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Obstetrics > FINAL EXAM pq's > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM pq's Flashcards

1
Q

What develops into corpus luteum after ovulation?

a. The platelets of corpus haemorragicum convert into corpus luteum
b. The theca and granulose cells turn into luteal cells
c. The antral fluid of the follicle
d. The luteal cells coming from the blood circulation

A

a. The platelets of corpus haemorragicum convert into corpus luteum

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2
Q

What is the reproductive role of kisspeptin neurons?

a. Directly stimulates the follicle growth
b. Induces LH release in the pituitary cells
c. Based on the metabolic inputs, stimulates or inhibits GnRH neurons
d. Decreases the leptin level in the blood

A

c. Based on the metabolic inputs, stimulates or inhibits GnRH neurons

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3
Q

What is the two cell - two gonadotropin model?

a. Production of oestrogen and progesterone in different cells
b. Testosterone production by theca cells (LH) and it’s conversion to oestrogen by granulosa cells (FSH)
c. Stimulatory effect of FSH on oestrogen and LH on progesterone synthesis
d. Testosterone - dihydrotestosterone conversion

A

b. Testosterone production by theca cells (LH) and it’s conversion to oestrogen by granulosa cells (FSH)

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4
Q

What is the difference between the mechanism of action of protein and steroid hormones?

a. Protein hormones act in the cytoplasm, steroids act both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus
b. Protein hormones induce only slow response
c. Steroid hormones pass into the cytoplasm what protein hormones cannot do
d. Only the steroid hormones are able to pass the blood-brain barrier

A

a. Protein hormones act in the cytoplasm, steroids act both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus

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5
Q

What is regulating the seasonality?

a. Improving plane of nutrition in springtime
b. Internal biological clock
c. Pineal gland melatonin though the kisspeptin-GnRH axis
d. Stimulatory effect of the increasing sexual activity in male animals

A

c. Pineal gland melatonin though the kisspeptin-GnRH axis

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6
Q

In how many fraction does the bull ejaculates the semen?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

a. 1

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7
Q

Anatomical classification of porcine uterus

a. Uterus bicornis
b. Uterus bicornuata
c. Uterus duplex
d. Uterus simplex

A

a. Uterus bicornis

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8
Q

In what stage are follicles at the birth of the piglet?

a. Secondary stage
b. Primordial stage
c. They appear and develop later
d. Primary stage

A

b. Primordial stage

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9
Q

What is the most important accessory male organ in the male dog?

a. Prostate
b. Bulbourethral gland
c. Epididymis
d. Ductus deferens

A

a. Prostate

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10
Q

The boar does not have…

a. Prostate
b. Bulboutrthral gland
c. Vesicular gland
d. Ampulla

A

d. Ampulla

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11
Q

How the semen is collected in the boar?

a. Electroejaculation
b. Gloved hand technique
c. Artificial vagina
d. Rectal massage

A

b. Gloved hand technique

But also c. Artificial vagina?

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12
Q

Where can be found the GnRH surge centre in the males?

a. Males do not have GnRH surge centre
b. In the hypothalamus
c. In the hypophysis
d. In the testis

A

a. Males do not have GnRH surge centre

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13
Q

Which cell produces the Anti Müllarian Hormone (AMH)?

a. Oocyte
b. Spermatozoa
c. Leydig cell
d. Sertoli cell

A

d. Sertoli cell

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14
Q

Which cell produces the testosterone?

a. Sertoli cell
b. Leydig cell
c. Granulosa cell
d. Interstitial cell

A

b. Leydig cell

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15
Q

What is the target cell of the FSH in the testis?

a. Sertoli cell
b. Leydig cell
c. Spermatid
d. Spermatogonia

A

a. Sertoli cell

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16
Q

What is the target cell of the LH in the testis?

a. Sertoli cell
b. Leydig cell
c. Spermatid
d. Spermatogonia

A

b. Leydig cell

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17
Q

Where can be found the sex determining region responsible for the formation of the male reproductive organs?

a. X-chromosome
b. Y-chromosome
c. Leydig cell
d. Sertoli cell

A

b. Y-chromosome

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18
Q

Important role of ovary

a. Oocyte production
b. Steroid production
c. Site of fertilisation
d. Oocyte and steroid production

A

d. Oocyte and steroid production

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19
Q

When does luteinization start?

a. Right after ovulation
b. Day 2 of the oestrus cycle
c. Right before ovulation
d. Following the fertilisation

A

c. Right before ovulation

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20
Q

What is typical of the fertilisable porcine oocyte after ovulation?

a. Covered by multilayer cumulus cells
b. Covered by 1 to 2 layers of cumulus cells
c. In denuded state
d. Secondary oocyte covered by cumulus cells

A

a. Covered by multilayer cumulus cells

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21
Q

What is the name of the ovarian feature right after ovulation?

a. Corpus luteum
b. Corpus haemorrhagicum
c. Corpus haemorrhagicum
d. Graafian follicle

A

b / c: Corpus haemorrhagicum

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22
Q

How many primordial follicle does the newborn female piglet have?

a. 50-70 thousand
b. cc. 1 billion
c. 400 to 500 thousand
d. 10 to 20 thousand

A

c. 400 to 500 thousand

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23
Q

How many waves of follicle development are in the porcine oestrus cycle?

a. 2 to 3
b. There are no waves
c. 4 or 5
d. 1

A

b. There are no waves

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24
Q

What is the site of fertilisation in swine?

a. Utero-tubal junction
b. In the tip of the uterine horn
c. Ampulla-isthmic junction
d. In the infundibulum

A

c. Ampulla-isthmic junction

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25
Q

How many spermatozoa are in the ejaculate of boar?

a. Multiple billion
b. 200 to 400 million
c. 100 to 200 million
d. 50 to 100 million

A

a. Multiple billion

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26
Q

Which statement is true about the mare’s pregnancy?

a. Maternal recognition (gestational day 12 - 14) inhibits PGF2a production
b. Maternal recognition (gestational day 12 - 14) induces PGF2a production
c. Maternal recognition (gestational day 12 - 14) inhibits PMSG production
d. Maternal recognition (gestation day 12 - 14) inhibits endometrial cups formation

A

a. Maternal recognition (gestational day 12 - 14) inhibits PGF2a production

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27
Q

What do endometrial cups produce?

a. hCG
b. PMSG
c. PGF2a
d. Progesterone

A

b. PMSG

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28
Q

What happens in a mare if an embryonic mortality develops after the formation of endometrial cups?

a. The mare will return within 1 month
b. The mare will return within 2 months
c. The mare will not return within 3 months
d. The mare will return within 21 days

A

c. The mare will not return within 3 months

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29
Q

Where does the embryo develop in mare after fixation?

a. At the tip of the uterine horn in the cranio-dorsal side
b. At the tip of the uterine horn of the cranio-ventral side
c. Near bifurcation on the cranio-dorsal side
d. Near the bifurcation on the cranio-ventral side

A

d. Near the bifurcation on the cranio-ventral side

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30
Q

Melatonin is produced…

a. During daylight hours in the small ruminants
b. During night / dark hours in the small ruminants
c. All day in the small ruminants
d. Early in the morning in the small ruminants

A

b. During night / dark hours in the small ruminants

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31
Q

Small ruminants

a. Are seasonally polyoestrus animals
b. Show the signs of oestrus year-round
c. Have 1 or 2 oestrus cycles in a year
d. Are long-day breeders

A

a. Are seasonally polyoestrus animals

32
Q

Which part of the body is used to lift up the calf into the abdominal incision with anterior presentation?

a. The hoofs
b. The metatarsus
c. The metacarpus
d. The hocks
e. The head with the forelegs

A

d. The hocks

33
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle in sheep?

a. 16-17 days
b. 20-21 days
c. 27-28 days
d. 9-10 days

A

a. 16-17 days

34
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle in goat?

a. 16-17 days
b. 20-21 days
c. 27-28 days
d. 9-10 days

A

b. 20-21 days

35
Q

How long is the pregnancy in sheep?

a. 150 days
b. 90 days
c. 180 days
d. 60 days

A

a. 150 days

36
Q

In case of testicular trauma in stallion, we should NOT…

a. …reduce the swelling with hydrotherapy
b. …give antibiotics
c. …administer NSAIDS
d. …allow the stallion to tease the mares for easier recovery

A

d. …allow the stallion to tease the mares for easier recovery

37
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis if: there is a 3 cm slightly echogenic uterine fluid, a CL on the ovary and the mare is ba…

a. Subclinical endometritis
b. Clinical endometritis
c. Endometriosis
d. Oestrus

A

b. Clinical endometritis

38
Q

What does the embryo need for the maternal recognition in the mare?

a. Hatching
b. Intrauterine migration
c. Formation of endometrial cups
d. Placantation

A

b. Intrauterine migration

39
Q

Which method is most suitable for heat detection in mare?

a. Vaginal cytology
b. Measurement of blood estradiol levels
c. Measurement of the electrical conductivity og vaginal muscles
d. None of them

A

d. None of them

40
Q

Which method is specific for mare’s pregnancy test?

a. Measurement of progesterone levels
b. Vaginal examination
c. Heat detection
d. Rectal palpation

A

c. Heat detection

41
Q

In which case can PMSG level give false positive result for a mare’s pregnancy?

a. Embryonic mortality before day 21
b. Embryonic mortality before day 35
c. Embryonic mortality after day 35
d. Embryonic mortality before day 16

A

c. Embryonic mortality after day 35

42
Q

How can dilation failure be treated in cow?

a. Prostaglandin
b. Oxytocin
c. Long-acting oxytocin analogue
d. Denaverin hydrochloride
e. Progesterone

A

c. Long-acting oxytocin analogue

43
Q

In which position has caesarian section to be most frequently performed in a cow?

a. Standing position with epidural anaesthesia
b. Standing position with local anaesthesia
c. Standing position with general intravenous anaesthesia
d. Recumbency with general intravenous anaesthesia
e. Recumbency with local anaesthesia

A

b. Standing position with local anaesthesia

44
Q

Which is the correct place of uterine incision during the caesarian section in a cow?

a. Close to the bifurcation of the right uterine horn
b. On the large curvature of the pregnant uterine horn
c. Close to the bifurcation of the pregnant uterine horn
d. On the small curvature of the pregnant uterine horn
e. Close to the bifurcation on the both uterine horns

A

b. On the large curvature of the pregnant uterine horn

45
Q

Which levels of uterine wall have to be sutured?

a. Serosa and muscle
b. Mucosa, muscle, serosa
c. Mucosa and muscle
d. Mucosa and serosa
e. Mucosa and peritoneum

A

e. Mucosa and peritoneum

46
Q

What is the first and most important activity in the newborn calf?

a. To check the heart rate
b. At assist normal respiration
c. To feed with colostrum
d. To check the suckling reflex
e. To check the IgG level of the blood

A

b. At assist normal respiration

47
Q

Mark the INCORRECT answer!
How can bovine third degree laceration be treated?

a. I.m. antibiotics
b. Closing immediately
c. Rinse daily
d. Local antibiotics
e. Operation after 6 weeks

A

e. Operation after 6 weeks

48
Q

How long does a single parenteral treatment with oxytocin act on the first day after calving?

a. For 24 hours
b. For 12 hours
c. For 10 minutes
d. For up to 3-4 hours

A

d. For up to 3-4 hours

49
Q

Which disease is characterised by the followings?
Five days after calving fever and clinical signs appear, and… discharge leaves the vulva

a. Pyometra
b. Clinical endometritis
c. Puerperal metritis
d. Clinical metritis

A

c. Puerperal metritis

50
Q

How would you diagnose uterine disease in a cow 3 days after calving?

a. By ultrasonography
b. By laparoscopy
c. By vaginal examination
d. By the appearance of mucous vaginal discharge

A

c. By vaginal examination

51
Q

How can the severe acidosis of newborn calves be treated?

a. No need for treatment
b. NaCHO3 and glucose infusion
c. Glucose infusion
d. Artificial respiration
e. Calcium infusion

A

b. NaCHO3 and glucose infusion

52
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement!
Which factor does NOT predispose to primary uterine inertia?

a. Inadequate uterine stimulation in one- or two pup litters
b. Old bitch
c. Obesity
d. High humidity

A

d. High humidity

53
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement!
Which is NOT a sign for impending parturition in the bitch?

a. The bitch is restless, nesting
b. Vulva becomes swollen and oedematous
c. Clear, translucent, watery discharge from the vagina
d. Sudden increase in body temperature by 1-2°C

A

d. Sudden increase in body temperature by 1-2°C

54
Q

What should be the suspected diagnosis, if a bitch in good general condition has bloody vaginal discharge 6 weeks after parturition?

a. Subinvolution of placental sites (SIPS)
b. Normal uterine involution
c. Postpartal endometritis
d. Pyometra

A

a. Subinvolution of placental sites (SIPS)

55
Q

How long is the dog’s pregnancy?

a. 92-93 days
b. 45-55 days
c. 62-63 days
d. 56-58 days

A

c. 62-63 days

56
Q

How could you explain the decrease in body temperature prior to parturition?

a. Oestrogen increase provokes the thermoregulatory centre of the CNS
b. Prolactin peak provokes the thermoregulatory centre of the CNS
c. Increased progesterone provokes the thermoregulatory centre of the CNS during the pregnancy
d. Uterine contractions need more metabolic energy

A

c. Increased progesterone provokes the thermoregulatory centre of the CNS during the pregnancy

57
Q

Which statement is FALSE concerning the hormonal background of the luteal phase in bitches?

a. During second half of pregnancy, prolactin and LH are important luteotropic factors
b. Low LH levels cause abortion
c. Progesterone, produced by the corpus luteum and the placenta, is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy
d. The pregnancy-specific relaxin hormone has an indirect luteotropic effect

A

b. Low LH levels cause abortion

58
Q

What is characteristic of the reproductive cycle in dogs?

a. Seasonally polyoestrus
b. Polyoestrus
c. Seasonally monoestrus
d. Seasonal monoestrus, spontaneous ovulation

A

c. Seasonally monoestrus

59
Q

Mark the INCORRECT statement regarding the anoestrus period of bitch!

a. Obligate calm period
b. Its duration is basically determined by the duration of the interoestrus
c. It is an important period of the uterine involution
d. In the last weeks of the anoestrus, the ovaries are characterised by intense follicular development

A

b. Its duration is basically determined by the duration of the interoestrus

60
Q

How long can be treated manually the retained foetal membrane in cow?

a. 24 hours
b. 3-5 days
c. 10 days
d. 2 weeks
e. 21 days

A

c. 10 days

61
Q

How can be treated the retained foetal membrane in a cow?

a. Flushing uterus for 1x/day, for 5 days
b. Only with systemic antibiotic treatment
c. Manual removal of the foetal membrane and uterine tablets
d. Flushing the uterus for 2x/day, for 3 days

A

c. Manual removal of the foetal membrane and uterine tablets

62
Q

Mark the INCORRECT answer!
Indications for bovine caesarian section

a. Alive absolute large foetus
b. Dilatation failure
c. Torsio uteri
d. Living foetus with normal presentation and size
e. Dead absolute large foetus

A

d. Living foetus with normal presentation and size

63
Q

What is your diagnosis in a post part patient with high temperature and wheeze?

a. Hypoglycaemia
b. Ketonuria
c. Hypercalcaemia
d. Hypocalacemia

A

d. Hypocalacemia

64
Q

Choose a safe painkiller for pregnant or lactating bitch

a. Buprenorphine
b. Low lipid soluble morphine derivatives
c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
d. Alpha-2 agonists

A

b. Low lipid soluble morphine derivatives

65
Q

Choose the answer that contains the steps of care for newborn puppies in the correct order

a. 1. Clearing the airways one oral cavity. 2. Reversing the effect of fentanyl. 3. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle. 4. Umbilical chord management.
b. 1. Umbilical chord management. 2. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle. 3. Clearing the airways one oral cavity. 4. Reversing the effect of fentanyl.
c. 1. Umbilical chord management. 2. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle. 3. Reversing the effect of fentanyl. 4. Clearing the airways one oral cavity.
d. 1. Umbilical chord management. 2. Clearing the airways one oral cavity. 3. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle. 4. Reversing the effect of fentanyl.

A

a. 1. Clearing the airways one oral cavity. 2. Reversing the effect of fentanyl. 3. Gently rubbing the thorax and muzzle. 4. Umbilical chord management.

66
Q

Mark the INCORRECT answer!
Indications for bovine caesarian section

a. Alive absolute large foetus
b. Dilatation failure
c. Torsio uteri
d. Living foetus with normal presentation and size
e. Dead absolute large foetus

A

d?

67
Q

Which is NOT characteristic of a cat’s reproductive cycle?
Mark the INCORRECT answer

a. It is characterised by seasonal polyoestrus
b. It is characterised by induced ovulation
c. Spontaneous ovulation does not occur
d. The cycle can be interrupted by summer heat or dress

A

c. Spontaneous ovulation does not occur

68
Q

What is NOT a prerequisite for conservative / pharmacological treatment of pyometra?

a. Good kidney and liver function
b. Young patient
c. Breeding value or breeding intent
d. The presence of some degree of endometrial degeneration

A

d. The presence of some degree of endometrial degeneration

69
Q

What statement is FALSE concerning the feline pyometra?

a. Occurs less frequent
b. Clinical symptoms are more obscure
c. Renal damage is less common, so the appearance of polydipsia / polyuria is not always observed
d. Conservative treatment is more effective than in dogs

A

d. Conservative treatment is more effective than in dogs

70
Q

Which is NOT characteristic of a cat’s reproductive cycle?
Mark the INCORRECT answer

a. In case no ovulation occurs, the corpus luteum phase is missing and prooestrus begins again after the period of interoestrus
b. In case ovulation occurred, but mating was not fertile, an approx. 35-day pseudopregnancy follows
c. The pseudopregnant cat is characterised by the onset of milk production, so the non-pregnant cat can also nurse the kittens of other female cats
d. In the case of fertile mating, the female cat becomes pregnant, the length of pregnancy is approx. 65 days

A

?

71
Q

What treatment do you use in cats with hyperplastic fibroadenoma complex / hyperplastic fibroadenomatosis?

a. Aglepriston
b. Deslorelin
c. Progesterone
d. Cabergolin

A

?

72
Q

What is NOT a prerequisite for conservative / pharmacological treatment of pyometra?

a. Good kidney and liver function
b. Young patient
c. Breeding value of breeding intent
d. The presence of some degree of endometrial degeneration

A

?

73
Q

What statement is FALSE concerning the feline pyometra?

a. Occurs less frequent
b. Clinical symptoms are more obscure
c. Renal damage is less common, so the appearance of polydipsia / polyuria is not always observed
d. Conservative treatment is more effecting than in dogs

A

?

74
Q

Which statement is FALSE concerning the inflammatory mammary carcinoma?

a. Most often anapaestic carcinoma
b. Is an immediate surgical indication
c. Often develop in the luteal phase
d. If it develops, we see symptoms of severe mastitis and dermatitis

A

c?

75
Q

What treatment do you use in cats with hyperplastic fibroadenoma complex / hyperplastic fibroadenomatosis?

a. Aglepriston
b. Deslorelin
c. Progesterone
d. Cabergolin

A

?

76
Q

Mark the CORRECT statement!
After castration or neutering of male dogs

a. A significant increase in LH and FSH level can be measured
b. Significant increase in oestrogen, LH, and FSH levels can be measured
c. A significant increase in serum testosterone levels and FSH concentrations can be measured
d. Hormone levels do not change

A

b?

77
Q

Mark the CORRECT statement regarding the use of GnRH analogs in the form of implants

a. These can be used to perform irreversible chemical castration
b. Testosterone levels in males can be significantly reduced as early as the first 4-6 hours after implantation
c. These can increase the metabolic rate
d. By using implants while keeping sex hormone levels low, a drastic increase in LH and FSH levels can be avoided

A

?

Obstetrics (6 decks)

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