Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4th Year Exam > Infectious Diseases ILOs > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases ILOs Flashcards

1
Q

Define sepsis

A

Life-threatening organ dysfunction as a result of dysregulated host response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline SIRs criteria in which 2 or more are needed to diagnose sepsis

A
  • HR >90 BPM
  • Temp. >38 or <36
  • RR > 20 per minute
  • WCC >12 or <4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Outline sepsis 6

A

Take: blood culture, urine output, serum lactate

Give: IV AVX, IV Fluid, O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Outline the Q-SOFA scoring system for sepsis in which a score of 2 or more indicates poorer outcomes

A
  • Systolic BP<100
  • Altered mental status
  • RR >22
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give 2 common causes of viral gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

Norovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is norovirus transmitted and treated?

A

Person to person, water and food-borne

Tx: fluid, antispasmodic, analgesia, antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What population does rotavirus mainly affect and how is it transmitted?

A

Under 2s

Faeco-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does salmonella come from and what is it’s incubation period?

A

Pork, poultry and dairy

12-72hr incubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 2 symptoms of campylobacter and what ABX can be used in persistent disease

A

Diarrhoea
Blood in stool

Macrolides/Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of E coli infection is associated with infants and returning travellers?

A

Enterotoxigenic E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the incubation time of Staph Aureus in terms of food poisoning and give 1 symptoms

A

30 mins-6 hours

Profuse D&V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give 2 common causative agents in the common cold

A

Rhinovirus and Coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 2 viruses which cause pharyngitis

A

Adenovirus and Rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is croup and what virus commonly causes it?

A

Inspiratory stridor leading to increased RR in 6 month-3 y/o mainly

Parainfluenza virus 1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is bronchiolitis and who is mainly affected?

A

Caused by paramyxovirus, most infected by 2 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of influenza virus is mainly in humans with 2 circulating types?

A

Influenza B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give 2 treatments for influenza

A

Ribiviren

Neuraminidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give 3 common causative bacteria in CAP

A
  • Strep. Pneumoniae (most common cause)
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Moraxella catharralis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 4 signs and symptoms of pneumonia

A
  • Productive cough
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Bibasilar crepitations
  • Dull to percussion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat non-severe and severe CAP?

A

NS: oral amoxicillin, doxycycline or clarithromycin

S: IV Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Outline the CURB65 severity score for CAP

A 
Confusion
Urea>7
RR>/=30
SBP<90 or DPB<60
Age>65

(3 or more is severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does HAP occur and give 2 causative bacteria

A

Acquired after at least 48 hours of admission to hospital

Strep. pneumoniae
Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give 1 ABX for non-severe and severe HAP

A

NS: oral co-amoxiclav
S: IV Levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give 3 features of MRSA infection

A

Erythematous skin lesions or pustules

Infection unresponsive to penicillins

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between community associated and healthcare associated MRSA in terms of treatment?

A

Community: Oral ABX

Healthcare: IV ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Give 3 investigations for MRSA

A
  • FBC
  • Cultures (urine, tissue, sputum)
  • CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give 2 antibiotics which are effective against MRSA

A

Vancomycin

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give 3 risks for MRSA

A

Age >50
Native American
IVDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define Clostridium Difficile and give the 4C ABX which cause it

A 
Infection of colon characterised by formation of pseudomembranes 
o	Clindamycin 
o	Cephalosporins 
o	Co-amoxiclav
o	Ciprofloxacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of C diff

A

Disruption of bowel flora by ingestion of heat-resistant spores occurring on days 4-9 of ABX therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give 3 symptoms of C diff infection

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give 2 investigations and 2 ABX used in C diff

A
  • Faecal occult blood +
  • Stool immunoassay for toxins A and B +

Vancomycin + Metranidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define meningitis and give two bacteria which commonly cause it

A

Inflammation of meninges +/- cerebrum caused by bacteria or virus. All pt. treated empirically for bacterial

  • Pneumococcal (common in alcohol users)
  • Listeria (pregnancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give 5 symptoms of meningitis

A
  • Headache
  • Neck stiffness
  • Fever
  • Confusion
  • Rash (purpuric+/-petechiae)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What should be done for patients with suspected meningitis before CT and why?

A

Antibiotics pre-CT to cover bacteria as bacterial meningitis is so deadly

36
Q

As well as antibiotics, what should be given to patients with pneumococcal meningitis?

A

Corticosteriods

37
Q

What additional measure must be considered when a pt. is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis

A

Chemoprophylaxis for close contacts

38
Q

Give 3 features seen on LP in bacterial meningitis

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Raised protein
  • Reduced glucose
39
Q

What is the tx for viral meningitis?

A

Aciclovir in immunocompromsied

Otherwise no Tx

40
Q

What is cryptococcal meningitis and how is it treated?

A

Occurs in immunodeficiency usually HIV

Tx: ABX, anti fungal, shunt in raised ICP

41
Q

Define tuberculosis and give 4 symptoms

A

Infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • Cough
  • Haemoptysis
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
42
Q

Give 2 pathological features of TB which may be seen on CXR

A

Granuloma

Ghon complexes

43
Q

Give 3 investigations for TB

A
  • Positive AFB smear
  • Solid or liquid culture
  • CXR
44
Q

What is the treatment for active TB?

A
  • 6 month rifampicin
  • 6 month Isoniazid
  • 2 month Ethambutol
  • 2 month pyrazinamide
45
Q

Define HIV and which type is the most common worldwide

A

A retrovirus that destroys CD4 T cells and is the aetiological agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

HIV 1

46
Q

Give 3 routes of transmission of HIV

A
  • Anal or vaginal sex
  • IV drug use
  • Mother to child transmission e.g. birth and breastmilk
47
Q

Outline the pathology of HIV

A
  • HIV infects helper T cells, CD4+ cells depleted
  • Abnormal B cell activation = inappropriate immunoglobulins
  • CD4+ level <200 = OPPORTUNISTIC INFECTIONS
48
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A

4th generation testing: p24 antigen and HIV antibody (4 weeks after exposure)

49
Q

What is the current Tx of HIV?

A

HAART (triple therapy in one tablet)

50
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

Primary HIV, an acute illness 1-2 months after contracting the virus.

Fever, rash…

51
Q

What does Herpes simplex 1 cause compared to HSV 2?

A

HSV1: herpies labiallis + genital herpes

HSV2: genital herpes

52
Q

Give 2 risks of herpes simplex virus

A
  • HIV

- Immunosuppressive medications

53
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of herpes simplex

A

Acquired at mucosal surfaces or broken skin and enters latent stage allowing immune system evasion and lifelong infection

54
Q

Give 2 management options for herpes simplex

A
  • Symptomatic relief

- Aciclovir to clear symptoms

55
Q

Give 2 features of an immunocompromised host

A

Asplenic

Organ transplant

56
Q

What level defines neutropenia?

A

<0.5 x 109/L or <1.0 x 109/L and falling

57
Q

How does neutropenia occur in cancer patients?

A

Chemo/irradiation = less proliferation of haemopoietic progenitor cells and depleted marrow = neutropenia

58
Q

What is chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Inherited disorder where gene coding NADPH oxidase is defective = intracellular killing of pathogens can’t happen

= Recurrent infection

59
Q

How does infection usually occur in pt. with neutropenia

A

If no site is located for infection probably due to translocation across a compromised mucous membrane

60
Q

What are the components of a sexual health screen?

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea (NAAT test)
HIV
Syphilis

61
Q

Give 2 symptoms and one Tx of gonorrhoea

A

Dysuria, urethral discharge

Ceftriaxone

62
Q

Give 2 symptoms and one Tx of chlamydia

A

Asymptomatic + intermenstrual bleeding

Doxycycline

63
Q

What type of bacteria is syphilis and how many phases of disease exist?

A

Gram positive spirochete

3 stages

64
Q

Give one Tx for syphilis

A

Benzathine penicillin

65
Q

What causes trichomonas vaginalis and what population is mainly affected?

A

Protozoon

Black females

66
Q

Give 3 causes of staph aureus bacteraemia

A

Catheter
Line
Prosthetic

67
Q

How is staph aureus bacteraemia treated?

A

Uncomplicated: 2 weeks IV ABX
Complicated: 4-6 weeks IV ABX

68
Q

Define malaria and how it occurs

A

Parasitic infection caused by protozoa of genus Plasmodium

Bite from female Anopheles mosquito

69
Q

Give 4 symptoms of malaria

A
  • Myalgia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Jaundice
  • Renal impairment
70
Q

Give 3 ways to investigate malaria

A
  • Antigen testing
  • Blood film (parasite in erythrocytes)
  • PCR
71
Q

Give 2 Tx for malaria

A

Quinine and doxycycline

72
Q

Give 3 possible disease causes of fever in returned traveller

A

Typhoid fever
Dengue fever
Viral haemorrhagic fever

73
Q

Define infectious mononucleosis

A

aka glandular fever, clinical syndrome caused by EBV in most cases

74
Q

Give 4 symptoms of infectious mononucleosis

A
  • Fever
  • Pharyngitis
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Splenomegaly
75
Q

Give 2 tests and 2 management options for infectious mononucleosis

A

FBC (lymphocytosis)
EBV specific antibodies

Supportive
Corticosteroids

76
Q

Define fever of unknown origin and give 3 possible causes

A

Temp >38.3 on several separate occasions

  • TB
  • Intra-abdominal/pelvic abscesses
  • Malaria
77
Q

Give 3 tests in the investigation of fever on unknown origin

A

Blood culture
Urine culture
Skin test and CXR for TB

78
Q

Define Tetanus

A

Life threatening neurological syndrome characterised by tonic muscle spasms and hyperreflexia, caused by exotoxic Clostridium tetani

79
Q

Define dysentery

A

Infection of intestine causing bloody/mucus diarrhoea

80
Q

Define cholera

A

Secretory diarrhoeal illness caused by Vibrio Cholerae causing watery diarrhoea and dehydraton

81
Q

Define Leprosy

A

Chronic infectious disease caused by acid-fast bacteria, characterised by skin lesions and peripheral nerve involvement

82
Q

Define Rabies

A

Acute viral encephalomyelitis caused by rabies virus transmitted by animal bites causing hydrophobia and aerophobia

83
Q

Define toxoplasmosis

A

Caused by a protozoan parasite with cats being the definitive host, usually asymptomatic but can cause encephalopathy

84
Q

Define Lyme disease

A

Caused by a spirochete transmitted by ticks, characterised by erythema migrans rash, facial palsy + encephalopathy

85
Q

Define measles

A

Highly infectious measles virus, characterised by maculopapular rash, cough, conjunctivitis, fever…

86
Q

Define mumps

A

Acute systemic infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus causing parotid swelling, orchitis + aseptic meningitis

4th Year Exam (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions