section 2 test Flashcards

1
Q

what is a small smooth are on a bone?

A

facet

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2
Q

what are numerous branching bony plates found within spongy bone?

A

trabeculae

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3
Q

Spina bifida is a congenital defect of the vertebral column in which the laminae of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and unite at the midline. t/f

A

true

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4
Q

Calcitonin inhibits activity of osteoclasts, speeds blood calcium uptake by bone, and accelerates calcium deposition into bones. t/f

A

true

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5
Q

During the repair of a severe fracture, minerals are deposited quickly such that the fracture may be completely repaired within three to five days. t/f

A

false

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6
Q

Bone remodeling plays a role in the maintenance of proper levels of calcium in the blood t/f

A

true

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7
Q

the scapula is an example of what bone?

  • irregular
  • long
  • short
  • flat
  • sesamoid
A

flat

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8
Q

this is the region in mature bone where the diaphysis and the epiphysis join.

  • Epiphyseal plate
  • epiphyseal line
  • metaphysis
  • diaphyseal line
  • diaphyseal plate
A

metaphysis

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9
Q

The process of intramembranous ossification generates bone within a pre-existing template composed of mesenchyme tissue. In contrast, endochondral ossification generates bone within a pre-existing template composed of _____.

  • hyaline cartilage
  • periosteum
  • articular cartilage
  • adipose tissue
  • none of the above
A

hyaline cartilage

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10
Q

these are considered bone dissolving cells.

  • osteogenic
  • osteoclast
  • osteocytes
  • osteoblasts
  • all of the above
A

osteoclast

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11
Q

what are bony chambers were osteocytes are located within the compact bone?

A

lacunae

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12
Q

what is the ongoing replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue?

A

bone remodeling

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13
Q

In the process of intramembranous ossification, bone forms within hyaline cartilage that develops from mesenchyme t/f

A

false

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14
Q

The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk. t/f

A

false

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15
Q

Short bones have greater length than width t/f

A

false

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16
Q

Vitamin D is not needed for the proper absorption of calcium in the small intestine t/f

A

false

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17
Q

The mesenchyme-filled spaces that are present between cranial bones at birth are referred to as

  • flat bones
  • fontanels
  • parietal bones
  • temporal bones
  • occipital bones
A

fontanels

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18
Q

about 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone?

  • rib
  • clavicle
  • humerus
  • ulna
  • tibia
A

tibia

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19
Q

the lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone?

  • tibia
  • fibula
  • tarsal
  • meratarsals
  • none of the above
A

fibula

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20
Q

which of the following is not a step in the formation of endochondral bone?

  • Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
  • Periosteum forms from connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone.
  • Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
  • Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
A

hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue

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21
Q

what is a ridge or an elongated prominence on a bone?

A

crest

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22
Q

when places under mechanical stress, bone tissue becomes stronger through increased deposition of mineral salts and production of _ fibers by _

A

collagen, osteoblasts

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23
Q

The epiphyseal (growth) plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage in the metaphysis of a growing bone that is made up of four zones. t/f

A

true

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24
Q

The lacrimal bones form the posterior portion of the hard palate, part of the floor and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and a small portion of the floors of the orbits. t/f

A

false

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25
Q

The epiphysis is a tough vascular fibrous tissue covering the muscle t/f

A

false

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26
Q

The axial skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk t/f

A

true

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27
Q

this is the shaft of a long bone.

  • diaphysis
  • epiphysis
  • metaphysis
  • periosteum
  • marrow
A

diaphysis

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28
Q

which of the following is not found in spongy bone?

  • Haversian canals
  • trabculae
  • osteoblasts
  • matrix
A

Haversian canals

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29
Q

the largest of the tarsal bones is the?

  • talus
  • calcaneus
  • cuboid
  • navicular
A

calcaneus

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30
Q

osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned along?

  • horizontal to the metaphysis
  • parallel to the epiphysis
  • lines of stress
  • randomly between the epiphyseal plate
  • parallel to blood vessels
A

lines of stress

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31
Q

a _ is a long narrow channel, depression or furrow?

A

groove

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32
Q

a _ is the eminence at the articular end of a bone above a condyle

A

epicondyle

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33
Q

a boy’s bones are usually ossified by age 18. t/f

A

false

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34
Q

The thoracic vertebrae are the largest and the strongest of the unfused bones in the vertebral column t/f

A

false

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35
Q

Growth hormone causes long bone growth through ossification of the epiphyseal disk. t/f

A

true

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36
Q

scoliosis is a lateral bending of the vertebral column, usually in the thoracic region t/f

A

true

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37
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called

  • Rheumatics
  • Podiatry
  • Orthopedics
  • Cardiology
  • Interologist
A

orthopedics

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38
Q

which of the following bone surface markings forms attachment points for connective tissue?

  • tuberosity
  • fissure
  • meatus
  • sulcus
  • facet
A

tuberosity

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39
Q

the proximal and distal ends of a bone are called the

  • epiphyses
  • diaphysis
  • metaphyses
  • periosteum
  • endosteum
A

epiphyses

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40
Q

a _ is a cavity within a bone

A

sinus

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41
Q

an opening through which blood vessels, nerves or ligaments pass is called a?

A

foramen

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42
Q

the replacement of cartilage by bone is called endochondral ossification. t/f

A

true

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43
Q

a persons bones are usually ossified by age 16 t/f

A

false

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44
Q

Steroid hormones are responsible for stopping long bone growth or ossification of your epiphyseal plate. t/f

A

true

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45
Q

the diaphysis is a tough vascular fibrous tissue covering the bone t/f

A

false

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46
Q

this is a structure of a long bone that stores energy

  • diaphysis
  • epiphysis
  • metaphysis
  • periosteum
  • marrow
A

marrow

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47
Q

which facial bone articulates with every other facial bone except the mandible?

  • zygomatic bone
  • sphenoid bone
  • palatine bone
  • nasal bone
  • maxillae
A

maxillae

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48
Q

these are considered bone building cells.

  • osteogenic
  • osteoclast
  • osteocytes
  • osteoblasts
  • all of the above
A

osteoblasts

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49
Q

Which bone includes an opening for the ear canal (the external auditory meatus) and articulates with the mandible?

  • zygomatic bone
  • parietal bone
  • maxillae
  • frontal bone
  • temporal bone
A

temporal bone

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50
Q

bone building cells that calcify cartilage are called?

A

osteoblasts

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51
Q

what is a small rounded elevation or eminence on a bone?

A

tubercle

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52
Q

the main reason the body needs calcium is to make out bones strong t/f

A

false

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53
Q

The bones of the skull are grouped into two categories: facial bones and cranial bones. t/f

A

true

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54
Q

the capitulum :

  • Articulates with the head of radius
  • Is a rounded knob on the lateral aspect of the humerus
  • Projects anteriorly
  • Both a and b
  • All of the above
A

both a and b

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55
Q

What type of cell is most likely to be found inside a lacuna of mature bone?

  • osteogenic cell
  • osteoblast
  • osteoclast
  • osteocyte
  • none of the above
A

osteocyte

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56
Q

this is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones

  • diaphysis
  • epiphysis
  • metaphysis
  • periosteum
  • marrow
A

epiphysis

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57
Q

which of the following is NOT true of surface marking on bone?

  • they allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels
  • they provide attachments for muscles
  • they provide movement within the bone
  • they help form joints
  • they can be a depression or a projection
A

they provide movement within a bone

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58
Q

ribs that do not have their own costal cartilages and attach directly to the sternum are called _ ribs

A

false

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59
Q

what is the proximal end of a bone?

A

head

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60
Q

all of the following are functions of the human skeletal system except:

  • assistance in movement
  • support
  • protection
  • mineral homeostasis
  • carbohydrate storage
A

carbohydrate storage

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61
Q

which of the following hip bones is superior?

  • llium
  • pubis
  • lschium
  • both a and c
  • all of the above
A

ilium

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62
Q

which of the following is true for yellow bone marrow?

  • is can change to red marrow
  • it stores fat
  • it produces white blood cells
  • it produces erythrocytes
  • it can change to red marrow and store fat
  • all of the above
A

it can change to red bone marrow and store fat

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63
Q

what is the expanded portion at each end of long bones that articulates with another bone?

A

epiphysis

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64
Q

what is a groove or natural division, cleft, or slit?

A

fissure

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65
Q

which of the following is not true for yellow marrow?

  • it produces red blood cells
  • it stores fat
  • it can change to red marrow
  • it is found in the medullary cavity
A

it produces red blood cells

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66
Q

When the amount of calcium in the blood rises above the homeostatic set point, which of the following processes acts to reduce the amount of calcium in the blood?

  • increasing the rate of bone deposition
  • increasing the rate of bone resorption
  • decreasing the rate at which the kidneys excrete calcium into urine
  • increasing the absorption of calcium from foods in the gastrointestinal tract
  • a and b
A

in creasing the rate of bone deposition

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67
Q

Which of the bones listed contribute to the acetabulum? ilium, ischium, or pubis

  • ilium
  • ilium, ischium, pubis
  • ischium
  • ischium, pubis
  • pubis
A

ilium, ischium, pubis

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68
Q
the tibiofemoral joint includes
-femur condyles
-condyles of the tibia
condyles of the fibula
-both a and b
-all of the above
A

both a and b

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69
Q

calcium ion exchange Is regulated by hormones, and the most important hormone involved in this process is _ hormone

A

parathyroid

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70
Q

the _ is the bone shaft or body- the long, cylindrical, main portion of the bone

A

diaphysis

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71
Q

The lacrimal bones form the posterior portion of the hard palate, part of the floor and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and a small portion of the floors of the orbits. t/f

A

false

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72
Q

Steroid hormones are responsible for stopping long bone growth or ossification of your epiphyseal plate. t/f

A

true

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73
Q

these bones include the organs of hearing and balance and articulate with the mandible.

  • frontal
  • temporal
  • parietal
  • occipital
  • nasal
A

temporal

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74
Q

the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus is found?

  • at the distal end
  • at the proximal end
  • at the midpoint of the shaft
  • at the epiphyseal plate
  • none of the above
A

at the midpoint of the shaft

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75
Q

this is a bone located within ankles or wrists.

  • long bone
  • sutural bone
  • irregular bone
  • sesamoid bone
  • short bone
A

short bone

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76
Q

which of the following is found in the axial skeleton/

  • tarsal
  • tibia
  • sphenoid
  • scapula
  • clavicle
A

sphenoid

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77
Q

what is an elevated round process of a bone?

A

tuberosity

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78
Q

what contains few spaces and is the strongest form of bone tissue?

A

compact bone

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79
Q

which of the following is an unpaired cranial bone?

  • frontal bone
  • occipital bone
  • temporal bone
  • parietal bone
  • a and b only
A

a and b only

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80
Q

in which phase of the human life cycle does bone deposition generally occur to a much greater degree than bone resorption?

  • childhoot and adolescence
  • middle age
  • old age
  • none of the above
A

childhood and adolescence

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81
Q

When the amount of calcium in the blood drops below the homeostatic set point, which of the following processes acts to restore blood calcium?

  • increasing the rate at which osteoclasts perform bone resorption
  • increasing the absorption of calcium from foods in the gastrointestinal tract
  • decreasing the rate at which the kidneys excrete calcium into urine
  • a and b
  • a, b, and c
A

a, b and c

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82
Q

the anatomical neck of the humerus includes the:

  • epiphyseal line
  • greater tubercle
  • intertubercular sulcus
  • surgical neck
  • both a and c
A

epiphyseal line

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83
Q

the _ bone is sponge like in appearance and is located on the midline in the anterior part of the cranial floor medial to the orbits

A

ethmoid

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84
Q

the process of bone formation is referred to as

A

ossification

85
Q

this facial bone articulates with teeth.

  • lacrimal
  • palatine
  • vomer
  • maxillae
  • nasal
A

maxillae

86
Q

Put the bones cells in order of their maturation from unspecialized to specialized.

  • Osteoblast, osteogenic, osteocytes
  • Osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocytes
  • Osteogenic, osteocytes, osteoblast
  • Osteogenic, osteocytes, osteoclast
  • None of the above
A

osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocytes

87
Q

Which list contains only facial bones?

  • lacrimal bones, zygomatic bones, mandible
  • temporal bones, frontal bone, palatine bones
  • sphenoid bone, ethmoid bone, temporal bone
  • occipital bone, maxillae, vomer
  • none of the above
A

lacrimal bones, zygomatic bones, mandible

88
Q

the _ is hyaline cartilage fond on either end of a long bone which pushes out, enlarges, becomes calcified and former new bone

A

epiphyseal plate

89
Q

a _ is a projection or outgrowth of bone or tissue

A

process

90
Q

the vertebrae and facial bones are examples of

  • irregular bones
  • long bones
  • short bones
  • flat bones
A

irregular bones

91
Q

ribs that are not attached to the sternum at their anterior costal cartilages are known as

  • vertebrochondral ribs
  • vertebrosternal ribs
  • false floating ribs
  • true rube
  • false ribe
  • sternocostal ribs
A

false floating ribs

92
Q

the following are attachment sites on the clavicle

  • conical tuberosity
  • acromial tuberosity
  • costal tuberosity
  • all of the above
  • none of the above
A

none of the above

93
Q

what is the scapular notch used for?

  • ligament attachment
  • tendon attachment
  • passageway for a nerve
  • both a and b
  • none of the above
A

passageway for a nerve

94
Q

what must be present in your diet for calcium absorption in the small intestine

A

vitamin D

95
Q

what is a sharp process of bone?

A

spine

96
Q

which notch is found between the olecranon and coronoid process?

  • ulnar notch
  • radial notch
  • olecranal notch
  • trochlear notch
  • epicondyle notch
A

trochlear notch

97
Q

the _ is a tough vascular fibrous tissue covering bone

  • ligament
  • tendon
  • periosteum
  • endosteum
  • epiphysis
A

periosteum

98
Q

the arches of the foot:

  • are four in number
  • are formed by metatarsal and tarsal bones
  • are rigid
  • all of the above
A

are formed by metatarsal and tarsal bones

99
Q

which of the following is not found in compact bone?

  • haversian clans
  • trabeculae
  • osteoblasts
  • martix
A

trabeculae

100
Q

a _ is either of the two bony processes below the neck of the femur

A

trochanter

101
Q

the _ arteries enter the metaphases of a long bone and together with the nutrient artery, supply the red bone marrow and bone tissue of the metaphyses

A

metaphysical

102
Q

of the following, which are the largest vertabrae?

  • cervical
  • lumbar
  • thoratic
  • sacral
  • coccyx
A

lumbar

103
Q

which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?

  • females
  • males
  • both genders
  • the coccyx does not point inferiorly in either
A

females

104
Q

the components of compact bone tissue are arranged into repeating structural units called?

  • volkmans canals
  • trabeculae
  • osteogenic cells
  • osteons or Haversian systems
  • lacunae
A

osteons or Haversian systems

105
Q

which of the following structures contain osteocytes?

  • haversian
  • volkmanns
  • concentric
  • lacunae
  • canalliuli
A

lacunae

106
Q

the _ of the ethmoid bone lies in the anterior floor of the cranium and forms the roof of the nasal cavity

A

cribriform plate

107
Q

an increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?

  • Calcitriol and human growth hormone
  • Calcitonin and Calcitriol
  • Human growth hormone and Parathyroid
  • Parathyroid and Insulin
  • Insulin and human growth hormone
A

calcitonin and calcitriol

108
Q

which type of bone is the occipital?

  • long bone
  • short bone
  • flat bone
  • irregular bone
  • seasmoid bone
A

flat bone

109
Q

on the proximal end of the humerus is found:

  • the capitulum
  • the radial fossa
  • the trochlea
  • all of the above
  • none of the above
A

none of the above

110
Q

which ridge serves as an attachment point for tendons of the thigh muscle?

  • gluteal tuberosity
  • linea aspera
  • intertrochanteric crest
  • both a and b
  • both b and c
A

both a and b

111
Q

what are bone remodeling cells involved in calcium resorption?

A

osteoclasts

112
Q

bones of the adult skeleton are grouped in two principal divisions the _ skeleton and the _ skeleton

A

axial and appendicular

113
Q

The correct sequence of processes that occur during bone elongation at the epiphyseal plate are:

  • calcification, resting, proliferation, hypertrophication
  • resting, proliferation, calcification, hypertrophication
  • proliferation, resting, hypertrophication, calcification
  • resting, proliferation, hypertrophication, calcification
  • hypertrophication, calcification, proliferation, resting
A

resting, proliferation, hypertrophication, calcification

114
Q

this is the layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in the joint

  • periosteum
  • dital epiphysis
  • nutrient foramen
  • articular cartilage
  • epiphyseal plate
A

articular cartilage

115
Q

which is not a tarsal bone?

  • talus
  • calcaneus
  • navicular
  • cuneiform
  • capitate
A

capitate

116
Q

Which of the following best describes the process of bone resorption?

  • acids and enzymes released by osteoclasts degrade collagen and dissolve away minerals
  • calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland
  • osteoblasts secrete the extracellular matrix of bone
  • periosteal ridges form around a periosteal blood vessel
  • the kidneys slow down the rate at which calcium is excreted in urine
A

acids and enzymes released by osteoclasts degrade collagen and dissolve away minerals

117
Q

what is seen in postmenopausal women and is associated with a decrease in calcium in the bones

A

osteoporosis

118
Q

a _ is a pit or cup like depression

A

fovea

119
Q

how many phalanges in each hand?

  • 10
  • 12
  • 14
  • 16
  • 20
A

14

120
Q

bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?

  • calcitriol
  • calcitonon
  • human growth hormone
  • parathyroid
  • insulin
A

parathyroid

121
Q

which of the following is not true for red marrow?

  • it produces erythrocytes
  • it produces white blood cells
  • it can change to yellow marrow
  • it is found in the medullary cavity
A

it can change to yellow marrow

122
Q

what is found in the glenoid cavity?

  • subscapular fossa
  • acromion
  • supraspinous fossa
  • spine
  • humerus
A

humerus

123
Q

what are huge cells derived from the fusion of large numbers of monocytes and are concentrated in the endosteum?

A

osteoclasts

124
Q

which of the following tissues may be found within a bone?

  • adipose tissue
  • nervous tissue
  • cartilage
  • epithelium
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

125
Q

which of the following is true?

  • There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.
  • There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
  • There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 12 phalanges
  • There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
  • There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
A

there are 8 canals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges

126
Q
the medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella?
-articular facets
-patellofemoral joint
-tibiofemoral joint
-apex
none of the above
A

articular facets

127
Q

the hip joint is comprised of the?-femur

  • pelvic gridle
  • acetabulum
  • both a and b
  • both a and c
A

both a and c

128
Q

in the process of _ bone forms directly within mesenchyme arranged in sheetlike layers that resemble membranes

A

intramembranous ossification

129
Q

what is a furrow or shallow depression?

A

fossa

130
Q

one type of bone surface marking that allows for passage of blood vessels and nerves is a?

  • condyle
  • crest
  • tuberosity
  • fissure
  • trochanter
A

fissure

131
Q

the female pelvis is_ than the male pelvis

  • wider
  • shallower
  • larger in the pelvic inlet
  • larger in the pelvic outlet
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

132
Q

what is the function of the pelvic gridle?

  • support for vertebral column
  • attachment site for lower limbs
  • aids in height
  • both a and b
  • all of the above
A

both a and b

133
Q

this is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum at the sterniclaviculaar joint

  • scapula
  • clavicle
  • xiphoid
  • sternum
  • ilium
A

clavicle

134
Q

what is a rounded protuberance at the end of a bone forming an articulation?

A

condyle

135
Q

what is an anatomical line?

A

linea

136
Q

this is the largest foramen in the skeleton.

  • acetabulum
  • obturator foramen
  • vertebral foramen
  • cranial foramen
  • foramen magnum
A

obturator foramen

137
Q

Endochondral ossification involves forming bones ____ , whereas intramembranous ossification involves forming bones ____

  • by replacing hyaline cartilage; forming bone by growing out along a membrane.
  • by growing out along a membrane; by replacing hyaline cartilage.
  • as a result of deposition of calcium salts; by replacing hyaline cartilage.
  • that are broad and flat; that are long.
A

by replacing hyaline cartilage, forming bone by growing out along a membrane

138
Q

which of the following factors affect bone remodeling and growth?

  • minerals
  • vitamins
  • hormones
  • none of the above
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

139
Q

the type of bone fracture characterized by the broken ends of the bone protruding through the skin is known as

  • closed
  • open
  • impact fracture
  • potts fracture
  • greenstick fracture
A

open

140
Q

what is the shaft of bone between epiphyses which is solid, strong and resists bending?

A

diaphysis

141
Q

what is a passage or opening?

A

meatus

142
Q

which of the following is not a facial bone?

  • vomer
  • palatine
  • lacrimal
  • occipital
  • mandible
A

occipital

143
Q

Endochondral ossification involves forming bones ____ , whereas intramembranous ossification involves forming bones ____

  • by replacing hyaline cartilage; forming bone by growing out along a membrane.
  • by growing out along a membrane; by replacing hyaline cartilage.
  • as a result of deposition of calcium salts; by replacing hyaline cartilage.
  • that are broad and flat; that are long.
A

retardation of bone development, rickets

144
Q

what bone feature of the second cerivcal vertebrae articulates with the first cervical vertebrae?

  • primary projection
  • occular process
  • odontoid process
  • cervical projection
  • cervix
A

odontoid process

145
Q

what is a branch, one of the divisions of a forked structure?

A

ramps

146
Q

bone building cells are called?

A

osteoblasts

147
Q

which of the following minerals is needed when bones are growing?

  • chlorine
  • sulfur
  • magnesium
  • both chlorine and sulfur
  • all of the above
A

magnesium

148
Q

this cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones, it contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.

  • ethmoid
  • frontal
  • palatine
  • maxilla
  • temporal
A

ethmoid

149
Q

which endocrine gland secretes calcitonin?

  • pituitary gland
  • thyroid gland
  • adrenal gland
  • pancreas
  • none of the above
A

thyroid gland

150
Q

the two bones that form the prominences of the cheeks as well as part of the lateral wall and floor of each orbit are the

  • maxillae
  • zygomatic bones
  • nasal bones
  • palatine bones
  • lacrimal bones
A

zygomatic bones

151
Q

this depression is found laterally and inferior to the trochlear notch.

  • radial notch
  • elbow notch
  • proximal radioulnar joint
  • ulnar notch
  • styloid process
A

radial notch

152
Q

the function of vertebral processes is

  • attachment site for muscles
  • calcium storage
  • to support the body of the vertebrae
  • to hold the hyoid in place
  • to allow passage of the spinal chord
A

attachment site for muscles

153
Q

where does the biceps brachia muscle attach itself to the radius/

  • radial tuberosity
  • styloid process
  • ulnar tuberosity
  • coronoid process
  • none of the above
A

radial tuberosity

154
Q

the patella is an example of a _ bone

  • irregular
  • long
  • short
  • flat
  • sesamoid
A

sesamoid

155
Q

which cranial bone articulates with every other cranial bone?

  • occipital
  • frontal
  • ethmoid
  • nasal
  • sphenoid
A

sphenoid

156
Q

bone reduction:

  • is the alignment of epiphyseal plates
  • can be open or closed
  • os followed by a period of mobilization
  • is the alignment of epiphyseal plates and can be open or closed
  • all of the above
A

can be open and closed

157
Q

what is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius?

  • joins the shafts of both bones
  • tendon attachment
  • site or bone repair
  • both a and b
  • none of the above
A

both a and b

158
Q

during adulthood, which of the following does not contribute to bone remodeling and growth?

  • calcium
  • vitamins
  • enzymes
  • sex hormones
  • human growth hormones
A

enzymes

159
Q

the distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist/

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
A

3

160
Q

compact bone is composed of units called osteons. in contrast, spongy bones is composed of?

  • trabeculae
  • cartilage
  • periosteum
  • yellow bone marrow
  • lacunae
A

trabeculae

161
Q

the bones of the skull are an example of?

  • irregular bones
  • long bones
  • short bones
  • flat bones
A

flat bones

162
Q

which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the second and seventh vertebrae?

  • sternum
  • clavicle
  • pelvis
  • scapula
  • none of the above
A

scapula

163
Q

the glenohumeral joint includes:

  • the humerus, radius and ulna
  • the humerus and radius
  • the humerus and clavicle
  • the humerus and ulna
  • the humerus and scapula
A

the humerus and scapula

164
Q

this type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is usually sen in children?

  • open
  • comminuted
  • impacted
  • greenstick
  • stress
A

greenstick

165
Q

the medial and lateral epicondyle are found on the distal end of the humerus and are used for:

  • muscle attachment
  • tendon attachment
  • groove for nerves
  • both a and b
  • all of the above
A

tendon attachent

166
Q

these projections on either side of the foramen magnum articulate with depressions on the first cervical vertebrae.

  • mastoid processes
  • temporomandibular joint
  • foramen magnum
  • occipital condyles
  • sella turcica
A

occipital condyles

167
Q

Which of the following is a step in the formation of intramembranous bone?

  • Connective tissue and osteoblasts deposit the matrix and bone forms along membranes
  • Outside bone develops into periosteum and the surface osteoblasts form compact bone.
  • Hyaline cartilage grows rapidly, enlarge and form lacunae.
  • Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
  • connective tissue and osteoblasts deposit the matrix and bone forms along membranes; outside bone develops into periosteum and the surface osteoblasts form compact bone
  • connective tissue and osteoblasts deposit the matrix and bone forms along membranes; hyaline cartilage grows rapidly, enlarge and form lacunae
  • all of the above
A

connective tissue and osteoblasts deposit the matrix and bone forms along membranes; outside bone develops into periosteum and the surface osteoblasts form compact bone

168
Q

Joe was found dead. his hyoid bone was broken, what was the most likely cause of death?

  • natural causes
  • cardiac arrest
  • gun shot
  • strangulation
  • choking
A

strangulation

169
Q

which is more superior on the scapula?

  • infraspinous fossa
  • aupraspinous fosa
  • subscapular fossa
  • acromion
  • scapular notch
A

acromion

170
Q

which is the longer bone?

  • radius
  • metacarpal
  • clavicle
  • ulna
  • metatarsal
A

ulna

171
Q

_ stimulates _ which stimulates reproduction of cartilage cells in the epiphyseal disk

  • testosterone, estradiol
  • thyroid hormone, calcitonin
  • calcitonin, thyroxin
  • growth hormone, IGF
  • IGF, growth hormone
A

growth hormone, IGF

172
Q

within bone tissue, the material that surrounds individual bone cells is called the?

  • diaphysis
  • articular cartilage
  • extracellular matrix
  • nervous tissue
  • medullary cavity
A

extracellular matrix

173
Q

which of the following receive the trochlea of the humerus?

  • olecranon
  • coronoid process
  • both a and b
  • none of the above
A

none of the above

174
Q

which of the following is true of the radius?

  • it has a coronoid process near the proximal end of the bone
  • it articulates with the lacunae, scaphoid and the triquetrum at the wrist
  • it has a styloid process at its proximal end
  • none of the above
A

to articulates with the lunate, scaphoid and triwuetrum at the wrist

175
Q

during infancy, childhood, and adolescence, bones grow in length when cells in the _ undergo mitosis

  • articular cartilage
  • epiphysis
  • zone of resisting cartilage
  • zone of proliferating cartilage
  • zone of hypertrophic cartilage
A

zone of proliferating cartilage

176
Q

which is not true of the skull bones?

  • they include music membranes
  • the only movable bone in the skull is the mandible
  • the skull contains foramina but no fissures
  • the facial bones provide support for entrance of blood vessels
  • they include sinus cavities
A

the skull contains foramina but no fissures

177
Q

a vitamin D deficiency results in_ whereas a vitamin C deficiency results in_

  • rickets, slender fragile bones
  • rickets, retardation of bone development
  • growth retardation,rickets
  • soft bones, rickets
A

rickets, Alexander fragile bones

178
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of bones of the upper limb, from proximal to distal ends?

  • carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, radius and ulna, humerus
  • humerus, radius and ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
  • humerus, tibia and ulna, metatarsals, tarsals, phalanges
  • phalanges, metacarpals, carpals, radius and fibula, humerus
  • phalanges, metacarpals, carpals, radius and ulna, humerus
A

humerus, radius and ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

179
Q

the clavicle articulates with which of the following to form the sternocalvicular joint?

  • acromion
  • coracoid process
  • caoraoid tubercle
  • glenoid cavity
  • manubrium
A

manubrium

180
Q

which is found in the elbow?

  • acromion
  • surgical neck
  • olecranon
  • lesser tubercle
  • both a and c
A

oelcranon

181
Q

these are extensions of the lacunae and are filled with extracellular fluid.

  • volkmanns canals
  • haversian canals
  • osteons
  • canaliculi
  • periosteum
A

canaliculi

182
Q

a hollow, cylindrical space within the diaphysis that contains fatty, yellow bone marrow in adults is called the?

  • endosteum
  • osteoblast
  • medullary cavity
  • spongy bone tissue
  • red bone marrow
A

medullary cavity

183
Q

the ulna:

  • articulates with the trochlea of the humerus
  • is the lateral bone of the foramen
  • is the shorter bone of the foramen
  • has a proximal disc shaped head
A

articulates with the trochlea of the humerus

184
Q

the mastoid process:

  • is a rounded projection of the parietal bones
  • is the point of attachment for several neck muscles
  • is anterior to the external auditory meatus
  • both a and b
  • all of the above
A

is the point of attachment for several neck muscles

185
Q

which of the following hormones help raise blood calcium levels?

  • human growth hormone
  • parathyroid hormone
  • calcitonin
  • acetycholine
  • none of the above
A

parathyroid hormone

186
Q

this part of the clavicle is rounded and articulates with the manubrium of the sternum

  • acromial end
  • conoid tubercle
  • coastal tuberosity
  • sternal end
A

sternal end

187
Q

which of the following is not true for red marrow?

  • it produces osteocytes
  • it stores fat
  • it can change to yellow marrow
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

188
Q

Which of the following is NOT true statement regarding the male and female pelvis?

  • The angle of the female pubic arch is greater than that of the male.
  • The female obturator foramen is oval, whereas that of the male is round.
  • The female pelvic inlet is heart-shaped and smaller than that of the male, which is larger and more oval.
  • The female pelvis is more flexible than that of the male.
  • The male false (greater) pelvis is deeper than that of the female.
A

the female pelvic inlet is heart shaped and smaller than that of the male, which is larger and more oval

189
Q

what is inflammation of the costal cartilage called?

  • costochondritis
  • floating ribs
  • cartilaginous distension
  • costal angle
  • intercostals space dissension
A

costochontritis

190
Q

this is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows diaphysis to grow in length

  • periosteum
  • distal epiphysis
  • nutrient foramen
  • articular cartilage
  • epiphyseal plate
A

epiphyseal plate

191
Q

Which of the following is not a step in the formation of endochondral bone?

  • Periosteum forms from connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone.
  • Connective tissue and osteoblasts deposit matrix and bone along membranes
  • Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
  • Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
A

connective tissue and osteoblasts deposit matrix and bone along membranes

192
Q

the renewal rate for compact bone tissue is?

  • 4%
  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 25%
  • no way to measure
A

4%

193
Q

this is a spool shaped surface of the humerus medial to the capitulum that articulates with the ulna

  • coronoid fossa
  • trochlea
  • medial epicondyle
  • lateral epicondyle
  • lesser tubercle
A

trochlea

194
Q

which of the following is not true?

  • the axial skeleton has 74 bones
  • the appendicular skeleton has 126 bones
  • the axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body
  • children have more bones than adults
  • the appendicular skeleton does not include the girdles
A

the appendicular skeleton does not include the girdles

195
Q

the coral bones unit posteriorly at a joint called:

  • pubic symphysis
  • bony pelvis
  • pelvic girdle
  • acetabulum
  • none of the above
A

none of the above

196
Q

which of the following is a protein secreted by osteoblasts during bone deposition?

  • calcium
  • vitamin C
  • phosphorus
  • collagen
  • none of the above
A

collagen

197
Q

cervical vertebrae can generally be identified by the presence of?

  • a sharp spinous process
  • two transverse processes
  • a large body
  • two transverse foramen
  • facets and demifacets
A

two transverse foramen

198
Q

which type of cell may differentiate into an osteoblast?

  • osteocyte
  • osteogenic cell
  • osteoclast
  • all of the above
  • none of the above
A

osteogenic cell

199
Q

which of the following bones is not visible from the anterior view of the skull?

  • parietal
  • frontal
  • mandible
  • occipital
  • maxilla
A

occipital

200
Q

this is a bone that develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femurs muscle-ischium

  • ilium
  • pubis
  • patella
  • femur
A

patella

201
Q

The carpometacarpal joint consists of:

  • Base of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone
  • Base of carpal bone and proximal end of metacarpal bone
  • Head of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone
  • Head of carpal bone and proximal end of metacarpal bone
  • None of the above
A

bast of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone

202
Q

as the spinal chord exits the cranium, it passes through an opening called the - of the occipital bone

  • greater trochanter
  • foramen magnum
  • occipital condyle
  • external auditory meatus
  • mental foramen
A

foramen magnum

203
Q

which of the following do the pelvic girdle articulate with?

  • vertebral column
  • humerus
  • sacrum
  • ilium
  • pubis
A

sacrum

204
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of bones of the lower limb, from proximal to distal ends?

  • femur, tibia and fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges
  • humerus, tibia and fibula, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
  • phalanges, metatarsals, tarsals, tibia and fibula, femur
  • phalanges, tarsals, metatarsals, tibia and ulna, femur
  • tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges, tibia and fibula, femur
A

femur, tibia and fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges

205
Q

what is the junction between the mannubrium and the body of the sternum called?

  • suprasternal notch
  • xiphoid process
  • sternal angle
  • sternoclavicular joint
  • manubrium joint
A

sternal angle

206
Q

carpals are examples of _ bones

  • irregular
  • long
  • short
  • flat
  • sesamoid
A

short

207
Q

which is found medially?

  • lesser trochanter
  • greater trochanter
  • scaphoid
  • radius
  • styloid process of radius
A

lesser trochanter

208
Q

the coax bones unite posteriorly at a joint called:

  • pubic symphysis
  • bony pelvis
  • pelvid girdle
  • acetabulum
  • none of the above
A

none of the above