Semester 1 Final Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The Largest part; each hemisphere is made of 4 lobes

A

Cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vision

A

Occipital Lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Personality, Future planning

A

Frontal Lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Logical mathematical

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

balance and coordination

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hearing, memory, speech

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

involuntary actions (breathing, heart rate)

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

naturalist

A

respectful of environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Visual-spatial

A

ability to create internal mental images, “creative”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

interpersonal

A

relationships, “dependent”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

verbal-linguistic

A

reading, writing, speaking, “communicating”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bodily kinesthetic

A

physical education, coordination, “athletic”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

intrapersonal

A

self reflection, “independent”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

difference between IQ and EQ

A

IQ - book smarts

EQ - Social smarts, skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Three functions on the left side of the brain

A
  1. Logical
  2. Language
  3. Science/math
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Three functions on the right side of the brain

A
  1. Creativity
  2. Intreition
  3. Arts/Music
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a pyramid that shows the total mass of living tissue at each trophic level

A

biomass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the highest rate of reproduction under ideal conditions is known as

A

biotic potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A small organism known as protozoa lives in the stomach of termites. These protozoa depend on
the termite for shelter and food. In return, the protozoa secrete a chemical that the termite needs to digest wood. This type of relationship is known as

A

mutualism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A feeding step within an ecosystem is known as a

A

trophic level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Two examples of density independent factors are ____ and _____

A

tornado and flood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Disease, parasitism, and availability of food are all examples of_______limiting factors.

A

Density dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Zero population growth occurs when the _________________ is equal to the
_______________. In this case, the population reaches its __________ ___________.

A

Birth rate, death rate, carry capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

All of the possible food chains in an ecosystem make up a

A

food web

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An autotroph uses ___________ from the sun to make its own _______________.

A

energy, food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A ragworm lives inside the shell of a hermit crab. The worm receives shelter and neither harms nor helps the crab. This type of relationship is known as

A

commensalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

At each level of a food chain, _________ % of the energy is lost in the form of ________.

A

90%, heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A unique place occupied by an organism in and ecosystem is called its ___________. This

includes where it lives and its place in the food web.

A

niche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In an ecosystem ___________ flows in one direction, but _______________ is recycled.

A

energy, matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A first order consumer that eats plants is known as a _________

A

herbivore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The greatest amount of energy in a food chain or food pyramid is found at the____________of the chain/pyramid.

A

bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Movement of an organism into an area is known as _________________, while movement out an area is known as ____________

A

immigration, emigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

limiting factors definition and example

A

factors or circumstances which keep populations from reaching their biotic potentials
Example - lack of food, lack of space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

biotic definition and example

A

something related to living things

example - plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

abiotic definition and example

A

definition - anything chemical or physical that lacks life

example - light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Density-dependent definition and example

A

definition - factors which control population and operate more strongly on large populations
Examples - disease, competition, parasites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

density-independent definition and example

A

definition - factors which affect the lives of organisms regardless of the size of the population
Examples - extreme temperatures, floods, fire,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

dealing with the relations and interactions between organisms and their environment

A

ecology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

our entire plant with all its organisms and physical environments

A

Biosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

all the organisms that live in a place together with their physical environment

A

ecosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a group of ecosystems that share similar climates and typical organisms

A

biome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

all the different populations that live together in a defined area

A

community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

differences between food web and food chain

A

A food web consists of many food chains. A food chain only follows just one path as animals find food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

as a plant, that is able to produce its own food from inorganic substances. producers

A

producers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

an organism, usually an animal, that feeds on plants or other animals.

A

consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

an animal or other organism that feeds on dead organic matter.

A

scavenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

an organism, usually a bacterium or fungus, that breaks down the cells of dead plants and animals into simpler substances.

A

decomposer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

an organism that uses organic waste as a food source, as certain insects.

A

detritivore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

refers to the size of a population that occupies a given area at any point in time.

A

population density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

one organism lives on or in another organism which is usually harmed.

A

parasitism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

a group of individuals that belong to the same species and live in the same area

A

population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

levels of organization in the biosphere

A

individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

A

commensalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

organism that make their own food through photosynthesis

A

autotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a step in the passage of energy and materials

A

trophic level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

make up the first level

A

autotrophs (producers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

a consumer which feeds directly on a producer

A

first order consumer or primary consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

consumers that feed on other consumers

A

carnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

organisms that eat both plants and animals

A

omnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

carnivorous consumer, such as a snake, that feeds directly on a first-order consumer, such as a mouse

A

second-order consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

consumer that feeds upon a second-order consumer, such as a snake that feeds upon a mouse, that eats grasshoppers

A

third-order consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Steps of Scientific method

A
  1. Observe and recognize the problem
  2. Form a hypothesis
  3. Experiment the hypothesis
  4. Record and analyze data
  5. Draw a conclusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

educated guess

A

Hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what changes

A

variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

does not change

A

constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Lens one looks through

A

eye piece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

supports slide

A

stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

a variable in an experiment that influences the outcome.

A

experimental factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

a group of subjects that are not given the treatment being tested in order to serve as a benchmark for the tested group

A

control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

supports microscope

A

base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

supports body tube

A

arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

focuses slide under low power

A

Coarse adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

sharpens image

A

fine adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

regulates amount of

A

light diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

light source

A

lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

connects eyepiece to nosepiece

A

body tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

turns objectives into position

A

revolving nosepiece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

holds slide in place

A

stage clips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

lowest magnification

A

lowest magnification power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

highest magnification

A

high power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

If slide is thick, only some parts of the specimen may come into focus

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

to switch from low to high power, one must rotate the revolving nosepiece

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

for viewing microscope slides should be placed on the objective

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the total magnification of a microscope is determined by adding the ocular lens magnification and the objective lens magnification

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Cell Theory 3 parts

A
  1. Cells are the basic structure and function of a living thing
  2. All organisms (living things) are made out of cells
  3. only existing cells can make new cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

group of similar cells that perform a particular function

A

tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

group of tissues that work together to perform closely related functions

A

organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

group of organs that work together to perform a specific function

A

organ system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

who was the first scientist to observe cells?

A

hooke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

least to most complex organisms

A

atom, cell, tissue, organ, organism system, organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

have a “true” nuclei

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

bacteria are an example

A

prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

do not have a nuclei

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

humans and plants are an example

A

eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

3 main jobs of the cell

A
  1. Make proteins
  2. Make energy
  3. Make new cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Encloses the contents of the cell and controls the movement of particles into and out of the cell

A

cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

3 other functions of the cell membrane

A
  1. site of chemical reactions
  2. cell to cell recognition
  3. separate organelles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

regulates what goes in and out of the cell

A

cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

control center, contains DNA

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

protects and supports the cell

A

cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

stores food and water

A

vacuole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

provides energy

A

mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

packages chemicals

A

golgi body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

canals for transport

A

ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

provides framework

A

cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

makes food for plant

A

chloroplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

helps cell reproduce

A

centriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

where chemical reactions occur

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

has digestive enzymes

A

lysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

three structures that are only found in plant cells

A

cell wall, chloroplasts and large vacuole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

cell membrane are made up of

A

carbohydrates and lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

matter is anything that has

A

mass and takes up space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

matter is made of tiny particles called

A

atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

when two or more different atoms chemically combine a

A

compound is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

a molecule is a combination of the same or different atoms held together by chemical

A

bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

each element has a

A

symbol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

positively charged particles

A

protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

negatively charged particles are

A

electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

neutral charged particles are

A

neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what commonly found molecule is represented to the right

A

h20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

when two or more water molecules form hydrogen bonds between each other is known as

A

cohesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

when water sticks to another substance, such as cellulose in a plant, this is known as

A

adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The periodic table of the elements was first arranged by the Russian scientist

A

dmitri mendeleev

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The atomic number is equal to the number of

A

protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The atomic mass is equal to the number of

A

protons and nuetrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

a change, new combinations of atoms are produced.

Examples include: burning wood, burning gasoline, cars rusting, and digestions of food.

A

change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

During our chemistry demos in class, when the magnesium metal was burned, a bright light appeared, and ash was formed. What type of change occurred

A

chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

a change, the substance changes from one state of matter to another.
An example where this happens is when water changes from ice to a liquid.

A

physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

When a substance changes from a solid to a liquid we call it

A

melting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

When a substance changes from a liquid to a gas we call it

A

evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

In a solution of Kool-Aid and water, the solvent is the _____________and the solute is the _________________.

A

H20 and kool aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Solutions with a higher concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) than hydroxide ions (OH-), and a pH below 7 are know as

A

acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Solutions with a higher concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) than hydrogen ions (H+) and a pH above 7 are known a

A

bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Solutions with a pH of 7 are

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

A common household solution that is acidic is ______________________, while a common household base is _______________________.

A

vinegar/lemon juice and detergent/bleach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which pH is more acidic, a pH of 3, or a pH of 6? _________________ Which pH is more basic, a pH of 10 or a pH of 13? _________________________.

A

PH 3 and PH 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Diffusion is the movement of materials from areas of

A

higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

It is a type of ____________ because it does not require energy to move the particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

A

passive transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Diffusion will occur if the substances are in

A

unequal amounts on either side of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

if the membrane is _______________ to the substance, meaning it allows it to go through

A

permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

requires energy because particles are moving from an area of low concentration to high concentration, similar to when one is trying to walk in the opposite direction of a crowd of people.

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Osmosis is the diffusion of

A

water through a membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

it is important for the cell to be in

A

equilibrium with its environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Pathogen vs symbiont

A

Pathogen - causes disease, symbiont- does not cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

disease caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and or parasites

A

infectious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Prokaryote vs Eukaryote

A

Prokaryote - Lacks True nucleus

Eukaryote - Has nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Binary Fission vs conjugation

A

Binary Fission - A reproduction when DNA splits

conjugation - exchange genetic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

weakened or killed pathogens used to produce immunity to a disease

A

Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Autotrophic vs Heterotrophic

A

autotrophic bacteria - produces own food

Heterotrophic bacteria - absorbs nutrients from surrounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Antigen vs Antibody

A

Antigen - a substance that triggers an immune response

Antibody - destruction by immune cells

151
Q

Active vs Passive Immunity

A

Active - artificial, by vaccine, Last several years

Passive - Natural, from mother, short term

152
Q

List 3 bacteria

A
  • coccus
  • bacillus
  • spirillum
153
Q

disease caused by microorganism that disrupts normal body functions

A

homeostasis

154
Q

an animal that carries disease from an animal host to a human host is called a

A

vector

155
Q

3 ways bacteria is beneficial

A

breaks down dead organism inside, bacteria makes food, removes waste

156
Q

3 ways bacteria is harmful

A

cause diseases, invade living organism, harms immune system.

157
Q

Bacteria such as Clostridium botulinum can form an what when conditions become harsh?

A

endospore

158
Q

A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other

A

parasitism

159
Q

Define pathogen

A

causes disease

160
Q

describe Koch’s Theory of infectious disease

A

pathogens must always be found in the body of a sick organism

161
Q

Describe thee three lines of they body’s defense again disease

A
  1. Physical and Chemical Barriers
  2. Non-Specific Resistance
  3. Specific resistance
162
Q

define antibiotics

A

substances which destroy bacteria

163
Q

3 diseases that can be treated with antibiotics

A

strep throat
bronchitis
chlamydia

164
Q

how is AIDS caused

A

by HIV disables immune system

165
Q

What does skin do?

A

blocks pathogens from entering

166
Q

what does cilia do?

A

push pathogens away

167
Q

what does stomach acid do?

A

destroys microbes

168
Q

group that stays the same

A

control

169
Q

“variable” what is being tested

A

experimental factor

170
Q

how is AIDS transmitted?

A

direct contact

171
Q

how is AIDS prevented?

A

safe sex

172
Q

inborn immunity

A

present at birth

173
Q

acquired immunity

A

happens in lifetime

174
Q

active

A

make own antibodies, get the vaccine

175
Q

passive

A

get antibodies from another source, breast feeding, tetanus

176
Q

Bacteria such as Clostridium botulinum can form an what when conditions become harsh?

A

endospore

177
Q

Name 4 methods used to preserve food and prevent bacterial growth

A
  • salting
  • freezing
  • smoking
  • dehydration
178
Q

Disinfectants are used to destroy bacteria on what?

A

surfaces

179
Q

Antiseptics are used to destroy bacteria on the?

A

Skin and body

180
Q

Name 4 foods that bacteria help produce

A
  • Peas
  • pickles
  • sour cream
  • soy sauce
181
Q

3 diseases that are caused by bacteria

A
  • lyme disease
  • strep throat
  • tuberculosis
182
Q

Which diseases above can be treated with antibiotics?

A

Strep throat, tuberculosis, Lyme disease, Pneumonia

183
Q

4 ways diseases can be spread

A
  • coughing,sneezing
  • Physdical contact
  • Sexual Contact
  • Water and foo
184
Q

What was the purpose of the agar on the petri dish?

A

Nutrients for bacteria

185
Q

What was the purpose of the peppercorn culture?

A

Bacteria source

186
Q

What is the “zone of inhibition” ?

A

Area where bacteria did not grow

187
Q

What does a large “zone of inhibition” show

A

The antibiotic works well to kill the bacteria

188
Q

Why was a sterile paper disk used when you were testing the effect of the different antibiotics?

A

Control

189
Q

Why were the plates incubated overnight and at 37 degrees celsius?

A

to give the bacteria a chance to grow

190
Q

make their own food

A

chemosynthetic

191
Q

use light as a source of energy

A

Photosynthetic

192
Q

decomposed dead or decaying materials

A

saprophytes or decomposers

193
Q

need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically.

A

Obligate aerobes

194
Q

poisoned by oxygen, so they gather at the bottom of the tube where the oxygen concentration is lowest

A

Obligate anaerobes

195
Q

bacteria that can live in the presence and/or absence of oxygen are known as

A

facultative anaerobe

196
Q

poisons produced by disease-causing organisms (bacteria) are known as

A

toxins

197
Q

What microorganisms can cause disease?

A

fungi, viruses, protozoans, bacteria

198
Q

the stages of viral infection in order

A

attachment, entry, replication, assembly, lysis

199
Q

What does AIDS stands for

A

Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

200
Q

What is AIDS caused by? How is it spread by? Is there a cure?

A

HIV and spread by unprotected sex, sharing needles and giving birth. There is no cure for AIDS

201
Q

What type of pathogen was responsible for the disease in “outbreak”?

A

virus

202
Q

3 ways that the pathogen was spread from person to person in outbreak

A
  • scrape
  • bodyfluid
  • air born
203
Q

Your immune system produces proteins called?

A

Antibodies

204
Q

These proteins are made by specific immune cells called?

A

B-Cells

205
Q

Any foreign substance that enters the body is known as…

A

Antigen

206
Q

Barrier that stops pathogens from entering the body

A

skin

207
Q

increases flow of white blood cells and fluids to an area

A

histamine

208
Q

traps pathogens in the nose and throat

A

mucus

209
Q

increases body temperature to slow the growth of pathogens

A

fever

210
Q

inhibits the synthesis of viral proteins, helps block viral replication

A

interferon

211
Q

specific defenses of the immune system are based on the body ability to recognize what from what? and involve white blood cells known as what?

A

Self from non-self lymphocytes

212
Q

The type of cells involved in making antibodies are known as …

A

B-cells

213
Q

what are the two kinds of cells that b cells can produce after an antigen binds to them?

A

Plasma cells and memory B cells

214
Q

one can get active immunity to a disease by having the what or getting a what?

A

disease or getting a vaccine

215
Q

babies receive what through breast milk or through the placenta during pregnancy?

A

Inborn

216
Q

When the body starts to attack its own cells as in type 1 diabetes, this is known as?

A

Autoimmune disease

217
Q

An overreaction of the immune system where patients have watery eyes, runny noses, and need to take antihistamines is known as..

A

Allergies

218
Q

LIst the 4 phases of Mitosis in the correct order

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

219
Q

hat is the name of the resting and growth phase where ells spend the most time?

A

interphase

220
Q

which type of cell division occurs in skin, hair, and tissue?

A

Mitosis

221
Q

which type of cell division produces eggs and sperm (Gametes)?

A

Meiosis

222
Q

how many chromosomes are present in normal human sperm and egg cells?

A

46

223
Q

division of the cytoplasm of a cell

A

cytokinesis

224
Q

condition in which cells grow uncontrollaby

A

cancer

225
Q

a nuclear envelope forms around chromosomes

A

telophase

226
Q

sister chromatids separate

A

anaphase

227
Q

a spindle forms

A

prophase

228
Q

chromosomes line up across center/equator of the cell

A

metaphase

229
Q

the genetic material condenses and chromosomes become visible

A

prophase

230
Q

chromosomes move to opposite sides of cell

A

anaphase

231
Q

the cytoplasm divides

A

cytokinesis

232
Q

crossing over occurs between tetrads

A

prophase 1

233
Q

paired homologous chromosomes line up across the center of the cell

A

metaphase 1

234
Q

spindle fibers pull each homologous chromosome pair toward an opposite end of the cell

A

anaphase 1

235
Q

chromosomes line up “single file” at the center of the cell

A

Metaphase 2

236
Q

when an egg and sperm join, how many chromosomes does a resulting human zygote have?

A

46

237
Q

number of daughter cells in Mitosis

A

2

238
Q

number of daughter cells in meiosis

A

4 sperm, 1 egg

239
Q

daughter cells haploid (n) or diploid (2n) mitosis

A

diploid

240
Q

daughter cells haploid (n) or diploid (2n) meiosis

A

haploid

241
Q

number of cell division in mitosis

A

1

242
Q

number of cell division in meiosis

A

2

243
Q

how many total chromosomes are present in a normal human karyotype

A

46

244
Q

how many pairs of sex chromosomes are there

A

23

245
Q

the 23rd pair of chromosomes in a female are written as

A

xx

246
Q

the 23rd pair of chromosomes in a male are written as

A

xy

247
Q

a technique used to remove amniotic fluid from the uterus of a pregnant mother is known as

A

amniocentesis

248
Q

can then be constructed to determine any chromosomal disorders, or simply determine the sex of the unborn child

A

v

249
Q

a picture of an unborn child can be used to determine if there are any abnormalities. One technique that uses sound waves is called

A

ultrasonography (Ultrasound)

250
Q

if an individual has _____, then they have an extra set of chromosomes at chromosome pair #21.

A

down syndrome

251
Q

If a child only has one X in their sex chromosomes, then it has the disorder known as ___

A

Turner’s syndrome

252
Q

define Phenotype

A

outward physical appearance

253
Q

define genotype

A

Actual genes (alleles)

254
Q

define dominant

A

form of allele that prevents expression of the other

255
Q

define recessive

A

form of allele that must be homozygous in order for that trait to be seen

256
Q

who is known as the “father of genetics”

A

gregor mendel

257
Q

which organism did he conduct most of his students in genetics with?

A

pea plants

258
Q

when you solve a genetics problem using punnett square, are the results you get considered to be expected results or observed results

A

observed

259
Q

a women is pregnant. What are the chances her baby will be a boy?

A

50%

260
Q

the sex of a child is determined by which parent?

A

father

261
Q

sex linked traits such as colorblindness and hemophilia are carried on the __ chromosome.

A

x

262
Q

males either inherit the dominant or recessive gene from their ___ on the X chromosome.

A

mother

263
Q

if their mother is colorblind or has hemophilia, then __ of all the boys born to her will have either of the diseases

A

100%

264
Q

what does DNA stand for

A

deoxyribonucleic acid

265
Q

where is DNA found?

A

The nucleus

266
Q

who discovered DNA?

A

watson and crick

267
Q

The scientiata decribed their model of DNA as a

A

double helix

268
Q

the x-ray photograph of ______ helped the two men discover the structure of the molecule

A

Rosalind Franklin

269
Q

name the 3 molecules that make up DNA

A
  1. Deoxyribose
  2. Phosphate
  3. Nitrogen bases
270
Q

If we think of DNA as a ladder, what makes up the sides?

A

deoxyribose and phosphate

271
Q

If we think of DNA as a ladder, what makes up the rungs, or steps?

A

nitrogen bases

272
Q

in DNA thymine (T) bonds with ___

A

adenine

273
Q

Cytosine (C) bonds with __

A

Guanine

274
Q

DNA can make a copy of itself in a process called?

A

replication

275
Q

When does replication occur?

A

in the nucleus during interphase of the cell cycle.

276
Q

sections of DNA, which make up each chromosome are known as

A

genes

277
Q

genes control the synthesis of ___

A

proteins

278
Q

3 differences between DNA and RNA

A
  1. single stranded instead of double
  2. ribose instead of deoxyribose
  3. uracil instead of thymine
279
Q

the 3 nitrogen base combinations of mRNA

A

condons

280
Q

the 3 nitrogen base combinations on tRNA are called ___

A

anticodons

281
Q

what is the name of the process where mRNA is made

A

transcript

282
Q

what is the name of the process that follows transcription and translates the message of RNA into a protein?

A

translation

283
Q

each of the three bases on the mRNA codes for a specific _____, such as trp, phe, gly, and ser.

A

amino acid

284
Q

These are bonded together to form a ___

A

protein

285
Q

The ______ identified about 20,000 genes in human DNA and its sequence of about 3 billion base pairs.

A

Human Genome Project

286
Q

A ____ is all of the DNA in an organism including its genes

A

Genome

287
Q

A technique used to separate out DNA fragments for analysis, including for forensic evidence, its known as

A

gel electrophoresis

288
Q

list 3 ways that DNA technology is currently being used to help humans

A
  1. Agriculture
  2. Disease diognosis + treatment
  3. Tracing human migration patterns
289
Q

thymine

A

The base that pairs Adenine in DNA.

290
Q

adenine

A

The base that pairs with Thymine in DNA.

291
Q

cytosine

A

The base that pairs with guanine in DNA.

292
Q

A karyotype with three 21st chromosomes is that of someone with:

A

Down syndrome

293
Q

Which genetic screening process allows a doctor to look at the chromosomes of a fetus?

A

amniocentesis

294
Q

Green seeds (G) are dominant to yellow seeds (g). If two heterozygous green seeded plants are crossed, what percent of the offspring would you expect to have yellow seeds?

A

25%

295
Q

A blueprint of an individual’s chromosomes is called a:

A

Karyotype

296
Q

A chart showing the inheritance of a genetic disorder through a family is called a:

A

pedigree

297
Q

Proteins are made up of subunits of:

A

amino acids

298
Q

When in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

interphase

299
Q

Muscle cells, skin cells, and liver cells undergo:

A

mitosis

300
Q

budding, fragmentation, and binary fission are all forms of what

A

asexual

301
Q

Binary fission occurs in

A

bacteria

302
Q

a starfish can replace missing arms by a process named

A

regeneration

303
Q

organisms that live in water usually fertilize their eggs

A

externally

304
Q

external fertilization requires

A

water

large number sperm and eggs

305
Q

humans, bats birds, spiders, and whales all use what fertilization?

A

internal

306
Q

name some advantages of internal development of offspring

A
  1. protection from changes in environment
  2. protection from predators
  3. nourishment from mother
307
Q

asexual reproduction produces offspring that have …

A

identical genetic mater

308
Q

insects, birds, and reptiles all fertilize their eggs

A

internally

309
Q

fertilization usually occurs in and where does it fertilize?

A

the fallopian tubes, uterus

310
Q

the union of sperm and egg occurs in the oviduct also known as

A

fallopian tube

311
Q

external sac that holds male gonads

A

scrotum

312
Q

structure that deposits sperm in the female’s body

A

penis

313
Q

structure in which sperm mature

A

epididymis

314
Q

the tube through which sperm travel to the urethra

A

vas deferens

315
Q

sperm mixed with the seminal fluid is called

A

semen

316
Q

sperm are produced in the

A

testes

317
Q

sperm are stored in the

A

epididymis

318
Q

both semen and urine exit the male’s body through the

A

urethra

319
Q

the primary reproductive organs of females are the ….

A

ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes

320
Q

the function of estrogen is to help the what

A

egg mature

321
Q

the structure of the female reproductive system where an embryo develops is called the what

A

uterus

322
Q

an unfertilized egg leaves the body

A

menstruation

323
Q

the egg travels through a fallopian tube

A

luteal phase

324
Q

an egg within a follicle develops develops

A

follicular phase

325
Q

an egg is released from an ovary

A

ovulation

326
Q

FSH is made by the

A

anterior pituitary and in the brain stands for follicle stimulating hormone

327
Q

LH stands for

A

luteinizing hormone

328
Q

where is it realased

A

anterior pituitary

329
Q

the two ovarian hormones are

A

estrogen and progesterone

330
Q

the uterine lining is maintained by the hormone

A

progesterone

331
Q

blood, uterine, tissue, and the unfertilized egg make up

A

menstruation

332
Q
if fertilization takes place, which hormone should in crease or stay on and which will shut off 
FSH - 
LH
Estrogen 
progesterine
A

shut off
shut off
stay on
stay on

333
Q

what happens to the lining of the uterus if fertilization takes place

A

it is maintained

334
Q

hormones and structures act through

A

feed back

335
Q

what triggers growth and development of an egg in the ovary with FSH

A

the pituitary

336
Q

in response, the ovary then secretes the two sex hormones that control development of the gg and uterus linign

A

estrogen and progesterone

337
Q

when ovarian hormones reach low levels, this feeds back and stimulates the

A

pituitary gland

338
Q

the human gestation period is approximately

A

40 weeks

339
Q

what happens in the first trimester

A

all of the system of the body begin to form

340
Q

what happens in the second trimester

A

growth and maturation of the fetal tissues countine

341
Q

what happens in the third trimester

A

the fetus triples in mass

342
Q

during implantation the fertilization egg embeds itself into the lining of the

A

uterus

343
Q

the fetus receives what nutrients from the mother and gets rid of what and the other wastes through the umbilical cord

A

o2, co2

344
Q

the contractions of labor before childbirth are caused by the hormone

A

oxytocin which comes from the brain

345
Q

birth control is the responsibility of

A

both men and women

346
Q

the most effective way of birth control is

A

abstinence

347
Q

Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STD

A

fBalse

348
Q

Chlamydia damages the reproductive tract and can cause infertility

A

true

349
Q

there is no cure for HIV

A

true

350
Q

hepatitis B and genital herpes are viral STDs

A

True

351
Q

produce eggs and hormones

A

ovaries

352
Q

normal place of fertilization

A

fallopian tubes

353
Q

womb - egg implants here

A

uterus

354
Q

opening between cervix and vagina

A

cervix

355
Q

birth canal

A

vagina

356
Q

sperm produced here

A

testes

357
Q

stores urine

A

urinary bladder

358
Q

sac containing testes

A

scrotum

359
Q

carnes sperm from testes to penis

A

vas deferens

360
Q

passes both urine and semen

A

urethra

361
Q

external structure - deposits

A

penis

362
Q

union of egg and sperm outside

A

external ferrilization

363
Q

union of egg and sperm inside female’s body

A

internal fertilization

364
Q

follicle (egg) develops

A

follicular

365
Q

14 day - egg released

A

ovulation

366
Q

corpus luteum releases hermones

A

luteal

367
Q

blood and tissue leave uterus

A

menstruation

368
Q

egg - pupa - larvae - adult

A

complete

369
Q

egg - nymph - adult

A

incomplete

370
Q

connects fetus to placenta exchange between fetus and mother

A

umbilical cord

371
Q

surrounds fetus provides food and O2

A

placenta

372
Q

1 egg 1 sperm

A

identical twins

373
Q

2 eggs - 2 sperm

A

fraternal