Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > ScoreBuilders Part 1 > Flashcards

ScoreBuilders Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

fibrous joints

A

(synarthroses) minimal movement. ex: sutures, syndesmosis, gomphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cartilaginous joints

A

(amphiarthroses) has cartilage to connect one bone to another. slightly moveable joints. ex: syndchondrosis, symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

synovial joints

A

(diarthroses) provide free mvmt btwn bones they join. have five characteristics: joint cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane and fluid, and fibrous capsule. ex: uniaxial joint (elbow), biaxial (condyloid: finger, saddle: thumb), multi-axial (plane: carpal jts, ball & socket: hip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

shoulder complex articulations

A

sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, glenhumeral, scapulothoracic articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

elbow

A

hinge joint, reinforced by ulnar collateral and radial collateral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

wrist and hand

A

radiocarpal and midcarpal joints. mcp joints, prox and distal interphalangeal joints, and cmc joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hip

A

ball and socket joint. stability provided at joint by: acetabulum, iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament, and ischiofemoral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

knee

A

hinge joint. stability by these ligaments: anterior cruciate, posterior cruciate, medial collateral, lateral collateral, ad deep medial capsular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ankle

A

hinge joint formed by articulation of tibia and fibula w/talus. medial ligaments: deltoid. lateral ligaments: anterior tibiofibular, anterior talofibular, calcaneofibular, lateral talocalcaneal, and posterior talofibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

frontal plane

A

divides body into anterior and posterior. motions are abduction and adduction, occur around an anterior-posterior axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sagittal plane

A

divides body into right and left sections. flexion and extension occur around a medial=lateral axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

transverse plane

A

divides body into upper and lower sections. rotation occurs around vertical axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

class 1 lever

A

very few class 1 levers in body. one example is triceps force on olectranon with an external counter force pushing on forearm. (seesaw). axis of rotation is btwn effort (force) and resistance (load).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

class 2 lever

A

resistance (load is btwn axis of rotation and effort (force). length of effort arm is always longer than resistance arm. most instances, gravity is effort and muscle activity is resistance. ex: wheelbarrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

class 3 lever

A

effort (force) btwn axis of rotation and resistance (load). shoulder abduction with weight at wrist is a class 3 lever example. most common type of lever in body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ATP-PC system

A

energy system producing ATP during high intensity, short duration exercise. Phosphocreatine decomposes and releases large amount of energy used to construct ATP. provides energy for muscle contraction for up to 15 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

anaerobic clycolysis

A

major supplier of ATP during high intensity, short duration activities. 50% slower than ATP-PC system and can provide a person with 30-40 secs of muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

aerobic metabolism

A

used predominantly during low intensity, long duration exercises. yields by far the most atp, but requires chemical reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Type 1 Muscle Fibers

A

Aerobic, Red, Tonic, Slow twitch, Slow-oxidative: low fatigability, high capillary density, high myoglobin content, smaller fibers, extensive blood supply, large amt of mitochondria (ex: marathon, swimming)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type 2 Muscle Fibers

A

Anaerobic, White, Phasic, Fast twitch, Fast-glycolytic: high fatigability, low capillary density, low myoglobin content, larger fibers, less blood supply, fewer mitochondria (ex: high jump, sprinting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

muscle receptors: muscle spindle

A

throughout belly of muscle. send info to nervous system about muscle LENGTH and or RATE of change of LENGTH. important in control of posture and involuntary mvmts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

golgi tendon organ

A

sensory receptors through which muscle tendons pass immediately beyond attachment to muscle fibers. very sensitive to TENSION when produced from an active muscle contraction. average of 10-15 muscle fibers are connected in series with each golgi tendon organ. stimulated through the tension produced by muscle fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

concentric contraction

A

when muscle shortens while developing tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

eccentric contraction

A

occurs when muscle lengthens while developing tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

isometric contraction

A

isometric contraction occurs when tension develops but no change in length of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

isotonic

A

occurs when muscle shortens or lengthens while resisting a constant load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

isokinetic contraction

A

isokinetic contraction occurs when tension developed by muscle is maximal over full range of motion while shortening or lengthening at a constant speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

open-chain activity

A

open-chain activity involve distal segment, usually hand or foot, moving freely in space. example: kicking a ball with LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

closed-chain activity

A

involve body moving over a fixed distal segment. example: squat lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

densitometry: hydrostatic weighing

A

method of calculating density of body by immersing in water and measuring amt of water that becomes displaced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

densitometry: plethysmography

A

method of calculating body density utilizing amt of air displacement during testing within a closed chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

anthropometry: skinfold msrmt

A

determines overall % of body fat thru msrmt of 9 standardized sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

end feel

A

type of resistance that is felt when passively moving a joint thru end range of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

firm end feel

A

(stretch) ex: ankle DF, finger extension, hip medial rotation, forearm supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hard end feel

A

(bone to bone) ex: elbow extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

soft end feel

A

(soft tissue approximation) ex: elbow flexion, knee flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

abnormal end feel: empty

A

cannot reach end feel due to PAIN, ex: joint inflammation, fracture or bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

abnormal end feel: firm

A

ex: increased tone, tightening of capsule, ligament shortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

abnormal end feel: hard

A

ex: fracture, OA, osteophyte formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

abnormal end feel: soft

A

ex: edema, synovitis, ligament instability/tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Gait: Standard - Stance Phase (60% of gait cycle)

A

Heel strike: instant heel touches ground to begin stance phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

standard - foot flat

A

point in which entire foot makes contact with ground and should occur directly after heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

standard - midstance

A

point during stance phase when entire body weight is over the stance limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

standard - heel off

A

point in which heel of the stance limb leaves ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

standard - toe off

A

point in which only toe of stance limb remains on ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

standard - swing phase (40% of gait cycle)

A

acceleration: begins when toe off is complete and reference limb swings until positioned directly under body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

standard - midswing

A

point when swing limb is directly under body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

standard - deceleration

A

begins directly after midswing as swing limb begins to extend and ends just prior to heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

rancho los amigos terminology

A

initial contact, loading response, midstance, terminal stance, pre-swing; initial swing, midswing, and terminal swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ROM requirements for normal gait

A

hip flexion: 0-30, hip extension: 0-15, knee flexion: 0-60, knee extension: 0, ankle DF: 0-10, ankle PF: 0-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Gait muscles: tibialis anterior

A

activity just after heel strike. eccentric lowering of foot into PF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

gait muscles: gastroc/soleus

A

activity during late stance phase. concentric raising of heel during toe off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

gait muscles: quads

A

single support during early stance phase, and just before toe off to initiate swing phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

gait muscles: hams

A

activity during late swing phase. decelerating unsupported limb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

base of support

A

distance msrd btwn left and right foot during progression of gait. average BOS is 2-4 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cadence

A

of steps an individual will walk over a period of time. average value for an adult is 110-120 steps per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

double support phase

A

refers to the two times during a gait cycle where both feet are on the ground. does not exist when running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

gait cycle

A

sequence of motions that occur from one initial contact of the heel to the next initial contact of the same heel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

single support phase

A

occurs when only one foot is on the ground and occurs 2ce during a single gait cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

step length

A

distance measured btwn right heel strike and left heel strike. average step length for adult is 13-16 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

stride

A

distance measured btwn right heel strike and the following right heel strike. average stride length for an adult is 26-32 inches.

62
Q

antalgic gait

A

involved step length is decreased in order to avoid weight bearing due to pain

63
Q

ataxic gait

A

gait characterized by staggering and unsteadiness, wide BOS and movements are exaggerated.

64
Q

cerebellar gait

A

staggering gait

65
Q

circumduction

A

circular motion to advance leg during swing phase

66
Q

double step

A

alternate steps are of a different length or different rate

67
Q

equine

A

gait pattern with high steps, excessive use of gastrocs

68
Q

festinating

A

festinating patient walks on toes as though pushed. starts slowly, increases and may continue until patient grabs an object in order to stop

69
Q

hemiplegic

A

abducts paralyzed limb, swings it around and brings forward so that foot comes to ground in front of them

70
Q

parkinsonian

A

increased forward flexion of trunk and knees, shuffling with quick and small steps.

71
Q

scissor gait pattern

A

legs cross midline upon advancement

72
Q

spastic

A

stiff mvmt, toes catch and drag, legs held together, hip and knee joints slightly flexed

73
Q

steppage

A

gait pattern in which feet and toes are lifted thru hip and knee flexion to excessive heights; usually secondary to DF weakness.

74
Q

tabetic

A

high stepping ataxic gait pattern where feet slap ground

75
Q

trendelenburg

A

glute medius weakness; excessive lateral trunk flexion and weight shifting over stance leg

76
Q

vaulting

A

swing leg advances by compensating thru combination of elevation of pelvis and PF of stance leg

77
Q

muscle insufficiency

A

muscle contraction that is less than optimal due to an extremely lengthened, or extremely shortened position of the muscle.

78
Q

active insufficiency

A

when a 2 joint muscle contracts (shortens) across both joints simultaneously

79
Q

passive insufficiency

A

when a 2 joint muscle is lengthened over both joints simultaneously

80
Q

dynamometer

A

measures strength through use of a load cell or spring loaded gauge. (ex: grip strength-pounds)

81
Q

dynamometry: make test

A

eval procedure where a patient is asked to apply a force against the dynamometer.

82
Q

dynamometry: break test:

A

eval procedure where patient is asked to hold a contraction against pressure that is applied in opposite direction to contraction.

83
Q

joint mobilization

A

passive movement technique designed to improve joint function

84
Q

indications for joint mobs

A

indications for joint mobs restricted joint mobility, restricted accessory motion, desire neuro effects

85
Q

contraindications for joint mobs

A

active disease, infection, advanced osteoporosis, articular hypermobility, fracture, acute inflammation, muscle guarding, muscle guarding, joint replacement

86
Q

grade I

A

small movement performed at beginning of range

87
Q

grade II

A

large amplitude movement performed within the range, but not reaching limit of range and not returning to beginning of range

88
Q

grade III

A

large amplitude movement performed to limit of range

89
Q

grade IV

A

small amplitude movement performed at limit of range

90
Q

rheumatism

A

condition found in a number of disorders characterized by inflammation, degeneration or metabolic derangement of connective tissue, soreness, joint pain and stiffness of muscles. different conditions present with rheumatism. goals are to alleviate pain, decrease inflammation, maintain strength and functional mobility

91
Q

osteoarthritis

A

chronic disease that primarily involves weight bearing joints. causes a degeneration of articular cartilage. risk factors include trauma, repetitive microtrauma, and obesity. cartilage becomes soft and damaged, bone thickens.

92
Q

RA

A

systemic autoimmune disorder of unknown etiology. presents with a chronic inflammatory reaction in synovial tissues of a joint that results in erosion of cartilage and supporting structures within the capsule.

93
Q

avulsion fracture

A

portion of bone becomes fragmented at site of tendon attachment from a traumatic and sudden stretch of tendon

94
Q

closed fracture

A

break in a bone where skin over site remains intact

95
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone that breaks into fragments at the site of injury

96
Q

compound fracture

A

break in a bone that protrudes thru skin

97
Q

greenstick fracture

A

break on one side of a bone that does not damage periosteum on opposite side. often seen in children.

98
Q

nonunion fracture

A

break in a bone that has failed to unite and heal after 9-12 months

99
Q

stress fracture

A

break in a bone due to repeated forces to a particular portion of the bone

100
Q

spiral fracture

A

break in a bone shaped as an S due to torsion and twisting

101
Q

bursitis

A

condition caused by acute or chronic inflammation of bursae. pain and swelling limits range.

102
Q

contusion

A

sudden blow to part of body that can result in mild to severe damage to superficial and deep structures. ROM, ice, compression are treatments

103
Q

edema

A

increased volume of fluid in soft tissue outside of a joint capsule

104
Q

effusion

A

increased volume of fluid within a joint capsule

105
Q

genu valgum

A

knees touch while standing with feet separated. will increase compression of lateral condyle and increase stress to medial structures. also called knock-knee.

106
Q

genu varum

A

bowing of knees. will increase compression of medial tibial condyle and increase stress to lateral structures. also called bowleg.

107
Q

kyphosis

A

excessive curvature of spine in posterior direction usually in thoracic spine.

108
Q

lordosis

A

excessive curvature of spine in anterior direction usually in cervical and lumbar spine.

109
Q

myositis ossificans

A

condition of heterotopic bone formation that occurs 3 to 4 wks after a contusion or trauma within the soft tissue

110
Q

osteoporosis

A

thinning of bone matrix with eventual bone loss and increased risk for fracture. usually found in postmenopausal women

111
Q

q angle

A

degree of angle when measureing from midpatella to ASIS and tibial tubercle. normal q angle is 13 degrees for man and 18 degrees for a woman.

112
Q

scoliosis

A

scoliosis lateral curvature of spine.

113
Q

shoulder dislocation

A

true separation of humerus from glenoid fossa

114
Q

shoulder separation

A

disruption in stability of acromioclavicular joint

115
Q

sprain

A

acute injury of ligament. grade I: mild pain and swelling, little or no tear of ligament. grade II: mod pain and swelling, minimal instability of joint, min to mod tearing of ligament resulting in decreased ROM. grade III: severe pain and swelling, substantial joint instability, total tear of ligament, substantial decrease in ROM

116
Q

strain

A

acute injury of tendon, muscle. grade I: localized pain, min swelling and tenderness. grade II: localized pain, mod swelling, tenderness and impaired motor function. grade III: palpable defect of muscle, severe pain and poor motor function

117
Q

tendonitis

A

acute or chronic inflammation of a tendon.

118
Q

(start of peds) congenital hip dysplasia

A

(start of peds) congenital hip dysplasia malalignment of femoral head with acetabulum. develops during last trimester in utero. asymmetrical hip abdution with tightness and apparent femoral shortening of involved side. testing includes ortolani test, barlow maneuver, and u/s. treatment initially attempts to reposition femoral head within the acetabulum thru constant use of a harness, brace, splint or traction. PT may be indicated after cast removal for stretching, strengthening, and caregiver education.

119
Q

congenital limb deficiencies

A

malformation that occurs in utero secondary to impaired developmental course. classified longitudinal or transverse. causative factor is an abnormality present at conception when a bone lacks potential to form. primary characteristic is a missing long bone suce as the radius. treatment may focus on symmetrical mvmts, strengthening, ROM, weight bearing and prosthetic training.

120
Q

congenital torticollis

A

characterized by a unilateral contracture of the SCM muscle. causative factors include malposition in utero, breech position and birth trauma. usually dx’d within first three weeks of life. lateral flexion to same side as contracture, rotation toward opposite side. treatment conservative for the first year with emphasis on stretching, active ROM, position and caregiver education. possible surgery.

121
Q

legg-calve-perthes disease

A

degeneration of femoral head due to avascular necrosis. disease is self limiting and has 4 phases: condensation, fragmentation, re-ossification and remodeling. presents with pain, decreased ROM, antalgic gait, positive Trendelenburg sign. primary treatment focus is to relieve pain and maintain femoral head in proper psition.

122
Q

osgood-schlatter disease

A

also known as traction apophysis that results from repetitive traction on the tibial tuberosity apophysis. caused by repeated tension to the patella tendon over the tibial tuberosity in young athletes which results in a small avulsion of the tuberosity and swelling. self limiting condition includes point tenderness over patella tendon at insertion on tibial tubercle, antalgic gait and pain with increasing activity. treatment is conservative with focus on education, icing, and eliminating placing strain on the patella tendon.

123
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A

connective tissue disorder that affects formation of collagen during bone development. 4 classifications of osteogenesis imperfecta vary in levels of severity. caused by genetic inheritance with type I and IV considered autosomal dominant traits, and types II and III considered autosomal recessive traits. characteristics: brittle bones, weakness, impaired respiratory function. treatment begins at birth with education on proper handling and facilitation of movement.

124
Q

scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of spine that can be classified as infantile, juvenile, adolescent or adult. structural curve cannot be corrected with active or passive mvmt and there is rotation of vertebrae towards the convexity of the curve. results in a rib hump over thoracic region. primary causative factor for a non structural curve is a leg length discrepancy. treatment is based on type and severity, generally curves that are less than 25 degrees require monitoring, btwn 25 and 40 degrees are treated with orthotic management, and beyond 40 degrees require surgery.


125
Q

talipes equinovarus

A

deformity of ankle/foot known as clubfoot.

126
Q

juvenile rhematoid arthritis

A

most common chronic rheumatic disease in children and presents with inflammation of joints and connective tissues. systemic juvenile RA occurs in 10-20% of children with JRA and presents with acute onset and other symptoms. polyarticular JRA accounts for 30-40% of children with JRA and presents with high femal incidence, RF+ majority and arthritis in more than 5 joints. oligoarticular (pauciarticular) JRA accounts for 40-60% of children with JRA and affects less than 5 joints. treatment includes medication to relieve inflammation and pain and PT.

127
Q

Foot orthotics

A

semirigid or rigid insert worn inside a shoe that corrects foot alignment and improves function.

128
Q

AFO

A

primary purpose is to assist with dorsiflexion and prevent foot drop, can also influence knee control. commonly described for patients with peripheral neuropathy, nerve lesions or hemiplegia

129
Q

KAFO

A

provide support and stability to knee and ankle. allow for a lock mechanism at the knee that provides stability. ankle is also held at proper alignment.

130
Q

craig-scott KAFO

A

designed specifically for persons with paraplegia. allows a person to stand with a posterior lean of trunk.

131
Q

HKAFO

A

indicated for patients with hip, foot, knee, and ankle weakness. can control rotation at hip and abduction/adduction. heavy and restricts patients to a swing to or swing thru gait pattern.

132
Q

reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO)

A

incorporates a cable system to assist with advancement of lower extremities during gait. when patient shifts weight onto a selected lower extremity, the cable system advances the opposite LE.


133
Q

parapodium

A

standing frame designed to allow a patient to sit when necessary. primarily used in peds.

134
Q

corset

A

constructed of fabric to provide abdominal compression and support.

135
Q

halo vest orthosis

A

invasive cervical thoracic orthosis that provides full restriction of all cervical motion. commonly used with cervical spinal cord injuries to prevent further damage or dislocation.

136
Q

milwaukee orthosis

A

designed to promote realignment of spine due to scoliotic curvature.

137
Q

taylor brace

A

thoracolumbosacral orthosis that limits trunk flexion and extension through a 3 point control design.

138
Q

thoracolumbosaral orthosis (TLSO)

A

utilized to prevent all trunk motions and is commonly utilized as a means of post surgical stabilization.

139
Q

factors that influence vascular disease

A

hypertension, aging, diabetes, infection, poor nutrition, cigarette smoking

140
Q

risk factors for amputation

A

vascular disease (atherosclerosis, arteriosclerosis), venous insufficiency, buerger’s disease, diabetes. malignancy/tumor (osteosarcoma), congenital deformities, infection, and trauma

141
Q

types of LE amputations

A

hemicorporectomy (surgical removal of pelvis and both LEs), hemipelvectomy (surgical removal of one half of the pelvis and LE), hip disarticulation (surgical removal of lower extremity from pelvis), transfemoral (surgical removal of LE above knee joint) knee disarticulation: thru knee joint, transtibial: below knee joint, syme’s foot at ankle joint with removal of malleoli, chopart’s: disarticulation at midtarsal joint, transmetatarsal: midsection of metatarsals

142
Q

prosthetic training for transfemoral amputation

A

length of residual limb with regard to leverage and energy expenditure, no ability to weight bear thru the end of the residual limb, susceptible to hip flexion contracture, adaptation required for balance, weight of prosthesis, and energy expenditure

143
Q

prosthetic training for transtibial amputation

A

loss of ankle and foot functions, residual limb does not allow for weight bearing at its end, WB in prosthesis should be distributed over the total residual limb, patella tendon should be the area of primary weight bearing, adaptations required for balance, and susceptible to knee flexion contracture.

144
Q

possible complications with amputations

A

neuroma: bundle of nerve endings that group together an d produce pain due to scar tissue. phantom limb: refers to a painless sensation where patient feels that limb is still present. phantom pain: refers to patient’s perception of some form of painful stimuli.

145
Q

wrapping guidelines for amputees

A

elastic wrap should not have wrinkles, diagonal and angular patterns should be used and should not be wrapped in circular patterns, provide pressure distally to enhance shaping, anchor wrap above knee for transtibial amputations, anchor wrap around pelvis for transfemoral amputations, promote full knee extension for transtibial amputations, promote full hip extension for transfemoral amputations. secure wrap with tape, do not use clips, use 3-4 inch wrap for transtibial and 6 inch wrap for transfemoral, rewrap frequently to maintain proper pressure.

146
Q

components of a prosthesis

A

socket, suspension, knee, shank, foot

147
Q

gait deviations of amputee: lateral bending

A

causes: prosthesis too short, improperly shaped lateral wall, high medial wall, prosthesis aligned in abduction, poor balance, abduction contracture, improper training, short residual limb, weak hip abductors on prosthetic side, hypersensitive and painful residual limb

148
Q

gait deviations of amputee: abducted gait

A

causes: prosthesis may be too long, high medial wall, poorly shaped lateral wall, prosthesis position in abduction, inadequate suspension, abduction contracture, improper training, adductor roll, weak HF and adductors, pain over lateral residual limb

149
Q

gait deviations of amputee: circumducted gait

A

causes: prosthesis may be too long, too much friction in knee, socket too small, excessive PF of prosthetic foot, abduction contracture, improper training, weak HF, inability to initiate prosthetic knee flexion

150
Q

gait deviations of amputee: excessive knee flexion during stance

A

socket set forward in relation to foot, foot set in excessive DF, stiff heel, prosthesis too long, knee flexion contracture, hip flexion contracture, poor balance, decrease in quad strength

Boards (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions