually faeces/brown effluent

Flushed

One lumen

129
Q

Give 3 causes of chronic limb ischaemia

A

Atherosclerosis
Vasculitis
Fibromuscular dysplasia

130
Q

Give 3 risks of Peripheral vascular disease

A

Smoking
High BP
Diabetes

131
Q

What is Buerger’s test?

A

Reactive hyperaemia when leg is elevated until white then dropped over the side of the bed (indicated PAD)

132
Q

Give one imaging test used in chronic limb ischaemia

A

Ankle brachial pressure index (US doppler)

133
Q

Give 2 medical and 2 surgical management options for chronic limb ischaemia

A

Antiplatelets, ACEI

Bypass, amputation

134
Q

Briefly describe the pathophysiology of carotid artery disease

A

Cholesterol deposit in endothelium to form plaque

Plaque extends to lumen to reduce blood flow

Thromboembolic debris = neurological injury

135
Q

How does carotid artery disease present?

A

As a TIA or stroke

136
Q

Name 2 imaging techniques for carotid artery disease

A

Doppler ultrasound

CT or MR angiography

137
Q

Give 2 surgical management options for carotid artery disease

A

Carotid endarterectomy

Carotid angiogram + stent

138
Q

Give 3 possible presentations of an aortic aneurysm?

A

Incidental
Bruit on auscultation
Pulsatile abdo. mass

139
Q

How are aortic aneurysms repaired surgically?

A

EVAR (guide wire through femoral and stenting)

140
Q

Define varicose veins

A

Dilated subcutaneous veins >/=3mm in diameter measured in upright position usually in lower legs

141
Q

Define venous ulcer

A

Broken epithelium caused by venous hypertension

142
Q

In breast clinic, which patients receive US and which receive mammography?

A

US: Under 40s
Mammogram: Over 40s

143
Q

Name 4 breast changes which can occur

A

Nipple discharge
Inverted nipple
Peu D’orange
Tethering

144
Q

What is a key question to ask in terms of a breast history?

A

Previous oestrogen exposure (e.g. OCP, breastfeeding, age when menstruation started)

145
Q

What are the 1-5 grades for breast lumps?

A
  1. Normal
  2. Benign
  3. Undetermined
  4. Suspicious
  5. Cancer
146
Q

What is the difference between DCIS and invasive cancer?

A

DCIS does not breach BM

147
Q

Give 4 treatment options for breast cancer

A

Wide local excision + radio
Mastectomy
Endocrine therapy
Chemotherapy

148
Q

What is Tamoxifen?

A

Oestrogen receptor blocker for breast cancer

149
Q

What drug can be used in older breast cancer pt. instead of Tamoxifen?

A

Aromatase inhibitor

150
Q

Give 4 causes of haematuria

A

Malignancy
Stones
Infection
Trauma

151
Q

Give 3 investigations of haematuria

A

Urinalysis
CT KUB
Cytoscopy

152
Q

What is a red flag in terms of blood in the urine?

A

Painless visible haematuria

153
Q

Give 3 risks of bladder cancer

A

Male
Smoking
Occupation (e.g. rubber, dye)

154
Q

What investigation is used in suspected bladder cancer

A

US if under 40, non-smoker

CT if over 40, smoker

155
Q

What surgical treatment is used in bladder cancer?

A

Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURB) and chemotherapy via catheter

156
Q

Give 3 risks of renal cancer

A

Smoking
Obesity
PKD

157
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

Indicates advanced renal cancer

A

Haematuria
Flank pain
Palpable abdo. tumour

158
Q

Give 3 signs and symptoms of acute urinary retention

A

400-1000ml urine in bladder

<24hr onset

Painful urgency

159
Q

Give 3 signs and symptoms of chronic urinary retention

A

Residual vol. <1L

Painless

> 24hr onset

160
Q

Give 3 investigations of urinary retention

A

Urinalysis
PR exam
PSA test (falsely raised in retention)

161
Q

Give 2 drugs used to treat chronic urinary retention

A

Tamsulosin (alpha blocker to relax smooth muscle)

Finasteride 5 alpha-reduactse inhibitor (decrease vol. in BPH)

162
Q

Give 4 investigations for testicular cancer

A

AFP tumour marker
HCG tumour marker
LDH enzyme in blood
US/CT

163
Q

What is the surgical management of testicular cancer?

A

Radical inguinal orchidectomy

164
Q

Give 3 features of epididymitis/orchiditis

A

Fever
Swelling
Reactive hydrocele

165
Q

Give 3 investigations for epididymitis/orchiditis

A

Urinalysis + culture
STI screen
USS

166
Q

Give 4 risks factors for UTI

A

Female
Increasing age
Diabetes
Stones

167
Q

Give 4 investigations for UTI

A

Urinalysis
Urine culture
Blood culture
CT KUB

168
Q

Give 3 treatment options for UTI

A

ABX
Fluid
Catheter

169
Q

What is defined as a recurrent UTI

A

> 2 infections in 6 months or 3 in 12 months

170
Q

What type of cancer is most common in the prostate and where does it most commonly occur?

A

Adenocarcinoma in peripheral zone

171
Q

Give 4 signs and symptoms of prostate cancer

A

Haematuria
Urinary retention
Painful micturition
UTi

172
Q

List the stages of the Gleason grading system for prostate cancer

A 
6 = well differentiated 
7 = moderately differentiated 
>7 = poorly differentiated
173
Q

Give 4 possible management options for prostate cancer

A

Watchful waiting
Active surveillance
Radiotherapy
Radical Prostatectomy

174
Q

Give 4 features in a history which may indicate renal stones

A

Flank pain
Haematuria
N&V
Dysuria

175
Q

List 4 things which may be found on examination in suspected Renal stones

A

Palpable kidneys
Pt. constantly moving
Pyrexial
Tachycardia

176
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for renal stones?

A

CT KUB

177
Q

Give 2 definitive management options for renal stones

A

Extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (needle through back to operate through)

178
Q

Give 4 investigation options for suspected testicular torsion

A

Examination (cremasteric reflex test)
Urinalysis
Scrotal USS
Urethral STI swab

179
Q

How will testicular torsion present?

A

Testicle high in scrotum and lying horizontally

Swollen and painful

180
Q

How and why should you investigate suspected testicular torsion if there is no time for an USS?

A

In theatre because there is a 6 hour window between a viable and dead testicle

181
Q

Give 2 organic and 2 psychogenic causes of ED

A

CVD and Diabetes

Stress and performance anxiety

182
Q

Give a drug management option for ED

A

PDE-5 inhibitor e.g. Sildenafil (smooth muscle relaxation and increased penile blood flow)

183
Q

Give 4 symptoms of BPH

A

Incomplete emptying
Frequent urination
Urgency
Nocturia

184
Q

How is BPH diagnosed?

A

History and Examination (including PR)

185
Q

Give 3 pharmacological management options for BPH

A

Anticholinergic e.g. atropine
Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker e.g. Tamsulosin
Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor

186
Q

What is the gold standard surgical option for symptomatic BPH

A

Transurethral resection of prostate

187
Q

Give 4 symptoms of thyroid cancer

A

Painless neck mass
Hoarseness
Dysphagia
Cough

188
Q

Give 3 methods used in diagnosing thyroid cancer

A

Serum TSH level
Ultrasound
FNA biopsy

189
Q

What is MEN type 1?

A

Autosomal dominant predisposition to tumours in pancreas, parathyroid and anterior pituitary gland

190
Q

How is MEN1 clinically recognised?

A
  • 2 or more primary tumours types

- Hypoglycaemia (due to excess insulin production)

191
Q

What 3 tumour types occur in MEN2?

A

Medullary Thyroid cancer
Parathyroid tumour
Pheochromocytoma

192
Q

Define pheochromocytoma and give 3 symptoms

A

Rare catecholamine producing tumour of chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla

  • High BP
  • Headache
  • Palpitations

4th Year Exam (20 decks)

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