Semester 1 Midterm Flashcards by Henriette Wisnes

Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. The GnRH producing nuclei are located in the anterior hypothalamus
b. The oxytocin producing nuclei are located in the hypothalamus
c. Both the surge centre and the pulse centre producing GnRH are located in the hypothalamus
d. GnRH is transported to the hypophyseal stalk on a perineurial way
e. Oxytocin is transported to the posterior pituitary gland on a perineurial way

a. The GnRH producing nuclei are located in the anterior hypothalamus

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. Melatonin is produced in the corpus pineale
b. The daily melatonin pattern has an obvious circadian rhythm
c. The plasma level of melatonin decreases in daylight and increases in the darkness period
d. Cyclic ovarian function can be induced with melatonin administration in ewes out of the breeding season
e. In mares the long periods of daily melatonin increases the cyclic ovarian ovarian activity

e. In mares the long periods of daily melatonin increases the cyclic ovarian ovarian activity

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. The GnRH producing surge centre of the hypothalamus must have an estradiol signal for GnRH release
b. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is active in males of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
c. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is active in females of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
d. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is estradiol sensitive in females of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
e. At the time of puberty, the GnRH producing surge centre of the hypothalamus becomes estradiol-sensitive in females of seasonal breeder species during breeding season

b. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is active in males of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary
b. The hypophyseal vessels transporting the GnRH form a portal system
c. In the hypothalamus, separated nuclei are responsible for the tonic and pre-ovulatory-like GnRH release
d. The pulse frequency of the tonic GnRH release is surpassed by progesterone
e. The pre-ovulatory-like GNRH release is triggered by 17B estradiol

a. GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. The protein chains of gonadotrop hormones consist of two (a and b) subunits
b. eCG is the recent synonym of pregnant mare serum gonadotropin (PMSG)
c. All gonadotrop hormones contain also significant quantity of carbohydrates
d. The correct order of gonadotrops in increased molecular weight: LH / hCG / FSH / eCG
e. The molecular weight of LH is smaller than that of FSH

d. The correct order of gonadotrops in increased molecular weight: LH / hCG / FSH / eCG

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. The molecular weight of FSH is smaller than that of hCG
b. The LH may be filtrated via the urine
c. The FSH may be filtered via the urine
d. The hCG may be filtered via the urine
e. The eCG may be filtered via the urine

e. The eCG may be filtered via the urine

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. The biological half-life of FSH is ca. 120 min.
b. The biological half life of LH is ca. 20-30 min.
c. The biological half-life of hCG if ca. 120 min.
d. The biological half-life of LH is shorter than that of FSH
e. The biological half-life of eCG is ca. 26 hours

c. The biological half-life of hCG if ca. 120 min.

11 h

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. In the mare, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 3-5 h.
b. In the rabbit, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 6-8 h.
c. In the ruminants, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 6-8 h.
d. In the dog, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 24 h.
e. In the pig, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 24 h.

a. In the mare, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 3-5 h.

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. The dog ovulates ca. 24-48 (<72) hours after the preovulatory LH peak
b. The mare ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak (although the duration of the preovulatory LH peak is unusually long)
c. The ewe and goat ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak
d. The pig ovulates ca. 40 hours after the onset of the preovulatory LH peak
e. The cow ovulates about 24-48 hours after the preovulatory LH peak

b. The mare ovulated in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak (although the duration of the preovulatory LH peak is unusually long)

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. In rabbits and ruminants, the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration may be suitable to mimic / induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak
b. The hCG administration can mimic / induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak in most species
c. In dogs and pigs the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually not reliable enough mimic / induce the biological effects of a preovulatory LH peak
d. In horses the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually reliable enough mimic / induce the biological effects of a preovulatory LH peak
e. If we need FSH-like effect, eCG containing preparation should be administered

d. In horses the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually reliable enough mimic / induce the biological effects of a preovulatory LH peak

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Indicate the WRONG answer:

a. Primordial follicles consist of ca. 30 flat granulose cells plus the oocyte, and surrounded by basal membrane
b. The size of primordial follicles is ca. 30-50 micrometer in diameter
c. Primary follicles consist of ca. 30-60 cuboidal granulose cells plus the oocyte
d. Primary follicles need some local growth factors for their further differentiation
e. Primary follicles can produce 17B estradiol and inhibin

e. Primary follicles can produce 17B estradiol and inhibin

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Indicate which statement related to the antral (tertiary) follicles is CORRECT:

a. The theca interna cells can produce 17B estradiol and inhibin
b. The granulose cells need inhibin for 17B estradiol production
c. The IGF-1 and insulin content of the follicular fluid increases the 17B estradiol producing aromatase activity of the granulose cells
d. The granulose cells need progesterone for the 17B estradiol production
e. The theca interna cells need cortisol for 17B estradiol production

c. The IGF-1 and insulin content of the follicular fluid increases the 17B estradiol producing aromatase activity of the granulose cells

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Indicate the statement related to oestrus in the cow is CORRECT:

a. During oestrus the quality of the cervical discharge is greyish and sticky
b. At the beginning of oestrus, cows tease each other, but at the same time they are not really sexually receptive
c. During oestrus, the torcicity of the myometrium is decreased
d. In cows, the pro ventricular follicle can be palpated rectally as a smooth-surfaced, spherically, tightly, soft fluctuating structure, <10 mm in diameter
e. During oestrus, the ion (Na and Cl) content of the vaginal discharge decreases

b. At the beginning of oestrus, cows tease each other, but at the same time they are not really sexually receptive

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Indicate which statement related to the various pathogens of bovine mastitis is WRONG:

a. Str. uberis is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens
b. Str. dysgalactiae is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens, although occasionally is can also be transferred from cow to cow
c. Corynebacterium bovis is one of the contagious mastitis pathogens
d. E. coli is one of the contagious mastitis pathogens
e. The capsule producing ability is an important characteristic of mastitis pathogen S. aureus strains

b. Str. dysgalactiae is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens, although occasionally is can also be transferred from cow to cow

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Indicate which one is related to the somatic cell count of the milk:

a. The SCC of the milk can be estimated also with California mastitis test
b. The SCC of the milk can increase in samples if samples are stored above +4 decrees C
c. The SCC of the milks usually higher at the end than the beginning of the milking procedure
d. The SCC of the milk is more elevated at the end than during the peak lactation
e. In corynebacterium bovis infected quarters the SCC may be normal

b. The SCC of the milk can increase in samples if samples are stored above +4 decrees C

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary / Graafian) follicles is WRONG:

a. The wall of the antral follicles consist of multiple layers of granulose cells, basement membrane, furthermore theca interna and externa cells
b. The cells and theca interna have, but the granulose cells do not have, direct connection with the capillary network
c. The cells of the theca interna are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the capillary network
d. The granulose cells are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the follicular fluid
e. Also the granulose cells produce steroid hormones

d. The granulose cells are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the follicular fluid

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the uterus is WRONG:

a. Oxytocin and 17B estradiol increase the tonicity of the myometrium
b. Inhibin decreases the tonicity of the myometrium
c. The luteolytic PGF2a is synthesised in the endometrium
d. The type of the bovine uterus is “Uterus bicornis subseptus”
e. The type of equine uterus is “Uterus bicornis non-subseptus”

b. Inhibin decreases the tonicity of the myometrium

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the ovulation is WRONG:

a. The spontaneously ovulating domestic mammals: ruminants, horse, pig, dog
b. Domestic mammals with induced ovulation: Cat, ferret, camel
c. In spontaneous ovulators, the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle
d. In spontaneous ovulators, the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak
e. In induced ovulators the 17B estradiol induces oestrus signs and predispose for ovulation, but the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the vaginal insult of mating/intromission plus the mating behaviour

d. In spontaneous ovulators, the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the development and function of corpus luteum, is WRONG:

a. During the formation of luteal tissue the theca interna cells develop to small luteal cells, whereas the granulosa cells differentiate directly to large luteal cells
b. The small luteal cells may have a further differentiation to large luteal cells
c. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation around 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the large luteal cells
d. The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle
e. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well-recognized by rectal palpation

d. The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum is WRONG:

a. The PGF2a produced by the endometrium is the known main luteolytic agent in most of the domestic mammals
b. Oxytocin is involved in the regulation of endometrial PGF2a release
c. In ruminants there is a local utero-ovarian vascular counter-current diffusion system transporting the endometrial PGF2a into the corpus luteum. According to this mechanism the incidence of corpus luteum persistency is relatively seldom malfunction
d. Certain quantity of PGF2a is produced also in the inflammatory processes
e. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2a

e. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2a

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum is incorrect:

a. In ruminants the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 4 days after the ovulation
b. In mares the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation
c. In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation
d. Luteolysis is the apoptotic degeneration of luteal cells
e. Most of the luteolytic effects of PGF2a are directed to the large luteal cells

c. In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the wave like development of gonadotrop sensitive follicles is WRONG:

a. In cattle there are usually 2-3 waves in growth of follicles per cycle
b. In sheep there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles in most of the cycles, however, the individual variability is important
c. In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles
d. In mares there is only 1 (or perhaps 2) wave(s) in growth of follicles per cycle
e. In goat there are usually 3-5 waves in growth of follicles per cycle

c. In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles

(only 1 wave)

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Indicate what of the below statements related to the fertilisation and early embryonic development is WRONG:

a. At ovulation, the oocyte is in the metaphase of the 2nd meiotic cell division
b. After fertilisation the main function of the zona reaction is to prevent the penetration of further spermatozoa
c. The bovine embryo enters from the oviduct to the uterine horn as an early blastocyst 7 days after the conception
d. The pre-conceptional ageing of oocyte predisposes for polyspermia
e. The bovine embryo hatches from the zona pellucida on day 8-9 after conception

d. The pre-conceptional ageing of oocyte predisposes for polyspermia

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Indicate which of the below statements related to the maternal recognition of pregnancy is WRONG:

a. Some hours after hatching from the zone pellucida the equine embryo starts an intensive longitudinal growth (elongation)
b. Some hours after hatching from the zona pellucida the ruminant and porcine embryos start an intensive longitudinal growth (elongation)
c. In ruminatns the embryonic signal of maternal recognition of pregnancy is a protein belonging to the interferon family (interferon-1)
d. In pig the embryonic signal in maternal recognition of pregnancy is oestrogen-based
e. In mares the embryonic signal of maternal recognition of pregnancy is a protein, however its effect is combined/completed also with some oestrogen of embryonic origin

a. Some hours after hatching from the zone pellucida the equine embryo starts an intensive longitudinal growth. (elongation)

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Which sign is NOT characteristic for starting a delivery? a. Vulva-oedema b. Foul-smelling discharge from the vagina c. Udder oedema and colostrum secretion d. Labour pains

b. Foul-smelling discharge from the vagina

Which species has a refracted broken final part of the soft birth canal? a. Dog b. Horse c. Cattle d. Cat

a. Cat

Which of these pain types is responsible for the expulsion of the placenta? a. Opening pains b. Expulsive pains c. Violent pains d. After pains

d. After pains

How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in a cow? a. By vaginal palpation b. By vaginoscopy c. By the appearance of violent labor pains d. By rectal palpation

d. By rectal palpation

What is the rectal palpation finding of a bovine corpus luteum? a. Liver-like b. Elastic c. Flaccid d. Densed elastic

a. Liver-like

Indicate the WRONG statement, the case history in a parturient animal is not suitable for: a. Giving a correct diagnosis (as a single method), which has been set up by the owner/farmer b. Helping the veterinarian to set up a correct diagnosis c. Proving, whether anybody else a previous examination been performed d. To get information about the length of the recent pregnancy

a. Giving a correct diagnosis (as a single method), which has been set up by the owner/farmer

Which two diameters are important to determine the type of the pelvis? a. Diameter obliqua maxima and Diameter transversa media b. Diameter obliqua maxima and Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia c. Conjugata vera and Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis caudalis d. Conjugata vera and Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia

d. Conjugata vera and Diameter transvers aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia

Indicate the WRONG statement for the possibilities of solving the uterine torsion in cows: a. Manual reposition through the vagina b. Rotation of the cow’s body (the wooden plank method) c. Laparoscopy d. Caesarean section

c. Laparoscopy

Which term is WRONG? a. Dorsal (upright) position b. Foot-nape posture c. Dorsal transverse position d. Vertical presentation

c. Dorsal transverse position | presentation

Which statement is CORRECT? a. Absolute large fetuses do not survive b. Extraction can only be applied in a relatively large foal with a double sided hip flexion c. The lack of eye and suckling reflexes do not obviously mean that the foetus has died d. It is not necessary to continue the test extraction immediately with the allowed forced extraction in a longitudinal anterior presentation

c. The lack of eye and suckling reflexes do not obviously mean that the foetus has died

Which is NOT an abnormal presentation? a. Ventral position of a foal foetus during the second trimester of pregnancy b. Double sided hip flexion of a small calf foetus c. Harm's dog sitting position d. Shoulder flexion of a piglet

a. Ventral position of a foal foetus during the second trimester of pregnancy

Please mark the WRONG statement: a. The ventral surfaces of the hoofs are looking laterally b. (Oblique) ventro-vertical presentation is also called as two horn pregnancy c. The most frequently occurring abnormal posture of the head is its lateral deviation d. The back of the fetus might be palpated in the birth canal during dorso-transverse presentation

b. (Oblique) ventro-vertical presentation is also called as two horn pregnancy

Please mark the synonym for Harm’s dog sitting position: a. A vetro-vertical presentation b. An oblique dorsal position c. A dorso-transverse presenation d. A ventral position

a. A vetro-vertical presentation

Which statement is WRONG? a. The posterior presentation is abnormal b. Ventral position of a foetus during the expulsive stage is abnormal c. Anterior presentation is normal d. Foot-nape posture is the milder (less severe) form of the downward displacement of the head, during this, the two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity, and the scull is pushed to the pecten

a. The posterior presentation is abnormal

Which statement is WRONG? a. During a longitudinal posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the fetlock is opposite to that of the first joint proximal to it b. The plantar surfaces of the hoofs/claws are facing upwards if the position is dorsal c. There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs d. In posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the metatarsophalangeal joint is the same as that of the second joint proximal to it.

c. There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs (first joint proximal to fetlock)

Which of these is a double monster? a. Schistosoma reflexum b. Perosomus elumbis c. Hydrocephalus d. Diprosopus

d. Diprosopus

Which moster type does NOT have an enlarged diameter of the head? a. Amorphus globosus b. Hydrocephalus internus c. Hydrocephalokele d. Hydrocephalus externus

a. Amorphus globosus

Which statement characterises the amniotic fluid? a. Straw yellow b. Water-like consistency c. Egg-yolk-like consistency d. In cat it can get dark green

c. Egg-yolk-like consistency

What is methylcellulose? a. A preparation often used to administer during paravertebral anaesthesia b. A main component of the allantioc fluid c. The main component of modern lubricants d. A sedative

c. The main component of modern lubricants

In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow? a. Lateral deviation of the head b. Relative large fetus c. Incomplete extension of the elbow d. Torsio uteri externum

b. Relative large fetus

The following statement is true for the allowed forced extraction: a. It should always be performed on a standing animal b. A medium power person performs it during straining of the dam. c. 3 to 4 medium power persons alternatingly pull the obstetrical chains/ropes, which have been fixed to the legs and head of the foetus d. It's purpose is to test whether a foetus can be born through the birth canal

c. 3 to 4 medium power persons alternatingly pull the obstetrical chains/ropes, which have been fixed to the legs and head of the foetus

Please mark the RIGHT statement: a. The purpose of episiotomy is the distinction of left and right forms of uterine torsion b. Episiotomy has to be performed along the medial line between the vulva and the anal ring in bitches (episiotomia media) c. A dorsolateral cut for episiotomy can only be performed in cattle. d. Because of the high risk of injuring large vessels, episiotomy should not be applied in horses

b. Episiotomy has to be performed along the medial line between the vulva and the anal ring in bitches (episiotomia media)

When would you perform an episiotomy in the cow? a. In case of a dead foetus b. In case of an abnormal presentation c. In case of a monster d. If only the last critical part of the soft birth canal is narrow and the foetus could pass the bony part and the cervix

d. If only the last critical part of the soft birth canal is narrow and the foetus could pass the bony part and the cervix

Please mark the RIGHT statement: In postpartum suckling beef cows the formation of preovulatory-like LH release is under a beta-endorphin blockade a. For at least 35-45 days after calving b. For max 35-45 days after calving c. For max 60-75 days after calving d. Due to the long-lasting energetic imbalance

a. For at least 35-45 days after calving

Please mark the RIGHT statement: In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of first postpartum ovulation is influenced by the: a. Long-lasting energetic imbalance b. Protein overfeeding c. Manganese deficiency d. Body condition at calving, rather than the postpartum body condition loss

d. Body condition at calving, rather than the postpartum body condition loss

Please mark the WRONG statement: In postpartum suckling beef cows the first postpartum ovulation can be induced by: a. Temporary calf removal b. Synthetic gestagen (norgestomet) + eCG administration c. Natural gestagen (progesterone) + eCG administration d. Introduction of bulls

d. Introduction of bulls

``` Please mark the RIGHT statement: In postpartum (non-suckling) dairy cows: ``` a. The GnRH -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade at least 35-45 days after calving b. The GnRh -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade for max. 5 days after calving c. The first wave-like development of follicles recruits on 35-45 days after calving d. The first dominant follicle develops not earlier than 35-45 days after calving

b. The GnRh -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade for max. 5 days after calving

``` Please mark the WRONG statement: In postpartum (non-suckling) dairy cows the first ovulation may interrelate with: ``` a. The nadir of energetic imbalance b. The body condition at calving c. The body condition loss after calving d. Beta-carotene / vitamin A deficiency

d. Beta-carotene / vitamin A deficiency

Please mark the WRONG statement: In postpartum cows the most important predisposing factors for puerperal metritis: a. Retained foetal membranes b. At calving: (unhygienic) manual assistance within the birth canal c. At and just after calving: elevated levels of blood ketone d. Calving on a pasture land

d. Calving on a pasture land

Please mark the RIGHT statement: On day 28 after calving your cow has abundant, mucopurulent cervical discharge (estimated pus content: > 60%) and the diameter of cervix at the external orifice is about 8 cm. What is your diagnosis? a. Puerperal metritis b. Clinical endometritis c. Pyometra d. Physiological course of uterine involution

b. Clinical endometritis

Please mark the WRONG statement: In therapy of puerperal metritis a. The intrauterine administration of oxytetracycline is the most traditional (but currently less effective) antimicrobial therapy b. Due to the less sensitive character of the most uterine pathogens, the dose of oxytetracycline is about 2-4 g/animal currently c. It would be better not to use the high-dose (2-4 g/animal) intrauterine oxytetracycline administration d. The local administration of first generation cephalosporins (cefapirine) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy

d. The local administration of first generation cephalosporins (cefapirine) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy

Mark the WRONG statement: In therapy of puerperal metritis: a. The intrauterine efficacy of aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) is questionable because of the low oxygen tension b. The administration of third and fourth generation cephalosporins would be most proper way antimicrobial therapy c. The intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and fourth generation cephalosporins, than to first generation cephalosporins d. The administration on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs would be usually justified

c. The intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and fourth generation cephalosporins, than to first generation cephalosporins

Mark the RIGHT statement: The proper technique for diagnosis of subclinical endometritis in cattle: a. Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage b. Week 5-7 after calving: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage c. Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of vaginal smear samples d. Week 8-9 after calving or later: rectal palpation of uterus

a. Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage

Mark which of the below mastitis pathogens has minimal chance to survive in the mammary gland during the dry period a. E.coli b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Str. dysgalactiae d. Str. uberis

a. E.coli

Mark which of the below mastits pathogens has minimal chance for adherence on the epithelial cells during the intramammary invasion: a. E.coli b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Str. dysgalactiae d. Str. uberis

b. Staphylococcus aureus

One or more of the below statements related to the hypothalamic regulation of reproduction is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. The GnRH producing nuclei of hypothalamus are located in the ventrolateral wall of the third ventricle b. The nucleus paraventricularis can produce oxytocin c. The nucleus supraopticus can produce GnRH d. The nucleus arcuatus can produce oxytocin e. The producer neurons transport the GnRH trough their axons to the superior hypophyseal arteries located in the stalk of the pituitary

c. The nucleus supraopticus can produce GnRH (Oxytocin) d. The nucleus arcuatus can produce oxytocin (GnRH)

One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. The biological half-life of FSH is <20-30 min b. The biological half-life of LH is <20-30 min c. The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min d. The biological half-life of FSH is approx. 120 min e. The biological half-life of eCG is approx. 11 hours

b. The biological half-life of LH is <20-30 min (120 min) c. The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min (11 h) d. The biological half-life of FSH is approx. 120 min (20-30 min) e. The biological half-life of eCG is approx. 11 hours (1 d)

One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours b. In rabbit the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours c. In ruminants the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours d. In dog the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours e. In pig the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours

a. In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours (3-5 d) d. In dog the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours (24 h) e. In pig the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours (24 h)

One or more of the below statements related to the secondary follicles is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. The granulose cells in a secondary follicle have a multi-layer character b. In cattle the number of secondary follicles can be identified with rectal palpation c. In mares the secondary follicles can be identified only with transrectal ultrasonography d. Regardless of the species the size of secondary follicles is about 200-300 um in diameter e. The size of secondary follicles is larger in mares than in cows

b. In cattle the number of secondary follicles can be identified with rectal palpation e. The size of secondary follicles is larger in mares than in cows

One or more of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary/Graafian) follicles is/are WRONG: a. In the preovulatory stage the 17B estradiol production of granulose cells decreases b. In the preovulatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells decreases c. In the preoculatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells increases, resulting in elevated level of this hormone in the follicular fluid d. As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in ruminants e. As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in dog

b. In the preovulatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells decreases d. As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in ruminants

Which of these animals has the most optimal pelvic bone? a. Shetland pony mare b. Danish dog bitch c. Merino ewe d. Holstein-Frisian cow

a. Shetland pony mare

What does NOT belong to the soft birth canal? a. Vagina b. Broad ligaments of pelvis c. Hymen d. Cervix

b. Broad ligaments of pelvis

What does vaginoscopy mean? a. Palpation of the vagina b. Histological examination of the vaginal mucosa c. Inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ d. Checking the vaginal discharge

c. Inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ

No critical size of the soft birth canal a. Pelvic inlet and shoulder region of foetus b. Cervix c. Hymen d. Vulva

a. Pelvic inlet & shoulder region of foetus

When can the foetus have a good prognosis? a. Hydrocephalus internus b. During lateral deviation of head c. Dorso transvers presentation d. Calving occurred on day 250

b. During lateral deviation of head

Definition of posture of a foetus: a. Relation of longitudinal axis of the foetus as compared to that of the dam b. Relation of back of foetus compared to that of dam c. Relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of foetus d. Relation of vertebral column of foetus compared to that of dam

c. Relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of foetus

Clear sign of a dead foetus is: a. Foetus does not react on the rotation or bending of the digits b. Umbilical cord has broken c. Foetus is emphysematic d. Suckling reflex cannot be induced

c. Foetus is emphysematic

Which monster type does NOT have a deformed skull? a. Cyclops parasiticus b. Hydrocephalus internus c. Hydrocephalus externus d. Hydrocephalokele

d. Hydrocephalokele

What is characteristic for the Harm's dog sitting position in the mare? a. Hoofs of the foetus can perforate the uterine wall b. It is a type of abnormal posture of the front legs. c. It shows a foetal genetic deformation when the lumbal, sacral, coccygeal area are poorly developed and the foetus borns with a weak viability d. Reposition is easy and after the expulsion of the foetus it has a good chance to survive

a. Hoofs of the foetus can perforate the uterine wall

Which statement is NOT correct? a. Posterior presentation is abnormal b. Ventral position of foetus during the expulsion stage is abnormal c. Anterior presentation is normal d. Foot-nape posture is milder form of the downward displacement of the head. During this two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity and the scull is pushed to the pecten

a. Posterior presentation is abnormal

Which statement is surely WRONG? a. A hydramniotic foetus cannot survive after birth b. Oedema of the foetal membranes often accompany brucellosis c. A hydrallantoic foetus can survive, but its vitality is usually weak d. The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the foetal kidneys

d. The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the foetal kidneys

Mark the WRONG statement: a. Infiltration analgesia is used to anaesthetize the planned operation line b. During epidural anaesthesia usually 15-20 ml Lidocain is administered into the vertebral canal of the cow c. Analgesia of the abdominal wall can even be ensured by administering a paravertebral anaesthesia d. The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 ° to the body surface

d. The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 ° to the body surface

In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow? a. Lateral deviation of the head b. Relative large fetus c. Incomplete extension of the elbow d. Torsio uten externum

b. Relative large fetus

How do we perform a test traction in the cow? a. By the help of 3-4 medium power person b. Always with a recumbent dam c. Only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person d. A medium power person solves the abnormal presentation during straining of the dam

c. Only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person

Which step is WRONG for episiotomy in the cow? a. Lateral incision of the vulva b. Suture the tissues after extraction of foetus c. Dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale d. Using scissors for cutting

c. Dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale

In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of the first postpartum ovulation is influenced by the: a. Long-lasting suckling b. Physical exercise on grazing lands c. Season d. Presence of bulls

a. Long-lasting suckling

Mark RIGHT statement: Beef heifers are bred one month before the onset of the arbitrary breeding season of older herd mates, because: a. They need longer period for conception at the first time b. They need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving c. They are usually underfed d. Heat stress may be supposed to occur resulting in early embryonic mortality later

b. They need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving

Mark WRONG statement: In postpartum, non- suckling dairy cows: a. The first dominant follicle is present on the ovary on day 8-10 after calving b. The first dominant follicle may ovulate, may undergo atretic degeneration or may become cystic c. The first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17B estradiol d. The first dominant follicle needs IGF-1 for its final maturation

c. The first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17B estradiol

Mark WRONG statement: In postpartum, non-suckling dairy cows the first ovulation may be postponed by: a. The late nadir of energetic imbalance b. The outbreak of severe mastitis c. Puerperal metritis d. Manganese deficiency

d. Manganese deficiency

Mark the RIGHT statement: In cattle the most important (pathognosic) clinical signs of puerperal metritis is: a. The fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge b. The reddish-brown colour of the cervical discharge c. The watery consistency of the cervical discharge d. The presence of necrotic debris in the cervical discharge

a. The fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge

Mark the WRONG statement: In therapy of puerperal metritis: a. Currently also broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) are frequently used, but their effect is quite questionable b. Currently also aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) are frequently administered, but it would be better not to use them c. The administration of uterotonic drugs is always justified d. The intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis

d. The intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis

Mark the WRONG statement: The below-specified bacteria play important role in pathogenesis of clinical endometritis pyometra: a. E. coli b. A. pyogenes (T. pyogenes) c. F. necrophorum d. Bacteroides ssp.

a. E. coli

One of the statements related to freemartinism is CORRECT: a. There is an early (30 days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles b. It occurs between bull foetuses c. It occurs between heterosexual foetuses d. It occurs between homosexual embryos e. It occurs because of a late (60 days) anastomosis of the amniotic vesicles

a. There is an early (30 days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles

One of the statements related to the segmental aplasia of the Müllerian tract is FALSE: a. Usually both uterine horns are affected b. The ovaries are functioning c. Usually one uterine horn is affected d. The ovarian function is usually physiological e. It is a hereditary developmental lesion

a. Usually both uterine horns are affected

One of the statements related to the follicle theca cyst is FALSE: a. They are usually larger than 2,5 cm in diameter b. Usually they have a thin wall c. Usually they have a thick wall d. They can occur in both ovaries e. Usually we can find several cysts

c. Usually they have a thick wall

One of the statements related to the medical prevention of follicle cysts is CORRECT: a. We can give prostaglandin 12-14 days after calving b. We can give eCG 12-14 days after calving c. We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving d. We can give oestrogens 12-14 days after calving e. We can give progesterone treatment 12-14 days after calving

c. We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving

One of the statements related to the factors influencing the fertility rate at the first postpartum insemination in dairy cattle is WRONG: a. The post-ovulatory rise of progesterone b. Manganese deficiency c. The preovulatory rise of estradiol d. Protein overfeeding e. Low biological value of oocyte ovulated in the first few weeks after calving

c. The preovulatory rise of estradiol

What is responsible for the induction of PGF2a synthesis by the endometrium at the beginning of the luteolysis in the cow? a. Bovine IFN-tau produced by the embryo b. Relaxin produced by the placenta c. Progesterone produced by the luteal cells d. Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells

d. Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells

What does puberty mean in domestic animals? a. Age for first breeding b. Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity c. Reaching the full body size and conformation d. Time of the first conception

b. Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity

What is typical for the equine oestrous cycle? a. Polyoestrous species with 21-day-long cycles throughout the year b. Polyoestrous species with 17-day-long cycles throughout the year c. Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species d. Seasonally polyoestrous short day breeder species

c. Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species

What is the optimum time for insemination in cattle? a. By the first clinical signs of heat b. At peak of the clinical heat symptoms c. Second half / last third of the heat d. 12-18 hours after the end of clinical signs of the oestrus

b. At peak of the clinical heat symptoms

In the sow, the maternal recognition of pregnancy is based on the production of: a. Progesterone b. Pregnancy specific hormone B c. Estradiol d. Pregnancy associated glycoprotein

c. Estradiol

What is the time of ovulation in cattle? a. At the first clinical sign of heat b. At the peak of clinical heat symptoms c. Second half/last third of the heat d. 12-18 hours after the end of clinical oestrous signs

c. Second half/last third of the heat

Which statement is TRUE regarding the hormonal background of cattle ovulation? a. Ovulation takes place at maximal E2 level b. Ovulation takes place when the P4 level exceed 2ng/ml c. Ovulation is triggered by luteolysis levels of PGF2a d. Ovulation takes place 24-30 hours after the LH peak

a. Ovulation takes place at maximal E2 level

Which hormone elevation in the foetus is the very first signal inducing the parturition in bovine? a. ACTH + Cortisol b. PGF2a + Oxytocin c. Estradiol + Progesterone d. Relaxin

a. ACTH + Cortisol

How many stages does the parturition have in the cow? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

b. 3

One of the below statements concerning the induction of parturition in the cow is WRONG. Parturition can be induced with: a. Relaxin b. Corticosteroids c. PGF2a and analogues d. PGF2a and corticosteroid

a. Relaxin

How does a PGF2a treatment with therapeutic dose at the day after parturition act on the uterine contractility? a. Enhances b. Inhibits c. Does not act on it d. Enhances on the frequency of contractions but does not influence their intensity

c. Does not act on it

What characterizes uterine contractility of normo-calemic cows with retinal foetal membranes as related to healthy controls within 2 days post-partum? a. Weaker b. Same magnitude c. Stronger d. Total inactivity

a. Weaker

What would you use as first choice to treat puerperal paresis? a. IM vitamin D b. Diet rich in cations c. PO calcium chloride d. IV calcium gluconicum

d. IV calcium gluconicum

Indicate the CORRECT statement: a. Involution in dairy cow is always completely finished before the first ovulation b. Lochia in physiological conditions is a watery, brownish, foul smelling liquid c. Blood progesterone (P4) level is high during early involution d. Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum e. Following physiological calving, the uterus can be considered sterile

d. Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum

Please choose the one of the bacterial species given below, which presence in the uterus on days 28-35 post-partum is linearly correlated with impaired reproduction performance later: a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus uberis c. Prevotella bivia d. Trueperella (Araconobacterium) pyogenes e. Histophilus somni

d. Trueperella (Araconobacterium) pyogenes

Please evaluate the below statements about clinical examination of different forms of metritis. Indicate the CORRECT statement: a. One clinical examination upon transfer from calving unit to production group (4-6 days post-partum) is enough b. General clinical examination, taking rectal temperature and observation of genitals provide good enough information for the diagnosis c. To establish the diagnosis of sub-clinical endometritis, ultrasonography is necessary d. If no spontaneous shedding of discharge takes place, collection from the carnival orifice either manually or using appropriate tool is strongly advised

d. If no spontaneous shedding of discharge takes place, collection from the carnival orifice either manually or using appropriate tool is strongly advised

How can the post-partial negative energy balance be prevented or decreased? a. With maximal energy intake during the dry period b. By restricted feeding during the dry period, followed by ad libitum feeding with maximal energy content during lactation c. Maximal energy intake during the dry period and restricted feeding after calving d. Feeding only with energy-rich concentrate after calving

b. By restricted feeding during the dry period, followed by ad libitum feeding with maximal energy content during lactation

When does the estrous cycle reinitiate after parturition in dairy cows? a. 23 +/- 7 days b. 42 +/- 7 days c. 70 +/- 7 days d. 64 +/- 7 days

b. 42+/- 7 days

The order of hormonal treatments at the Co-Synch protocol? a. GnRH + PGF2a + GnRH + AI b. Progesterone + PGF2a c. PGF2a + PGF2a

a. GnRH + PGF2a + GnRH + AI

For how many days the developing corpus luteum is NOT able to respond to prostaglandin treatment? a. 6 days b. 2 days c. 10 days d. It is able to respond immediately

a. 6 days

What does silent heat mean? a. No clinical signs of heat b. No corpus luteum develops c. No follicle develops d. No sound is given by the animal

a. No clinical signs of heat

How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in cow? a. Vaginal palpation b. Vaginoscopy c. Rectal palpation d. Laparotomy

c. Rectal palpation

Which species is not polyoestrous? a. Cat b. Horse c. Ruminant d. Dog e. Swine

d. Dog

# Choose the CORRECT answer for a fetus in (oblique) dorso-vertical presentation a. Only Krey-Schottler’s double hook can be used during reposition b. The legs of the foetus are usually available c. We can use a Caemerer’s torsion fork for reposition d. We can try with halving the body of the foetus

d. We can try with halving the body of the foetus

At what stage does the differentiation of cells starts? a. 4-8 cell stage b. 2-4 cell stage c. Fertilisation d. Blastocyst stage

d. Blastocyst stage

What type of placenta does cattle have? a. Haemochorial discoid b. Endotheliochorial diffuse c. Endotheliochorial cotelydon d. Epitheliochorial cotelydon

d. Epitheliochorial cotelydon

What is the fertile lifespan of spermatozoa in dogs? a. 9-11 days b. 3-5 days c. 13-15 days

a. 9-11 days

Which statement is CORRECT? a. In males both the tonic and the surge centre is found b. In females only the tonic centre is found c. In males there is only tonic centre, but no surge centre d. Female reproductive organs originate from Wolfian e. In males neither the tonic nor the surge centre is found

c. In males there is only tonic centre, but no surge centre

What is the palpation finding of a follicle in bovine? a. Fluctuating b. Flaccid c. Elastic d. Densed elastic

a. Fluctuating

When should allowed force extraction NOT be used? a. Relatively large foetus b. Live foetus c. Dead foetus d. Dorso-vertical presentation

a. Relatively large foetus

# Choose the only one WRONG statement during the Götze-method of total fetotomy: a. We use a diagonal backrunning cut for the thorax b. We cut the head and the neck c. We cut the pelvis between the legs d. Evisceration

a. We use a diagonal backrunning cut for the thorax

What can be used to fix lateral head deviation? a. Saake snare b. Gagny loop c. Ostertag eyehook d. Manually by hand only

b. Gagny loop

When does animal return to cyclicity after parturition? a. After 10 days in dairy cattle b. After 40 days in both dairy and beef cattle c. After 20 days in dairy and about 3-4 months in suckling beef cattle d. After 40 days in dairy and 60 beef cattle

c. After 20 days in dairy and about 3-4 months in suckling beef cattle

How can be prevent the worst effects of NEB? a. Feeding only high energy concentrate after calving b. Restricting the feeding during the dry period, and feeding high energy feed during lactation c. Feed large quantity of high energy food during dry period

b. Restricting the feeding during the dry period, and feeding high energy feed during lactation

Which one is NOT part of the abnormal forelimb postures? a. Shoulder flexion b. Incomplete elbow extension c. Head-breast posture d. Carpal flexion

c. Head-breast posture

When is the foetal membrane expelled? a. With the calf b. Within 24 hours of calving c. Within the 1st hour after calving d. Within 2 hours of calving

b. Within 24 hours of calving

When is methyl cellulose used in calving? a. To open birth canal b. If lubricant is needed c. If fluid therapy is necessary

b. If lubricant is needed

When is the foetal membranes expelled? a. At stage 1 b. At stage 2 c. At stage 3 d. Together with foetus

c. At stage 3

Which is a reflex ovulator? a. Dog b. Cattle c. Horse d. Cat

d. Cat

# Choose the only FALSE statement concerning to the contraindication of the Caesarean section in the cow: a. Long lasting operation which is diagnosed by the present calving difficulties b. Bad condition of the mother c. Extended damage of the genital organs d. Severe foetal emphysema e. Endotoxin shock

a. Long lasting operation which is diagnosed by the present calving difficulties

One or more of the below statements related to the antral (tercier or Graafian) follicles is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. When the antral follicle becomes gonadotroph sensitive, its size it about 2.0 – 2.5 mm in sheep and 3.0 – 4.0 mm in cattle b. In cows, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 5-10 mm. c. In mares, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm (sometimes larger) d. In mares, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 20-25 mm. e. In cows, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm.

b. In cows, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 5-10 mm. d. In mares, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 20-25 mm. e. In cows, the size of the pre-ovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm.

One or more of the below statements related to the estrus cow is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. In cows, the pre-ovulatory follicle can be palpated rectally, as a smooth-surfaced spherical, tightly, softly fluctuating structure, 10-20mm in diameter b. During the oestrus the electric conductivity of the vaginal discharge decreases c. During the oestrus the cervix is open, and the cervical discharge is transparent, with egg white- like consistency d. During the oestrus the tonicity of the myometrium is increased, so the uterus is derogated e. At the beginning of the oestrus, the cow tolerates the teasing of others, and later she starts to tease her mates

b. During the oestrus the electric conductivity of the vaginal discharge decreases

One or more of the below statements related to the uterus is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. Inhibin relaxes the tonicity of myometrium b. The type of bovine uterus is ‘uterus bicornis non-subseptus c. Oxytocin and 17B Estradiol increase the tonicity of the myometrium d. The luteolytic PGF2a is synthesised in the endometrium e. The type of equine uterus is ‘uterus bicornis non-subseptus’.

a. Inhibin relaxes the tonicity of myometrium | b. The type of bovine uterus is ‘uterus bicornis non-subseptus

One or more of the below statements related to the ovulation is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. The spontaneously ovulating domestic mammals: Ruminants, horse, pig, dog b. Domestic mammals with induced (reflex) ovulation: Cat, ferret, camel c. In induced (reflex) ovulators, the 17B estradiol induces oestrus signs and predispose for ovulation, but the pre-ovulatory LH peak is triggered by the vaginal insult of mating/intromission plus the mating behaviour d. In spontaneous ovulators the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only pre-requisite for the formation of pre-ovulatory LH peak

d. In spontaneous ovulators the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only pre-requisite for the formation of pre-ovulatory LH peak

One or more of the below statements related to the development and function of corpus luteum is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the small luteal cells b. During the formation of luteal tissue (luteinisation) the theca interna cells develop to small luteal cells, whereas the granulose cells differentiate directly to large luteal cells c. The small luteal cells may have a further differentiation to large luteal cells d. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well-recognised by rectal palpation e. In a mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation, the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most cases it is well recognised by rectal palpation

a. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the small luteal cells d. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well-recognised by rectal palpation

Indicate which of the below statements related to the development and function of corpus luteum, is WRONG: a. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the large luteal cells b. During the formation of luteal tissue the theca interna cells develop to small luteal cells, whereas the granulosa cells differentiate directly to large luteal cells c. The small luteal cells may have a further differentiation to large luteal cells d. The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle e. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well-recognised by rectal palpation

a. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the large luteal cells

Indicate which of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum, is WRONG: a. The PGF2alpha produced by the endometrium is the known main luteolytic agent in most of the domestic mammals b. Oxytocin is involved in the regulation of endometrial PGF2a release c. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2a d. In ruminants there is a local utero-ovarian vascular couter-current diffusion system transporting the endometrial PGF2a into the corpus luteum. According to this mechanism the incidence of corpus luteum persistency is relatively seldom malfunction e. Certain quantity of PGF2a is produced also in the inflammatory processes

c. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2a

Indicate which of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum, is WRONG: a. In ruminants the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 4 days after the ovulation b. In mares the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation c. Luteolysis is the apoptotic degeneration of luteal cells d. In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation e. Most of the luteolytic effects of PGF2a are directed to the large luteal cells

d. In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation

Indicate which of the below statements related to the wave like development of gonadotroph sensitive follicles is WRONG: a. In cattle there are usually 2-3 waves in growth of follicles per cycle b. In sheep there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles in most of the cycles, however, the individual variability is important c. In mares there is only 1 (or perhaps 2) wave(s) in growth of follicles per cycle d. In goat there are usually 3-5 waves in growth of follicles per cycle e. In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles

e. In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles

How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in a cow?

By rectal palpation

What is the rectal palpation finding of a bovine corpus luteum?

Liver-like

Indicate the WRONG statement. The possibilities of solving the uterine torsion in cows: a. Manual reposition through the vagina b. Laparoscopy c. Rotation of the cow’s body (the wooden plank method) d. Caesarean section

b. Laparoscopy

Which statement is WRONG? a. There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs b. During a longitudinal posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the fetlock is opposite to that of the first joint proximal to it c. The plantar surfaces of the hoofs/claws are facing upwards if the position is dorsal d. In posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the metatarsophalangeal joint is the same as that of the second joint proximal to it

a. There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs

Mark the WRONG statement: In postpartum suckling beef cows the first postpartum ovulation can be induced by: a. Temporary calf removal b. Synthetic gestagen (norgestomet) + eCG administration c. Introduction of bulls c. Natural gestagen (progesterone) + eCG administration

c. Introduction of bulls

On day 28 after calving your cow has abundant, mucopurulent cervical discharge (estimated pus content: > 60%) and the diameter of cervix at the external orifice is about 8 cm. What is your diagnosis?

Clinical endometriosis

Mark the WRONG statement: In therapy of puerperal metritis: a. The local administration of first generation cephalosporin (Cephapirin) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy b. The intrauterine administration of Oxyteteracycline is the most traditional (but currently less effective) antimicrobial therapy c. Due to the less sensitive character of the most uterine pathogens the dose of Oxyteteracycline is about 2-4 g/animal currently d. It would be better not to use the high-dose (2-4 g/ animal) intrauterine Oxyteteracycline administration

a. The local administration of first generation cephalosporin (Cephapirin) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy

Mark the WRONG statement: In therapy of puerperal metritis: a. The intrauterine efficacy of aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) is questionable because of the low oxygen tension b. The administration of third and fourth generation cephalosporin would be most proper way antimicrobial therapy c. The administration on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs would be usually justified d. The intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and fourth generation cephalosporin, than to first gen. cephalosporin

d. The intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and fourth generation cephalosporin, than to first cephalosporin

Indicate the WRONG statement: a. Melatonin is a tryptophan-derivative, produced by the pineal gland b. Kisspeptin neurones are present in the anterior lobe of the pituitary c. Oxytocin is produced by the luteal tissue of corpus luteum d. ECG and HCG are extra-hypophyseal gonadotrophins

b. Kisspeptin neurones are present in the anterior lobe of the pituitary

d. Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells

Which hormone is a decapeptide (it is made up of 10 amino acids)? a. Relaxin b. Dehyroepiandrosteone c. GnRH d. Inhibin

c. GnRH

b. Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity

What is typical for the equine estrous cycle? a. Polyoestrous species with 21-day-long cycles throughout the year b. Polyoestrous species with 17-day-long cycles throughout the year c. Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species d. Seasonally polyoestrous short day breeder species

c. Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species

What is the optimum time for insemination in cattle? a. By the first clinical signs of heat b. At peak of the clinical heat symptoms c. Second half/last third of the heat d. 12-18 hours after the end of clinical signs of the oestrus

b. At peak of the clinical heat symptoms

In the bovine, maternal recognition of pregnancy is based on the production of: a. Bovine placental lactogen b. Pregnancy specific hormone B c. Bovine interferon tau d. Pregnancy associated glycoprotein

c. Bovine interferon tau

In the sow, the maternal recognition of pregnancy is based on the production of: a. Progesterone b. Pregnancy specific hormone B c. Estradiol d. Pregnancy associated glycoprotein

c. Estradiol

What does hatching mean? a. The spermatozoa bind to the zona pellucida of the oocyte b. The acrosomal enzymes are released from the acrosome c. The embryo at the blastocyst stage leaves the zona pellucida d. Compaction of the morale

c. The embryo at the blastocyst stage leaves the zona pellucida

c. Second half/last third of the heat

c. Does not act on it

a. Weaker

What would you use as first choice to treat puerperal paresis? a. IM vitamin D b. Diet rich in cations c. PO calcium chloride d. IV calcium gluconicum

d. IV calcium gluconicum

Indicate the CORRECT statement: a. Involution in dairy cow is always completely finished before the first ovulation b. Lochia in physiological conditions is a watery, brownish, foul smelling liquid. c. Blood progesterone (P4) level is high during early involution d. Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum e. Following physiological calving, the uterus can be considered sterile

d. Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum

When does the estrous cycle reinitiate after parturition in dairy cows? a. 10-45 days b. 60-70 days c. 50-60 days d. 70-80 days

a. 10-45 days

The order of hormonal treatments at the Co-Synch protocol? a. GnRH + PGF2a + GnRH + AI b. Progesterone + PGF2a c. PGF2a + PGF2a

a. GnRH + PGF2a + GnRH + AI

For how many days the developing corpus luteum is not able to respond to prostaglandin treatment? a. 6 days b. 2 days c. 10 days d. It is able to respond immediately

a. 6 days

What does silent heat mean? a. No clinical signs of heat b. No corpus luteum develops c. No follicle develops d. No sound is given by the animal

a. No clinical signs of heat

Which is NOT abnormal? a. Ventral position of a foetus during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy b. Double sided hip flexion of a small calf foetus c. Harms dog-sitting position in a foal d. Shoulder flexion in a piglet.

a. Ventral position of a foetus during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy

Select the CORRECT statement (please note that the time of investigation is not indicated): a. Longitudinal posterior presentation is abnormal b. Ventral position may be normal c. Dorsal positions always normal d. Flexed legs are always abnormal e. Presentation means the relation of the vertebral column of the fetus to the vertebral column of the dam

b. Ventral position may be normal

c. Inserting a vaginoscope and | applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ

How many stages are there in parturition?

In which stage of the parturition is the calf born?

2nd stage

What is the first effect which is responsible for the induction of the parturition?

Foetal | CRH/Acth production

What is the main cause of oxytocin release?

Stimulation of the sensory neurons in the cervix

What is the task of Relaxin?

Relaxation of the pelvic ligaments

What can be used to induce parturition in the cow?

Corticosteroid and PGF2a

What is the most important disadvantage of the induction of parturition?

Foetal membrane retention

What is the cause of secondary placental retention?

Mechanical difficulty in expelling already separated foetal membranes

What is the determination of the secondary placental retention?

Mechanical difficulty in | expelling already separated foetal membranes

Which factor is NOT involved in the separation of maternal and foetal membranes? a. Progesterone b. Maturation c. Umbilical cord rupture d. Uterine contraction e. Uterine inertia

a. Progesterone

The metabolic or resp. acidosis can be corrected sooner?

Metabolic

How long is the 1st stage of calving?

8-10 hrs.

How long is the second sage of calving?

30-60 minutes

What is the reason of milk fever?

Ca deficit

What is the transition period?

3 weeks before and 3 weeks after parturition

Annual milk fever incidence?

Which factor is a predisposition for Milk fever? a. Older beef cows b. Twin pregnancy c. Dairy cows d. Autumn calving cows

b. Twin pregnancy

Normal Ca level?

2.2 - 2.6 mmol/l

True or false: Metabolic alkalosis may cause milk fever

True

True or false: During late pregnancy , low Ca level must be provided in diet

True

True or false: The concentration of Ca is 12 times higher in milk than in blood?

True

Normal P level?

1.4 - 2.5 mmol/L

True or false: In 10ml of colostrum, there is 23g Ca (which is 9 times higher than he total plasma pool of Ca)

True

True or false: There is cca 60g of Ca in the daily produced 40L milk

True

True or false: At Parturition the cow must bring more than 30g Ca per day into the plasma

True

What is the Ca requirements of 40L of milk produced a day?

80 g

What is the effect of PTH?

Increase Ca Level

What is the effect of Calcitonin?

Decrease Ca level

What should the Ca levels be during the dry period? a. Low b. Medium c. High

Low

In which period of the gestation does the milk fever generally occur?

Around parturition

What is the P levels in hypophosphatemia?

<1.0 mmol/L

What is the treatment in the case of milk fever?

400 ml of 40% Calcium

What is the protocol for milking in case of milk fever?

No milking for 24 hours

What is a good body condition score?

2.5 - 3.0

What is the correct Ca level that should be provided in the transitional dry period?

30-50g/head/day

What is the Ca level when the clinical signs of milk fever occur?

<1/5 mmol/L

What is the main reason of Ketosis?

Low lipid intake

The ketone bodies are produced from?

From NEFA (non esterified fatty acids)

What is the effect of Niacin?

Limits lipolysis

What is the effect of Monensin?

Reduces the production of Ketone bodies

Which hormone used to detect cow pregnancy?

When can the vagina prolapse?

Before calving

Which drug is used for the sedation of cow?

Xylazine

Where is GnRH synthesised?

Hypothalamus

Where is the epidural anaesthesia placed, and which drug is used?

Sacrocox joint Lidocaine

How do you check after calving the uterus if there is membranes are inside or bacterial infection?

Rectal palpitation

How to minimise energy deficit after birth?

Make sure cow isn't fat from dry period and give a | lot of food after calving

What is typical for caesarian section in the cow? a. It is easier to do it in a recumbent cow b. The pregnant uterine horn has to be opened near the tip of the horn c. We try to open the uterus preferably in the abdominal cavity d. Usually, it is performed in an anaesthetised animal e. The uterine horn has to be truncated after the operation

b. The pregnant uterine horn has to be opened near the tip of the horn

What do we do with the placentas during caesarian section in the cow before closing the uterine wound? a. We remove all of them b. We cut those parts that hang out of the wound and leave the rest in the uterus, and we put antibiotic-containing uterine tablets into the uterus before closing the wound c. We manually detach the easily accessible caruncles from the uterus d. We remove most of them, and flush the uterus with saline solution e. We do not touch them

b. We cut those parts that hang out of the wound and leave the rest in the uterus, and we put antibiotic-containing uterine tablets into the uterus before closing the wound

How do we close the uterine wound during caesarian section in the cow? a. Usually in two layers, using seromuscular sutures b. The first step is always to apply a continuous suture through all layers c. Using a single suture preferably with nonabsorbable suture material d. Using interrupted sutures e. We leave the uterine wound open, so that the lochia can be released

a. Usually in two layers, using seromuscular sutures

How do we remove the calf with anterior presentation from the uterus of the cow during caesarian section? a. I try to find the head and the frontlegs of the calf and grasp the uterus containing these parts and place it extra-abdominally b. I grasp the hindlegs, and by pulling and lifting the uterus containing these foetal parts, I place the uterus outside the abdominal wound, if possible c. I inject 50 IU oxytocin and wait until the legs of the calf appear in the wound, then I gently pull them out d. I open the uterus close to the bifurcation to remove the calf e. I apply an allowed forced extraction

b. I grasp the hindlegs, and by pulling and lifting the uterus containing these fetal parts, I place the uterus outside the abdominal wound, if possible

Where do you open the abdominal wall in the cow for a regular caesarian section? a. Almost exclusively on the left paralumbar area b. Possibly along the ventral midline c. Equal if on the left or right paralumbar area d. In the perineal area, with a dorsolateral cut from the upper comissura of the vulva e. Only along the ventral midline

a. Almost exclusively on the left paralumbar area

The following instruments can be used during caesarian section in the cow: a. Harm’s eye hooks b. Obstetrical chains c. Liess handles d. Kühne’s crutch

b. Obstetrical chains

How do we calculate the index of ketonuria? a. By means of spectrophotometric measurement b. Based on an estimation without considering the days relative to parturition c. The number of crosses gives us the index d. The number of postpartum days should be added to the primary grade e. The primary grade should be corrected with 2 times the number of days prior to expected calving

e. The primary grade should be corrected with 2 times the number of days prior to expected calving

Which statement is WRONG for milk fever? a. It is a metabolic disease, affecting early portpartum cows b. Hypophosphataemia can accompany the disease c. In its classic form, blood calcium concentration is decreased d. It is affecting older cows during the dry period e. The ARD test can be used for an easy detection

d. It is affecting older cows during the dry period

Please mark the CORRECT answer! a. Animals with perinatal injuries always have fever b. A milk fever cow has elevated body temperature c. A severe energy demand in dairy cows can result in ketosis d. Plasma NEFA levels are lower in cows with peripartal energy demand e. With 1 l milk, 12 g Ca leaves the organism

c. A severe energy demand in dairy cows can result in ketosis

Please select the CORRECT answer! The cow is considered to have retained foetal membranes if the placenta has not been shed latest by: a. 24 hours b. 3 hours c. 1 week d. 6 hours e. 48 hours

a. 24 hours

Which is the most commonly used transducer in the ultrasonographic examination of genitals in mares? a. Linear, 56,5 Hz b. Sector, 56,5 MHZ c. Linear, 1012 MHz d. Linear, 57 MHz e. Sector, 56,5 MHz

d. Linear, 57 MHz

What is the earliest time when pregnancy can be checked by ultrasonography in a mare? a. 9-12 days after the first insemination b. On the 16th day after the first insemination c. 9-12 days after ovulation d. On the 16th day after ovulation e. On the 22nd day after ovulation

c. 9-12 days after ovulation

From which layer(s) of the uterus should the biopsy samples be taken? a. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the inner circular muscle b. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the outer circular muscle c. Only from the mucous membrane d. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the outer longitudinal muscle e. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the inner longitudinal muscle

c. Only from the mucous membrane

In an oestrous mare what does the cross-section of uterus horns look like by ultrasonography? a. An apple b. Grapes c. A lemon d. A pear e. A peach

c. A lemon

Which organs are the protecting seals of tubular genitals in the mare? a. The vulval lips b. The vulval lips and the internal uterine ostium c. The vulval lips and the internal and external uterine ostium d. The vulval lips, the cervix and the vestibular seal e. The vulval lips and the vestibular seal

d. The vulval lips, the cervix and the vestibular seal

What is not advised to as a treatment for retained fetal membranes in the cow? Please mark the WRONG answer only: a. I would administer oxytocin iv. b. I would administer oxytocin im. c. I would flush the uterus d. I would apply antibiotics intrauterine e. I would apply antibiotics parenteral

c. I would flush the uterus

Which statement is TRUE in connection with a corpus luteum (CL) in mares? a. The CL is palpable rectally in every case b. The CL is never palpable rectally c. The CL appears on the ultrasonography as a non-echogenic area d. The CL cannot be examined using ultrasonography e. The CL can be most successfully examined using ultrasonography

e. The CL can be most successfully examined using ultrasonography

Which statement is TRUE in connection with the tertiary (antral) follicles in mare? a. The follicles are palpabe rectally in every case b. The follicles are never palpable rectally c. The follicles appear on the ultrasonograph as a nonechogenic area d. The follicles cannot be examined using ultrasonography

c. The follicles appear on the ultrasonography as a non-echogenic area

Which statement is TRUE in the connection with the follicles in mares? a. Ultrasonography allows the primary, the secondary and the terciar (antral) follicles to be examined b. Ultrasonography only allows the primary and the secondary follicles to be examined c. Ultrasonography only allows the tertiary (antral) follicles to be examined d. The primary and secondary follicles can only be examined rectally e. Only the primary follicles can be examined rectally

b. Ultrasonography only allows the primary and the secondary follicles to be examined

Which statement is FALSE in connection with the follicles in mares? a. The usual size of a preovulatory follicle is = 30-40 mm in diameter b. The usual size of a preovulatory follicle is = 100 mm in diameter c. The maximal (but unusual) size of a preovulatory follicle is = 100 mm in diameter d. Follicles 15 mm in diameter are usually not sensitive to gonadotroph hormones e. Follicles 15 mm in diameter usually do not produce significant quantity of estrogens

b. The usual size of a preovulatory follicle is = 100 mm in diameter

When (which period of the estrous cycle) must samples be taken for endometrial bacteriology in mares? a. During the oestrus b. During the diestrus c. At any time (it can not be considered) d. During the proestrus e. During the anestrus

a. During the oestrus

How (which method) must samples be taken for endometrial bacteriology in mares? a. With endometrial biopsy b. With a protected sterile swab c. With vaginal flushing d. With any of the above three methods e. With none of the above three methods

b. With a protected sterile swab

When (which period of the estrous cycle) must samples be taken for endometrial cytology in mares? a. During the oestrus b. During the diestrus c. At any time (it cannot be considered) d. During the proestrus

a. During the oestrus

# Choose the RIGHT answer: a. Natural prostaglandins in the mare can only be used for synchronization in double dose as compared to ruminants because the CL is insensitive to the prostaglandins during the first 12 days b. Natural prostaglandins in the mare can only be used in one third to half dose as compared to the ruminants because the horse is very sensitive to the prostaglandin side effects c. Prostaglandins in the mares cannot be used for controlling the estrous cycle, only for induction of parturition d. Twin pregnancy in the mare can be eliminated by single prostaglandin injection administered after 40 days e. The location of the equine CL is deep in the ovary therefore the prostaglandins are not effective in the mare

b. Natural prostaglandins in the mare can only be used in one third to half dose as compared to the ruminants because the horse is very sensitive to the prostaglandin side effects

# Choose the RIGHT answer: a. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by interferon tau produced by the conceptus b. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by estradiol 17 beta produced by the conceptus between day 12-15 c. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by a 40.000 D molecular weight protein which is not interferon tau and produced by the conceptus d. The pregnancy in the mare is recognized after the decapsulation by day 22 e. The pregnancy in the mare is recognized after the implantation by day 50

c. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by a 40.000 D molecular weight protein which is not interferon tau and produced by the conceptus

# Choose the RIGHT answer: a. In the horse, presence of the corpus luteum is necessary throughout the entire pregnancy (CL dependent species) b. In the horse, presence of the corpus luteum is necessary only during the first 5 months, therafter the foetoplacental unit produces enough sexual steroid hormones for maintaining the pregnancy c. In pregnant mares, both the primary and the accessory corpora lutea are retained throughout but after the day 250 they do not play role in maintaining the pregnancy d. The horse pregnancy is throughout maintained by eCG (PMSG) produced by the endometrial cups e. The horse pregnancy is throughout maintained by estrogens synthesized by the fetal gonads

b. In the horse, presence of the corpus luteum is necessary only during the first 5 months, therafter the foetoplacental unit produces enough sexual steroid hormones for maintaining the pregnancy

# Choose the RIGHT answer: a. Artificial insemination in the mare is successful only with undiluted fresh semen b. Insemination of the mare with deep frozen semen is successful only when the sperm is deposited deep into the uterus c. Insemination of the mare is possible both with fresh and chilled semen which can be stored in special containers for 24-72 hours without significant loss of fertility d. Artificial insemination of the mare is similar to the cattle: 0,25 ml deep frozen semen is deposited partly into the uterine body, partly into the cervix e. As the stallion ejaculates into the vagina, fresh semen should be inseminated into the

c. Insemination of the mare is possible both with fresh and chilled semen which can be stored in special containers for 24-72 hours without significant loss of fertility

# Choose the RIGTH answer: a. Double ovulation never occur in mares b. Twin pregnancy never occur in mares c. In mares the only outcome of twin pregnancy is the abortion d. In mares the only outcome of twin pregnancy is the embryonic/early foetal loss e. In mares the embryonic / early fetal loss, abortion and stillbirth are the possible consequences of twin pregnancy

e. In mares the embryonic / early fetal loss, abortion and stillbirth are the possible consequences of twin pregnancy

# Choose the RIGHT answer: in mares the endometrial cups produce a. eCG (PMSG) b. hCG c. PSPB (pregnancy specific protein B) d. PAG (pregnancy associated glycoprotein) e. The endometrial cups produce GnRH

a. eCG (PMSG)

# Choose the RIGHT answer: the embryos enter the uterus a. In mares: on days 5 / 6 of gestation b. In cows: on day 8 of gestation c. In gilts/sows: on day 5 of gestation d. In ewes: on days 23 of gestation e. In she-goats: on days 23 of gestation

a. In mares: on days 5 / 6 of gestation

# Choose the FALSE statement: in the mare a. The corpus luteum graviditatis is formed after recognition of pregnancy b. After day 20 of gestation the progesterone concentration decreases c. The P4 production of the primary corpus luteum is increased by eCG d. The P4 production of the secondary corpus luteum is increased by eCG e. Only the P4 producing of the placenta is increasing to the effect of eCG

e. Only the P4 producing of the placenta is increasing to the effect of eCG

# Choose the FALSE statement: in the mare a. After fertilization the oestrogen (E2) level is increased and can be detected as a secondary postovulatory peak b. The signals for recognition of pregnancy are produced by oestrogens/proteins c. The oestrogen concentration on the 36th day is higher than at ovulation d. Oestrogens are only produced by the secondary follicles e. Oestrogens are also produced by corpus luteum graviditatis

d. Oestrogens are only produced by the secondary follicles

# Choose the FALSE statement: in mares a. To exclude twin pregnancy echographic examination is suggested after day 14 of gestation b. We repeat this at day 29 of gestation c. We repeat this at day 35 of gestation d. In case of twin pregnancy the reduction of one embryo is advised on days 19-20 e. In the presence of two adjacent embryos induction of luteolysis is recommended

c. We repeat this at day 35 of gestation

When can the pregnancy in the mare NOT be induced? a. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 22 of pregnancy b. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 14 of pregnancy c. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 29 of pregnancy d. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 45 of pregnancy e. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 26 of pregnancy

d. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 45 of pregnancy

Choose the RIGHT answer: In the goat the easiest and most accurate method to diagnose early pregnancy is the: a. A-mode ultrasound techniques b. B-mode ultrasound techniques c. Doppler techniques d. Measuring of progesterone concentration e. Measuring of oestrogen concentration

b. B-mode ultrasound techniques

What is the relation between the heat and ovulation in the swine? a. Duration of the heat is 24-36 h, ovulation at the beginning of estrus b. Duration of the heat is 3 days, ovulation between 46-54 h c. Duration of the heat is 24 h, ovulation 12 h after the end of clinical oestrus d. Duration of the heat is 57 days, ovulation 24 h before the end of clinical oestrus e. Duration of the heat is 9 days, ovulation between day 24

b. Duration of the heat is 3 days, ovulation between 46-54 h

Oestrus cycle of the gilts can be synchronized by: a. Single luteolytic dose of prostaglandin F2a (or analogue) b. Two luteolytic injections of prostaglandin F2a (or analogue) 11 days apart c. Long term use of progesterone releasing intravaginal device (PRID) or subcutaneous implant d. Feeding synthetic progestagen (e.g. Regumate) for 10-15 days e. GnRH - PGF2a - GnRH treatment (Ovsynch method)

d. Feeding synthetic progestagen (e.g. Regumate) for 10-15 days

For maintaining the porcine pregnancy luteal progesterone is required: a. During the first 3540 days, thereafter the foetoplacental unit is enough b. Throughout the entire pregnancy, because the swine if CL dependent species c. For approx. 100 days, later stage of the pregnancy is maintained even after ovariectomy d. Second half of the pregnancy can be maintained by corticosteroid hormones alone e. The porcine pregnancy is maintained by oestrogen hormones

b. Throughout the entire | pregnancy, because the swine if CL dependent species

One or more of the below statements related to the antral (tercier or Graafian) follicles is/are correct(?): a. When the antral follicles becomes gonadotrop sensitive, its size is about 2,02,5 mm in sheep and 3,04,0 mm in cattle b. In cows the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 5-10 mm c. In mares the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 20-25 mm d. In cows the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm e. In mares the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm (sometimes larger)

b. In cows the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 5-10 mm d. In cows the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm

c. We repeat this at day 35 of gestation

d. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 45 of pregnancy

b. B-mode ultrasound techniques

b. Duration of the heat is 3 days, ovulation between 46-54 h

d. Feeding synthetic progestagen (e.g. Regumate) for 10-15 days

b. Throughout the entire | pregnancy, because the swine if CL dependent species

b. In cows the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 5-10 mm d. In cows the size of the preovulatory follicle is about 30-45 mm

One or more of the below statements related to the oestrous cow is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them: a. In cows the preovulatory follicle can be palpated rectally, as a smooth surfaced spherical, tightly → fluctuating structure, 10-20 mm in diameter b. During the estrus the cervix is open, and the cervical discharge is transparent, with egg white like consistency c. During the estrus the tonicity of the myometrium is increased, so the uterus is erigated d. During the oestrus the electric conductivity of the vaginal discharge decreases e. At the beginning of the estrus the cow tolerates the teasing of the others, and later she starts to tease her mates

d. During the estrus the electric conductivity of the vaginal discharge decreases

One or more of the below statements related to the uterus is/are WRONG. Please, indicate it/them: a. Oxytocin and 17 beta estradiol increase the tonicity of the myometrium b. Inhibin relaxes the tonicity of myometrium c. The luteolytic PGF2a is synthetized in the endometrium d. The type of the bovine uterus is “uterus bicornis nonsubseptus” e. The type of the equine uterus is “uterus bicornis nonsubseptus”

b. Inhibin relaxes the tonicity of myometrium | d. The type of the bovine uterus is “uterus bicornis nonsubseptus”

One or more of the below statements related to the ovulation is/are WRONG. Please, indicate it/them: a. The spontaneously ovulating domestic mammals: ruminants, horse, pig, dog b. Domestic mammals with induced (reflex) ovulation: cat, ferret, camel c. In spontaneous ovulators the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the 17 beta estradiol production of the dominant follicle d. In spontaneous ovulators the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak e. In induced (reflex) ovulators the 17 beta estradiol induces estrous signs and predispose for ovulation, but the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the vaginal insult of mating / intromission plus the mating behavior

d. In spontaneous ovulators the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak

One or more of the below statements related to the development and function of corpus luteum is/are WRONG. Please, indicate it/them: a. During the formation of luteal tissue (luteinisation) the theca interna cells develop to b. The small luteal cells may have a further differentiation to large luteal cells c. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80 % of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the small luteal cells d. In a mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well recognized by rectal palpation e. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well recognized by rectal palpation

c. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80 % of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the small luteal cells e. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well recognized by rectal palpation

# Choose the only false statement concerning to the contraindications of the caesarian section in the cow: a. Caesarian section is contraindicated in the case of the bad condition of the mother b. Caesarian section is contraindicated in the case of the extended damage of the genital organs c. Caesarian section is contraindicated in the case of the severe fetal emphysema d. Caesarian section is contraindicated in the case of the endotoxin shock e. Caesarian section is contraindicated in the case of the long lasting operation which is prognosed by the present calving difficulties

e. Caesarian section is contraindicated in the case of the long lasting operation which is prognosed by the present calving difficulties

# Choose the only RIGHT statement concerning to the anaesthesia during the caesarian section in the cow: a. Kalschmiot-anaesthesia is used only in standing position b. The best medicine for epidural anaesthesia is 70 % alcohol c. Using local anaesthesia around the suture wound decreases the possibility of kicking injuries d. We can use swine blood collection needle for epidural anaesthesia e. Using clenbuterol before the operation the relaxation of the abdominal muscles can be reached

a. Kalschmiot-anaesthesia is used only in standing position

Which treatment predisposes bitches for pyometra? a. hCG administered at estrus b. Oestradiol administered at the earliest days of suspected pregnancy c. Both of the above treatments d. None of the above treatments

b. Oestradiol administered at the earliest days of suspected pregnancy

Which treatment predisposes bitches for pyometra? a. Synthetic gestagens used for suppression of oestrus b. Prolactin inhibitors c. Both of the above treatments d. None of the above treatments

a. Synthetic gestagens used for suppression of oestrus

Which treatment procedures can be used for prevention of canine pyometra? a. Prostaglandin F2a administered at estrus b. Oestradiol administered at estrus c. Both of the above treatments d. None of the above treatments

d. None of the above treatments

Which treatment procedures can be used for prevention of canine pyometra? a. Peroral administration of broad spectrum antibiotics during the estrus b. Peroral administration of synthetic gestagens during the estrus c. None of the above treatments

c. None of the above treatments

Which treatment procedures can be used for prevention of canine pyometra? a. After rehydration of the patient ovario hysterectomy b. Peroral administration of broad spectrum antibiotics c. Combination of prostaglandin F2a and estradiol d. Combination of prostaglandin F2a and oxytocin

a. After rehydration of the patient ovario hysterectomy

When is it always recommended to perform c-section in these cases: a. If the calf foetus is dead b. In the mare during dorsotransverse presentation of a dead foal c. In monstrosities in cows d. In the mare in case of a Harms dog sitting position

b. In the mare during dorsotransverse presentation of a dead foal

What can be considered as a primary indication for a c-section? a. Fresh dead foetus in the uterus b. Carpal flexion c. Relatively large living foetus d. Absolutely large dead foetus

c. Relatively large living foetus

# Choose the RIGHT answer: a. The physiologic events leading to puberty are analogous to those regulating the onset of the breeding season b. Melatonin directly stimulates follicular development c. Melatonin does not have any effect on sheep/goat reproduction d. At the onset of puberty/breeding season, the negative influence of estradiol to LH secretion increases e. Melatonin is produced by the hypothalamus

a. The physiologic events leading to puberty are analogous to those regulating the onset of the breeding season

What do we do with the placentas during c-section in the sow before closing the uterine wound? a. We remove all of them b. We cut those parts that hang out of the wound and leave the rest in the uterus and we put uterine pills containing antibiotics into the lumen c. We detach the easily detachable cotyledons from the caruncles d. We remove them and flush the uterus with saline solution

b. We cut those parts that hang out of the wound and leave the rest in the uterus and we put uterine pills containing antibiotics into the lumen

How do we close uterine wound in the sow? a. Using interrupted sutures b. The first step is to apply continuous suture through all layers c. Using a running suture with absorbable material d. Usually in two layers, using seromuscular sutures

d. Usually in two layers, using seromuscular sutures

How do you remove piglets from the uterus of the sow? a. I always fix the head of the piglet and take it out through the uterine wound b. With one hand I fix the head, or the hind legs, while with the other hand I apply a massage to the outside of the uterus c. I inject oxytocin and wait until the piglets appear in the wound after each other, then I gently take them out

b. With one hand I fix the head, or the hind legs, while with the other hand I apply a massage to the outside of the uterus

How long is the estrus in the ewe (in hours)? a. 10-20 b. 24-48 c. 24-36 d. 30-40 e. 40-50

b. 24-48

How long is the life span of the corpus luteum in the goat (in days)? a. 21 b. 16 c. 19 d. 14 e. 10

b. 16

# Choose the RIGHT answer: a. The sheep/goat is a seasonally polyestrous animal b. The sheep/goat is a monoestrous animal c. The sheep/goat is a long day breeder d. The sheep/goat is a polyestrous animal e. The photoperiod does not have any effect on the sheep/goat reproduction

a. The sheep/goat is a seasonally polyestrous animal

a. The physiologic events leading to puberty are analogous to those regulating the onset of the breeding season

# Choose the RIGHT answer connected to the source of progesterone for pregnancy maintenance: a. The sheep is a placenta dependent animal b. The goat is a placenta dependent animal c. Until day 50 of the pregnancy, the sheep is a corpus luteum dependent animal, after which the placenta takes over this task d. The goat is a placenta dependent animal till day 50 of the pregnancy e. From day 50 of pregnancy, the sheep is corpus luteum dependent animal

c. Until day 50 of the pregnancy, the sheep is a corpus luteum dependent animal, after which the placenta takes over this task

You have to use frozen ram semen for artificial insemination in ewe. Choose the right insemination technique: a. Vaginal b. Cervical c. Laparascopic d. Transvaginal

c. Laparascopic

You have to use fresh diluted ram semen for artificial insemination in ewe. Choose the RIGHT insemination technique: a. Vaginal b. Cervical c. Rectovaginal d. Laparascopic e. Transvaginal

a. Vaginal

You want to synchronize the estrous cycle of a group of ewes with progestogen sponges during breeding season. How long do you have to keep the sponges in the vagina? a. 7 days b. 28 days c. 2 days d. 14 days e. Progestagens cannot be used for estrous synchronization in small ruminants

d. 14 days

What is the difference between the treatment protocols of oestrous synchronisation and oestrous induction? a. There is not any difference between the two methods b. Estrous induction is used in nonbreeding season. The treatment with progestagen is combined with gonadotrop hormone (eCG/PMSG) c. Estrous induction is used in the breeding season and the treatment with progestagen is combined with human chorionic gonadotrop hormone (hCG) d. Estrous induction is used in the breeding season and the treatment with progestagen is combined with gonadotrop hormone (eCG/PMSG) e. Estrous induction is used in nonbreeding season and the treatment with progestagen is not combined with any other hormone

c. Estrous induction is used in the breeding season and the treatment with progestagen is combined with human chorionic gonadotrop hormone (hCG)

Put which insemination technique is NOT used in small ruminants: a. Vaginal b. Cervical c. Rectovaginal d. Laparoscopic e. Transvaginal

c. Rectovaginal

What is the typical concentration of spermatozoa required for vaginal insemination in ewe? a. 10x10^5 b. 1x10^6 c. 20x10^6 d. 400x10^6 e. 800x10^5

d. 400x106

What is the typical concentration of spermatozoa required for intrauterine insemination? a. 10x10^5 b. 1x10^6 c. 20x10^6 d. 400x10^6 e. 800x10^5

c. 20x10^6

You have a synchronized group of ewes and you have to inseminate them with fresh semen during breeding season. What is the right time to inseminate them with vaginal insemination technique? a. At the time of sponge removal b. 12 hours after sponge removal c. 50 hours after sponge removal d. 72 hours after sponge removal e. Anytime

c. 50 hours after sponge removal

What is the most reliable method for predicting the time of ovulation in the bitch? a. Behavioral changes (acceptance of the male) b. Multiplied epithelium layers in the vagina c. The number of days after the prooestrous vaginal bleeding d. Determination of the serum oestrogen peak e. Serum progesterone exceeding the threshold level

e. Serum progesterone exceeding the threshold level

What is the most typical picture in the vaginal smears of the bitch around ovulation? a. Basal and parabasal cells with well stained large nuclei b. Predominantly erythrocytes (vaginal bleeding) c. High number of leukocytes d. Keratinised anuclear cells with poor staining e. Vaginal smear with small amount of cells

d. Keratinised anuclear cells with poor staining

Which of the following statements regarding to the dog is WRONG? a. Increase of relaxin is accurate and reliable symptom for the pregnancy b. The most reliable sign for the pregnancy is the increase of prolactin c. Serum progesterone profiles in pregnant and non-pregnant bitches are similar d. Pseudopregnancy can successfully be treated by antiprolactin (dopamine antagonist) preparates e. Canine pregnancy can be diagnosed by real time ultrasonography as early as day 25-30

b. The most reliable sign for the pregnancy is the increase of prolactin

Which conservative treatment could you administer in case of canine pyometra? a. Amoxicillinklavulan acid, proligeston, PGF2a b. Amoxicillinklavulan acid, PGF2a, Ringer lactate c. Amoxicillinklavulan acid, Ergometrin, NaHCO d. Amoxicillinklavulan acid, PGF2a, treatment of acid base imbalance

d. Amoxicillinklavulan acid, PGF2a, treatment of acid base imbalance

What may happen if the LA -gestagen suppressed proestrus is followed by ovariectomy? a. Nothing b. Pseudopregnancy c. Pyometra d. Incontinentia urinae

c. Pyometra

Your dog patient delivered 34 days ago. She is sick with high temperature, and fetid, bad smelling, reddish brown vaginal discharge. What is your diagnosis? a. Pyometra b. Abortus c. Metritis d. Necrotic placenta

c. Metritis

In cat ovulation is induced by the copulationinduced elevation of: a. LH b. FSH c. GnRH d. Progesterone

a. LH

In cat you suspect the pyometra in case of the following clinical signs: a. Polyuria/polydipsia in cat b. Abdominal enlargement two month after the oestrus c. Pollakiuria, abdominal pain d. Conjunctivitis purulental, abdominal enlargement

b. Abdominal enlargement two month after the oestrus

Which statement is false in domestic carnivores? a. In feline pregnancy progesterone is produced also by the placenta b. In dog the main luteotroph factor is the prolactin c. The canine pyometra does usually occur some days before the expected time of oestrus d. Decrease duration of daily (night time) melatonin elevation induces the folliculogenesis in cat

c. The canine pyometra does usually occur some days before the expected time of oestrus

Duration of regular corpus luteum phase in non pregnant dogs is: a. About 60 days b. About 17 days c. About 35-45 days d. About 100 days

a. About 60 days

Which statement is FALSE? a. Pyometra occurs usually in aged bitches b. Pyometra occurs usually in the luteal phase in bitches c. Pyometra occurs usually in bitches which have never been pregnant in their life d. Pyometra occurs usually in bitches which have been pregnant several times in their life

d. Pyometra occurs usually in bitches which have been pregnant several times in their life