Semester 1 Midterm Flashcards
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. The GnRH producing nuclei are located in the anterior hypothalamus
b. The oxytocin producing nuclei are located in the hypothalamus
c. Both the surge centre and the pulse centre producing GnRH are located in the hypothalamus
d. GnRH is transported to the hypophyseal stalk on a perineurial way
e. Oxytocin is transported to the posterior pituitary gland on a perineurial way
a. The GnRH producing nuclei are located in the anterior hypothalamus
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. Melatonin is produced in the corpus pineale
b. The daily melatonin pattern has an obvious circadian rhythm
c. The plasma level of melatonin decreases in daylight and increases in the darkness period
d. Cyclic ovarian function can be induced with melatonin administration in ewes out of the breeding season
e. In mares the long periods of daily melatonin increases the cyclic ovarian ovarian activity
e. In mares the long periods of daily melatonin increases the cyclic ovarian ovarian activity
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. The GnRH producing surge centre of the hypothalamus must have an estradiol signal for GnRH release
b. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is active in males of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
c. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is active in females of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
d. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is estradiol sensitive in females of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
e. At the time of puberty, the GnRH producing surge centre of the hypothalamus becomes estradiol-sensitive in females of seasonal breeder species during breeding season
b. The GnRH producing centre of the hypothalamus is active in males of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary
b. The hypophyseal vessels transporting the GnRH form a portal system
c. In the hypothalamus, separated nuclei are responsible for the tonic and pre-ovulatory-like GnRH release
d. The pulse frequency of the tonic GnRH release is surpassed by progesterone
e. The pre-ovulatory-like GNRH release is triggered by 17B estradiol
a. GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. The protein chains of gonadotrop hormones consist of two (a and b) subunits
b. eCG is the recent synonym of pregnant mare serum gonadotropin (PMSG)
c. All gonadotrop hormones contain also significant quantity of carbohydrates
d. The correct order of gonadotrops in increased molecular weight: LH / hCG / FSH / eCG
e. The molecular weight of LH is smaller than that of FSH
d. The correct order of gonadotrops in increased molecular weight: LH / hCG / FSH / eCG
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. The molecular weight of FSH is smaller than that of hCG
b. The LH may be filtrated via the urine
c. The FSH may be filtered via the urine
d. The hCG may be filtered via the urine
e. The eCG may be filtered via the urine
e. The eCG may be filtered via the urine
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. The biological half-life of FSH is ca. 120 min.
b. The biological half life of LH is ca. 20-30 min.
c. The biological half-life of hCG if ca. 120 min.
d. The biological half-life of LH is shorter than that of FSH
e. The biological half-life of eCG is ca. 26 hours
c. The biological half-life of hCG if ca. 120 min.
11 h
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. In the mare, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 3-5 h.
b. In the rabbit, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 6-8 h.
c. In the ruminants, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 6-8 h.
d. In the dog, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 24 h.
e. In the pig, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 24 h.
a. In the mare, the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is ca. 3-5 h.
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. The dog ovulates ca. 24-48 (<72) hours after the preovulatory LH peak
b. The mare ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak (although the duration of the preovulatory LH peak is unusually long)
c. The ewe and goat ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak
d. The pig ovulates ca. 40 hours after the onset of the preovulatory LH peak
e. The cow ovulates about 24-48 hours after the preovulatory LH peak
b. The mare ovulated in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak (although the duration of the preovulatory LH peak is unusually long)
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. In rabbits and ruminants, the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration may be suitable to mimic / induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak
b. The hCG administration can mimic / induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak in most species
c. In dogs and pigs the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually not reliable enough mimic / induce the biological effects of a preovulatory LH peak
d. In horses the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually reliable enough mimic / induce the biological effects of a preovulatory LH peak
e. If we need FSH-like effect, eCG containing preparation should be administered
d. In horses the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually reliable enough mimic / induce the biological effects of a preovulatory LH peak
Indicate the WRONG answer:
a. Primordial follicles consist of ca. 30 flat granulose cells plus the oocyte, and surrounded by basal membrane
b. The size of primordial follicles is ca. 30-50 micrometer in diameter
c. Primary follicles consist of ca. 30-60 cuboidal granulose cells plus the oocyte
d. Primary follicles need some local growth factors for their further differentiation
e. Primary follicles can produce 17B estradiol and inhibin
e. Primary follicles can produce 17B estradiol and inhibin
Indicate which statement related to the antral (tertiary) follicles is CORRECT:
a. The theca interna cells can produce 17B estradiol and inhibin
b. The granulose cells need inhibin for 17B estradiol production
c. The IGF-1 and insulin content of the follicular fluid increases the 17B estradiol producing aromatase activity of the granulose cells
d. The granulose cells need progesterone for the 17B estradiol production
e. The theca interna cells need cortisol for 17B estradiol production
c. The IGF-1 and insulin content of the follicular fluid increases the 17B estradiol producing aromatase activity of the granulose cells
Indicate the statement related to oestrus in the cow is CORRECT:
a. During oestrus the quality of the cervical discharge is greyish and sticky
b. At the beginning of oestrus, cows tease each other, but at the same time they are not really sexually receptive
c. During oestrus, the torcicity of the myometrium is decreased
d. In cows, the pro ventricular follicle can be palpated rectally as a smooth-surfaced, spherically, tightly, soft fluctuating structure, <10 mm in diameter
e. During oestrus, the ion (Na and Cl) content of the vaginal discharge decreases
b. At the beginning of oestrus, cows tease each other, but at the same time they are not really sexually receptive
Indicate which statement related to the various pathogens of bovine mastitis is WRONG:
a. Str. uberis is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens
b. Str. dysgalactiae is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens, although occasionally is can also be transferred from cow to cow
c. Corynebacterium bovis is one of the contagious mastitis pathogens
d. E. coli is one of the contagious mastitis pathogens
e. The capsule producing ability is an important characteristic of mastitis pathogen S. aureus strains
b. Str. dysgalactiae is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens, although occasionally is can also be transferred from cow to cow
Indicate which one is related to the somatic cell count of the milk:
a. The SCC of the milk can be estimated also with California mastitis test
b. The SCC of the milk can increase in samples if samples are stored above +4 decrees C
c. The SCC of the milks usually higher at the end than the beginning of the milking procedure
d. The SCC of the milk is more elevated at the end than during the peak lactation
e. In corynebacterium bovis infected quarters the SCC may be normal
b. The SCC of the milk can increase in samples if samples are stored above +4 decrees C
Indicate which of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary / Graafian) follicles is WRONG:
a. The wall of the antral follicles consist of multiple layers of granulose cells, basement membrane, furthermore theca interna and externa cells
b. The cells and theca interna have, but the granulose cells do not have, direct connection with the capillary network
c. The cells of the theca interna are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the capillary network
d. The granulose cells are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the follicular fluid
e. Also the granulose cells produce steroid hormones
d. The granulose cells are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the follicular fluid
Indicate which of the below statements related to the uterus is WRONG:
a. Oxytocin and 17B estradiol increase the tonicity of the myometrium
b. Inhibin decreases the tonicity of the myometrium
c. The luteolytic PGF2a is synthesised in the endometrium
d. The type of the bovine uterus is “Uterus bicornis subseptus”
e. The type of equine uterus is “Uterus bicornis non-subseptus”
b. Inhibin decreases the tonicity of the myometrium
Indicate which of the below statements related to the ovulation is WRONG:
a. The spontaneously ovulating domestic mammals: ruminants, horse, pig, dog
b. Domestic mammals with induced ovulation: Cat, ferret, camel
c. In spontaneous ovulators, the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle
d. In spontaneous ovulators, the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak
e. In induced ovulators the 17B estradiol induces oestrus signs and predispose for ovulation, but the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the vaginal insult of mating/intromission plus the mating behaviour
d. In spontaneous ovulators, the 17B estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak
Indicate which of the below statements related to the development and function of corpus luteum, is WRONG:
a. During the formation of luteal tissue the theca interna cells develop to small luteal cells, whereas the granulosa cells differentiate directly to large luteal cells
b. The small luteal cells may have a further differentiation to large luteal cells
c. In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation around 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the large luteal cells
d. The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle
e. In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well-recognized by rectal palpation
d. The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle
Indicate which of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum is WRONG:
a. The PGF2a produced by the endometrium is the known main luteolytic agent in most of the domestic mammals
b. Oxytocin is involved in the regulation of endometrial PGF2a release
c. In ruminants there is a local utero-ovarian vascular counter-current diffusion system transporting the endometrial PGF2a into the corpus luteum. According to this mechanism the incidence of corpus luteum persistency is relatively seldom malfunction
d. Certain quantity of PGF2a is produced also in the inflammatory processes
e. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2a
e. Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2a
Indicate which of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum is incorrect:
a. In ruminants the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 4 days after the ovulation
b. In mares the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation
c. In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation
d. Luteolysis is the apoptotic degeneration of luteal cells
e. Most of the luteolytic effects of PGF2a are directed to the large luteal cells
c. In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2a-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation
Indicate which of the below statements related to the wave like development of gonadotrop sensitive follicles is WRONG:
a. In cattle there are usually 2-3 waves in growth of follicles per cycle
b. In sheep there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles in most of the cycles, however, the individual variability is important
c. In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles
d. In mares there is only 1 (or perhaps 2) wave(s) in growth of follicles per cycle
e. In goat there are usually 3-5 waves in growth of follicles per cycle
c. In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles
(only 1 wave)
Indicate what of the below statements related to the fertilisation and early embryonic development is WRONG:
a. At ovulation, the oocyte is in the metaphase of the 2nd meiotic cell division
b. After fertilisation the main function of the zona reaction is to prevent the penetration of further spermatozoa
c. The bovine embryo enters from the oviduct to the uterine horn as an early blastocyst 7 days after the conception
d. The pre-conceptional ageing of oocyte predisposes for polyspermia
e. The bovine embryo hatches from the zona pellucida on day 8-9 after conception
d. The pre-conceptional ageing of oocyte predisposes for polyspermia
Indicate which of the below statements related to the maternal recognition of pregnancy is WRONG:
a. Some hours after hatching from the zone pellucida the equine embryo starts an intensive longitudinal growth (elongation)
b. Some hours after hatching from the zona pellucida the ruminant and porcine embryos start an intensive longitudinal growth (elongation)
c. In ruminatns the embryonic signal of maternal recognition of pregnancy is a protein belonging to the interferon family (interferon-1)
d. In pig the embryonic signal in maternal recognition of pregnancy is oestrogen-based
e. In mares the embryonic signal of maternal recognition of pregnancy is a protein, however its effect is combined/completed also with some oestrogen of embryonic origin
a. Some hours after hatching from the zone pellucida the equine embryo starts an intensive longitudinal growth. (elongation)
Which sign is NOT characteristic for starting a delivery?
a. Vulva-oedema
b. Foul-smelling discharge from the vagina
c. Udder oedema and colostrum secretion
d. Labour pains
b. Foul-smelling discharge from the vagina
Which species has a refracted broken final part of the soft birth canal?
a. Dog
b. Horse
c. Cattle
d. Cat
a. Cat
Which of these pain types is responsible for the expulsion of the placenta?
a. Opening pains
b. Expulsive pains
c. Violent pains
d. After pains
d. After pains
How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in a cow?
a. By vaginal palpation
b. By vaginoscopy
c. By the appearance of violent labor pains
d. By rectal palpation
d. By rectal palpation
What is the rectal palpation finding of a bovine corpus luteum?
a. Liver-like
b. Elastic
c. Flaccid
d. Densed elastic
a. Liver-like
Indicate the WRONG statement, the case history in a parturient animal is not suitable for:
a. Giving a correct diagnosis (as a single method), which has been set up by the owner/farmer
b. Helping the veterinarian to set up a correct diagnosis
c. Proving, whether anybody else a previous examination been performed
d. To get information about the length of the recent pregnancy
a. Giving a correct diagnosis (as a single method), which has been set up by the owner/farmer
Which two diameters are important to determine the type of the pelvis?
a. Diameter obliqua maxima and Diameter transversa media
b. Diameter obliqua maxima and Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia
c. Conjugata vera and Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis caudalis
d. Conjugata vera and Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia
d. Conjugata vera and Diameter transvers aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia
Indicate the WRONG statement for the possibilities of solving the uterine torsion in cows:
a. Manual reposition through the vagina
b. Rotation of the cow’s body (the wooden plank method)
c. Laparoscopy
d. Caesarean section
c. Laparoscopy
Which term is WRONG?
a. Dorsal (upright) position
b. Foot-nape posture
c. Dorsal transverse position
d. Vertical presentation
c. Dorsal transverse position
presentation
Which statement is CORRECT?
a. Absolute large fetuses do not survive
b. Extraction can only be applied in a relatively large foal with a double sided hip flexion
c. The lack of eye and suckling reflexes do not obviously mean that the foetus has died
d. It is not necessary to continue the test extraction immediately with the allowed forced extraction in a longitudinal anterior presentation
c. The lack of eye and suckling reflexes do not obviously mean that the foetus has died
Which is NOT an abnormal presentation?
a. Ventral position of a foal foetus during the second trimester of pregnancy
b. Double sided hip flexion of a small calf foetus
c. Harm’s dog sitting position
d. Shoulder flexion of a piglet
a. Ventral position of a foal foetus during the second trimester of pregnancy
Please mark the WRONG statement:
a. The ventral surfaces of the hoofs are looking laterally
b. (Oblique) ventro-vertical presentation is also called as two horn pregnancy
c. The most frequently occurring abnormal posture of the head is its lateral deviation
d. The back of the fetus might be palpated in the birth canal during dorso-transverse presentation
b. (Oblique) ventro-vertical presentation is also called as two horn pregnancy
Please mark the synonym for Harm’s dog sitting position:
a. A vetro-vertical presentation
b. An oblique dorsal position
c. A dorso-transverse presenation
d. A ventral position
a. A vetro-vertical presentation
Which statement is WRONG?
a. The posterior presentation is abnormal
b. Ventral position of a foetus during the expulsive stage is abnormal
c. Anterior presentation is normal
d. Foot-nape posture is the milder (less severe) form of the downward displacement of the head, during this, the two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity, and the scull is pushed to the pecten
a. The posterior presentation is abnormal
Which statement is WRONG?
a. During a longitudinal posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the fetlock is opposite to that of the first joint proximal to it
b. The plantar surfaces of the hoofs/claws are facing upwards if the position is dorsal
c. There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs
d. In posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the metatarsophalangeal joint is the same as that of the second joint proximal to it.
c. There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs
(first joint proximal to fetlock)
Which of these is a double monster?
a. Schistosoma reflexum
b. Perosomus elumbis
c. Hydrocephalus
d. Diprosopus
d. Diprosopus
Which moster type does NOT have an enlarged diameter of the head?
a. Amorphus globosus
b. Hydrocephalus internus
c. Hydrocephalokele
d. Hydrocephalus externus
a. Amorphus globosus
Which statement characterises the amniotic fluid?
a. Straw yellow
b. Water-like consistency
c. Egg-yolk-like consistency
d. In cat it can get dark green
c. Egg-yolk-like consistency
What is methylcellulose?
a. A preparation often used to administer during paravertebral anaesthesia
b. A main component of the allantioc fluid
c. The main component of modern lubricants
d. A sedative
c. The main component of modern lubricants
In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow?
a. Lateral deviation of the head
b. Relative large fetus
c. Incomplete extension of the elbow
d. Torsio uteri externum
b. Relative large fetus
The following statement is true for the allowed forced extraction:
a. It should always be performed on a standing animal
b. A medium power person performs it during straining of the dam.
c. 3 to 4 medium power persons alternatingly pull the obstetrical chains/ropes, which have been fixed to the legs and head of the foetus
d. It’s purpose is to test whether a foetus can be born through the birth canal
c. 3 to 4 medium power persons alternatingly pull the obstetrical chains/ropes, which have been fixed to the legs and head of the foetus
Please mark the RIGHT statement:
a. The purpose of episiotomy is the distinction of left and right forms of uterine torsion
b. Episiotomy has to be performed along the medial line between the vulva and the anal ring in bitches (episiotomia media)
c. A dorsolateral cut for episiotomy can only be performed in cattle.
d. Because of the high risk of injuring large vessels, episiotomy should not be applied in horses
b. Episiotomy has to be performed along the medial line between the vulva and the anal ring in bitches (episiotomia media)
When would you perform an episiotomy in the cow?
a. In case of a dead foetus
b. In case of an abnormal presentation
c. In case of a monster
d. If only the last critical part of the soft birth canal is narrow and the foetus could pass the bony part and the cervix
d. If only the last critical part of the soft birth canal is narrow and the foetus could pass the bony part and the cervix
Please mark the RIGHT statement:
In postpartum suckling beef cows the formation of preovulatory-like LH release is under a beta-endorphin blockade
a. For at least 35-45 days after calving
b. For max 35-45 days after calving
c. For max 60-75 days after calving
d. Due to the long-lasting energetic imbalance
a. For at least 35-45 days after calving
Please mark the RIGHT statement:
In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of first postpartum ovulation is influenced by the:
a. Long-lasting energetic imbalance
b. Protein overfeeding
c. Manganese deficiency
d. Body condition at calving, rather than the postpartum body condition loss
d. Body condition at calving, rather than the postpartum body condition loss
Please mark the WRONG statement:
In postpartum suckling beef cows the first postpartum ovulation can be induced by:
a. Temporary calf removal
b. Synthetic gestagen (norgestomet) + eCG administration
c. Natural gestagen (progesterone) + eCG administration
d. Introduction of bulls
d. Introduction of bulls
Please mark the RIGHT statement: In postpartum (non-suckling) dairy cows:
a. The GnRH -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade at least 35-45 days after calving
b. The GnRh -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade for max. 5 days after calving
c. The first wave-like development of follicles recruits on 35-45 days after calving
d. The first dominant follicle develops not earlier than 35-45 days after calving
b. The GnRh -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade for max. 5 days after calving
Please mark the WRONG statement: In postpartum (non-suckling) dairy cows the first ovulation may interrelate with:
a. The nadir of energetic imbalance
b. The body condition at calving
c. The body condition loss after calving
d. Beta-carotene / vitamin A deficiency
d. Beta-carotene / vitamin A deficiency
Please mark the WRONG statement:
In postpartum cows the most important predisposing factors for puerperal metritis:
a. Retained foetal membranes
b. At calving: (unhygienic) manual assistance within the birth canal
c. At and just after calving: elevated levels of blood ketone
d. Calving on a pasture land
d. Calving on a pasture land
Please mark the RIGHT statement:
On day 28 after calving your cow has abundant, mucopurulent cervical discharge (estimated pus content: > 60%) and the diameter of cervix at the external orifice is about 8 cm. What is your diagnosis?
a. Puerperal metritis
b. Clinical endometritis
c. Pyometra
d. Physiological course of uterine involution
b. Clinical endometritis
Please mark the WRONG statement:
In therapy of puerperal metritis
a. The intrauterine administration of oxytetracycline is the most traditional (but currently less effective) antimicrobial therapy
b. Due to the less sensitive character of the most uterine pathogens, the dose of oxytetracycline is about 2-4 g/animal currently
c. It would be better not to use the high-dose (2-4 g/animal) intrauterine oxytetracycline administration
d. The local administration of first generation cephalosporins (cefapirine) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy
d. The local administration of first generation cephalosporins (cefapirine) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy
Mark the WRONG statement:
In therapy of puerperal metritis:
a. The intrauterine efficacy of aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) is questionable because of the low oxygen tension
b. The administration of third and fourth generation cephalosporins would be most proper way antimicrobial therapy
c. The intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and fourth generation cephalosporins, than to first generation cephalosporins
d. The administration on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs would be usually justified
c. The intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and fourth generation cephalosporins, than to first generation cephalosporins
Mark the RIGHT statement:
The proper technique for diagnosis of subclinical endometritis in cattle:
a. Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage
b. Week 5-7 after calving: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage
c. Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of vaginal smear samples
d. Week 8-9 after calving or later: rectal palpation of uterus
a. Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage
Mark which of the below mastitis pathogens has minimal chance to survive in the mammary gland during the dry period
a. E.coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Str. dysgalactiae
d. Str. uberis
a. E.coli
Mark which of the below mastits pathogens has minimal chance for adherence on the epithelial cells during the intramammary invasion:
a. E.coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Str. dysgalactiae
d. Str. uberis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
One or more of the below statements related to the hypothalamic regulation of reproduction is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them:
a. The GnRH producing nuclei of hypothalamus are located in the ventrolateral wall of the third ventricle
b. The nucleus paraventricularis can produce oxytocin
c. The nucleus supraopticus can produce GnRH
d. The nucleus arcuatus can produce oxytocin
e. The producer neurons transport the GnRH trough their axons to the superior hypophyseal arteries located in the stalk of the pituitary
c. The nucleus supraopticus can produce GnRH
(Oxytocin)
d. The nucleus arcuatus can produce oxytocin
(GnRH)
One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them:
a. The biological half-life of FSH is <20-30 min
b. The biological half-life of LH is <20-30 min
c. The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min
d. The biological half-life of FSH is approx. 120 min
e. The biological half-life of eCG is approx. 11 hours
b. The biological half-life of LH is <20-30 min
(120 min)
c. The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min
(11 h)
d. The biological half-life of FSH is approx. 120 min
(20-30 min)
e. The biological half-life of eCG is approx. 11 hours
(1 d)
One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them:
a. In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
b. In rabbit the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
c. In ruminants the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
d. In dog the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
e. In pig the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
a. In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
(3-5 d)
d. In dog the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
(24 h)
e. In pig the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours
(24 h)
One or more of the below statements related to the secondary follicles is/are WRONG. Please indicate it/them:
a. The granulose cells in a secondary follicle have a multi-layer character
b. In cattle the number of secondary follicles can be identified with rectal palpation
c. In mares the secondary follicles can be identified only with transrectal ultrasonography
d. Regardless of the species the size of secondary follicles is about 200-300 um in diameter
e. The size of secondary follicles is larger in mares than in cows
b. In cattle the number of secondary follicles can be identified with rectal palpation
e. The size of secondary follicles is larger in mares than in cows
One or more of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary/Graafian) follicles is/are WRONG:
a. In the preovulatory stage the 17B estradiol production of granulose cells decreases
b. In the preovulatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells decreases
c. In the preoculatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells increases, resulting in elevated level of this hormone in the follicular fluid
d. As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in ruminants
e. As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in dog
b. In the preovulatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells decreases
d. As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in ruminants
Which of these animals has the most optimal pelvic bone?
a. Shetland pony mare
b. Danish dog bitch
c. Merino ewe
d. Holstein-Frisian cow
a. Shetland pony mare
What does NOT belong to the soft birth canal?
a. Vagina
b. Broad ligaments of pelvis
c. Hymen
d. Cervix
b. Broad ligaments of pelvis
What does vaginoscopy mean?
a. Palpation of the vagina
b. Histological examination of the vaginal mucosa
c. Inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ
d. Checking the vaginal discharge
c. Inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ
No critical size of the soft birth canal
a. Pelvic inlet and shoulder region of foetus
b. Cervix
c. Hymen
d. Vulva
a. Pelvic inlet & shoulder region of foetus
When can the foetus have a good prognosis?
a. Hydrocephalus internus
b. During lateral deviation of head
c. Dorso transvers presentation
d. Calving occurred on day 250
b. During lateral deviation of head
Definition of posture of a foetus:
a. Relation of longitudinal axis of the foetus as compared to that of the dam
b. Relation of back of foetus compared to that of dam
c. Relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of foetus
d. Relation of vertebral column of foetus compared to that of dam
c. Relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of foetus
Clear sign of a dead foetus is:
a. Foetus does not react on the rotation or bending of the digits
b. Umbilical cord has broken
c. Foetus is emphysematic
d. Suckling reflex cannot be induced
c. Foetus is emphysematic
Which monster type does NOT have a deformed skull?
a. Cyclops parasiticus
b. Hydrocephalus internus
c. Hydrocephalus externus
d. Hydrocephalokele
d. Hydrocephalokele
What is characteristic for the Harm’s dog sitting position in the mare?
a. Hoofs of the foetus can perforate the uterine wall
b. It is a type of abnormal posture of the front legs.
c. It shows a foetal genetic deformation when the lumbal, sacral, coccygeal area are poorly developed and the foetus borns with a weak viability
d. Reposition is easy and after the expulsion of the foetus it has a good chance to survive
a. Hoofs of the foetus can perforate the uterine wall
Which statement is NOT correct?
a. Posterior presentation is abnormal
b. Ventral position of foetus during the expulsion stage is abnormal
c. Anterior presentation is normal
d. Foot-nape posture is milder form of the downward displacement of the head. During this two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity and the scull is pushed to the pecten
a. Posterior presentation is abnormal
Which statement is surely WRONG?
a. A hydramniotic foetus cannot survive after birth
b. Oedema of the foetal membranes often accompany brucellosis
c. A hydrallantoic foetus can survive, but its vitality is usually weak
d. The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the foetal kidneys
d. The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the foetal kidneys
Mark the WRONG statement:
a. Infiltration analgesia is used to anaesthetize the planned operation line
b. During epidural anaesthesia usually 15-20 ml Lidocain is administered into the vertebral canal of the cow
c. Analgesia of the abdominal wall can even be ensured by administering a paravertebral anaesthesia
d. The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 ° to the body surface
d. The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 ° to the body surface
In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow?
a. Lateral deviation of the head
b. Relative large fetus
c. Incomplete extension of the elbow
d. Torsio uten externum
b. Relative large fetus
How do we perform a test traction in the cow?
a. By the help of 3-4 medium power person
b. Always with a recumbent dam
c. Only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person
d. A medium power person solves the abnormal presentation during straining of the dam
c. Only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person
Which step is WRONG for episiotomy in the cow?
a. Lateral incision of the vulva
b. Suture the tissues after extraction of foetus
c. Dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale
d. Using scissors for cutting
c. Dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale
In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of the first postpartum ovulation is influenced by the:
a. Long-lasting suckling
b. Physical exercise on grazing lands
c. Season
d. Presence of bulls
a. Long-lasting suckling
Mark RIGHT statement:
Beef heifers are bred one month before the onset of the arbitrary breeding season of older herd mates, because:
a. They need longer period for conception at the first time
b. They need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving
c. They are usually underfed
d. Heat stress may be supposed to occur resulting in early embryonic mortality later
b. They need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving
Mark WRONG statement:
In postpartum, non- suckling dairy cows:
a. The first dominant follicle is present on the ovary on day 8-10 after calving
b. The first dominant follicle may ovulate, may undergo atretic degeneration or may become cystic
c. The first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17B estradiol
d. The first dominant follicle needs IGF-1 for its final maturation
c. The first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17B estradiol
Mark WRONG statement:
In postpartum, non-suckling dairy cows the first ovulation may be postponed by:
a. The late nadir of energetic imbalance
b. The outbreak of severe mastitis
c. Puerperal metritis
d. Manganese deficiency
d. Manganese deficiency
Mark the RIGHT statement:
In cattle the most important (pathognosic) clinical signs of puerperal metritis is:
a. The fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge
b. The reddish-brown colour of the cervical discharge
c. The watery consistency of the cervical discharge
d. The presence of necrotic debris in the cervical discharge
a. The fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge
Mark the WRONG statement:
In therapy of puerperal metritis:
a. Currently also broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) are frequently used, but their effect is quite questionable
b. Currently also aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) are frequently administered, but it would be better not to use them
c. The administration of uterotonic drugs is always justified
d. The intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis
d. The intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis
Mark the WRONG statement:
The below-specified bacteria play important role in pathogenesis of clinical endometritis pyometra:
a. E. coli
b. A. pyogenes (T. pyogenes)
c. F. necrophorum
d. Bacteroides ssp.
a. E. coli
One of the statements related to freemartinism is CORRECT:
a. There is an early (30 days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles
b. It occurs between bull foetuses
c. It occurs between heterosexual foetuses
d. It occurs between homosexual embryos
e. It occurs because of a late (60 days) anastomosis of the amniotic vesicles
a. There is an early (30 days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles
One of the statements related to the segmental aplasia of the Müllerian tract is FALSE:
a. Usually both uterine horns are affected
b. The ovaries are functioning
c. Usually one uterine horn is affected
d. The ovarian function is usually physiological
e. It is a hereditary developmental lesion
a. Usually both uterine horns are affected
One of the statements related to the follicle theca cyst is FALSE:
a. They are usually larger than 2,5 cm in diameter
b. Usually they have a thin wall
c. Usually they have a thick wall
d. They can occur in both ovaries
e. Usually we can find several cysts
c. Usually they have a thick wall
One of the statements related to the medical prevention of follicle cysts is CORRECT:
a. We can give prostaglandin 12-14 days after calving
b. We can give eCG 12-14 days after calving
c. We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving
d. We can give oestrogens 12-14 days after calving
e. We can give progesterone treatment 12-14 days after calving
c. We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving
One of the statements related to the factors influencing the fertility rate at the first postpartum insemination in dairy cattle is WRONG:
a. The post-ovulatory rise of progesterone
b. Manganese deficiency
c. The preovulatory rise of estradiol
d. Protein overfeeding
e. Low biological value of oocyte ovulated in the first few weeks after calving
c. The preovulatory rise of estradiol
What is responsible for the induction of PGF2a synthesis by the endometrium at the beginning of the luteolysis in the cow?
a. Bovine IFN-tau produced by the embryo
b. Relaxin produced by the placenta
c. Progesterone produced by the luteal cells
d. Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells
d. Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells
What does puberty mean in domestic animals?
a. Age for first breeding
b. Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity
c. Reaching the full body size and conformation
d. Time of the first conception
b. Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity
What is typical for the equine oestrous cycle?
a. Polyoestrous species with 21-day-long cycles throughout the year
b. Polyoestrous species with 17-day-long cycles throughout the year
c. Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species
d. Seasonally polyoestrous short day breeder species
c. Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species
What is the optimum time for insemination in cattle?
a. By the first clinical signs of heat
b. At peak of the clinical heat symptoms
c. Second half / last third of the heat
d. 12-18 hours after the end of clinical signs of the oestrus
b. At peak of the clinical heat symptoms
In the sow, the maternal recognition of pregnancy is based on the production of:
a. Progesterone
b. Pregnancy specific hormone B
c. Estradiol
d. Pregnancy associated glycoprotein
c. Estradiol
What is the time of ovulation in cattle?
a. At the first clinical sign of heat
b. At the peak of clinical heat symptoms
c. Second half/last third of the heat
d. 12-18 hours after the end of clinical oestrous signs
c. Second half/last third of the heat
Which statement is TRUE regarding the hormonal background of cattle ovulation?
a. Ovulation takes place at maximal E2 level
b. Ovulation takes place when the P4 level exceed 2ng/ml
c. Ovulation is triggered by luteolysis levels of PGF2a
d. Ovulation takes place 24-30 hours after the LH peak
a. Ovulation takes place at maximal E2 level
Which hormone elevation in the foetus is the very first signal inducing the parturition in bovine?
a. ACTH + Cortisol
b. PGF2a + Oxytocin
c. Estradiol + Progesterone
d. Relaxin
a. ACTH + Cortisol
How many stages does the parturition have in the cow?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
b. 3
One of the below statements concerning the induction of parturition in the cow is WRONG. Parturition can be induced with:
a. Relaxin
b. Corticosteroids
c. PGF2a and analogues
d. PGF2a and corticosteroid
a. Relaxin
How does a PGF2a treatment with therapeutic dose at the day after parturition act on the uterine contractility?
a. Enhances
b. Inhibits
c. Does not act on it
d. Enhances on the frequency of contractions but does not influence their intensity
c. Does not act on it
What characterizes uterine contractility of normo-calemic cows with retinal foetal membranes as related to healthy controls within 2 days post-partum?
a. Weaker
b. Same magnitude
c. Stronger
d. Total inactivity
a. Weaker
What would you use as first choice to treat puerperal paresis?
a. IM vitamin D
b. Diet rich in cations
c. PO calcium chloride
d. IV calcium gluconicum
d. IV calcium gluconicum
Indicate the CORRECT statement:
a. Involution in dairy cow is always completely finished before the first ovulation
b. Lochia in physiological conditions is a watery, brownish, foul smelling liquid
c. Blood progesterone (P4) level is high during early involution
d. Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum
e. Following physiological calving, the uterus can be considered sterile
d. Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum
Please choose the one of the bacterial species given below, which presence in the uterus on days 28-35 post-partum is linearly correlated with impaired reproduction performance later:
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus uberis
c. Prevotella bivia
d. Trueperella (Araconobacterium) pyogenes
e. Histophilus somni
d. Trueperella (Araconobacterium) pyogenes
Please evaluate the below statements about clinical examination of different forms of metritis. Indicate the CORRECT statement:
a. One clinical examination upon transfer from calving unit to production group (4-6 days post-partum) is enough
b. General clinical examination, taking rectal temperature and observation of genitals provide good enough information for the diagnosis
c. To establish the diagnosis of sub-clinical endometritis, ultrasonography is necessary
d. If no spontaneous shedding of discharge takes place, collection from the carnival orifice either manually or using appropriate tool is strongly advised
d. If no spontaneous shedding of discharge takes place, collection from the carnival orifice either manually or using appropriate tool is strongly advised
How can the post-partial negative energy balance be prevented or decreased?
a. With maximal energy intake during the dry period
b. By restricted feeding during the dry period, followed by ad libitum feeding with maximal energy content during lactation
c. Maximal energy intake during the dry period and restricted feeding after calving
d. Feeding only with energy-rich concentrate after calving
b. By restricted feeding during the dry period, followed by ad libitum feeding with maximal energy content during lactation
When does the estrous cycle reinitiate after parturition in dairy cows?
a. 23 +/- 7 days
b. 42 +/- 7 days
c. 70 +/- 7 days
d. 64 +/- 7 days
b. 42+/- 7 days
The order of hormonal treatments at the Co-Synch protocol?
a. GnRH + PGF2a + GnRH + AI
b. Progesterone + PGF2a
c. PGF2a + PGF2a
a. GnRH + PGF2a + GnRH + AI
For how many days the developing corpus luteum is NOT able to respond to prostaglandin treatment?
a. 6 days
b. 2 days
c. 10 days
d. It is able to respond immediately
a. 6 days
What does silent heat mean?
a. No clinical signs of heat
b. No corpus luteum develops
c. No follicle develops
d. No sound is given by the animal
a. No clinical signs of heat
How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in cow?
a. Vaginal palpation
b. Vaginoscopy
c. Rectal palpation
d. Laparotomy
c. Rectal palpation
Which species is not polyoestrous?
a. Cat
b. Horse
c. Ruminant
d. Dog
e. Swine
d. Dog
Choose the CORRECT answer for a fetus in (oblique) dorso-vertical presentation
a. Only Krey-Schottler’s double hook can be used during reposition
b. The legs of the foetus are usually available
c. We can use a Caemerer’s torsion fork for reposition
d. We can try with halving the body of the foetus
d. We can try with halving the body of the foetus
At what stage does the differentiation of cells starts?
a. 4-8 cell stage
b. 2-4 cell stage
c. Fertilisation
d. Blastocyst stage
d. Blastocyst stage
What type of placenta does cattle have?
a. Haemochorial discoid
b. Endotheliochorial diffuse
c. Endotheliochorial cotelydon
d. Epitheliochorial cotelydon
d. Epitheliochorial cotelydon
What is the fertile lifespan of spermatozoa in dogs?
a. 9-11 days
b. 3-5 days
c. 13-15 days
a. 9-11 days
Which statement is CORRECT?
a. In males both the tonic and the surge centre is found
b. In females only the tonic centre is found
c. In males there is only tonic centre, but no surge centre
d. Female reproductive organs originate from Wolfian
e. In males neither the tonic nor the surge centre is found
c. In males there is only tonic centre, but no surge centre
What is the palpation finding of a follicle in bovine?
a. Fluctuating
b. Flaccid
c. Elastic
d. Densed elastic
a. Fluctuating
When should allowed force extraction NOT be used?
a. Relatively large foetus
b. Live foetus
c. Dead foetus
d. Dorso-vertical presentation
a. Relatively large foetus
Choose the only one WRONG statement during the Götze-method of total fetotomy:
a. We use a diagonal backrunning cut for the thorax
b. We cut the head and the neck
c. We cut the pelvis between the legs
d. Evisceration
a. We use a diagonal backrunning cut for the thorax
