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FLASH Flashcards

1
Q

agnosia

A

inability to interpret information

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2
Q

agraphesthesia

A

inability to recognize symbols

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3
Q

agraphia

A

inability to WRITE due to lesion on brain

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4
Q

akinesia

A

inability to INITIATE MOVEMENT

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5
Q

aphasia

A

inability to communicate or comprehend due to damage to the brain

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6
Q

apraxia

A

inability to perform PURPOSEFUL learned mvmts although there is no sensory or motor impairment

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7
Q

astereognosis

A

inability to recognize objects by sense of TOUCH

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8
Q

asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

A

with head turned to one side, arm and leg on face side are extended and arm and leg on scalp side are flexed. this reflex could interfere with an infant’s ability to roll from prone to supine.

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9
Q

ATNR normal age of response

A

6 months

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10
Q

ataxia

A

inability to perform COORDINATED mvmts

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11
Q

athetosis

A

INVOLUNTARY mvmts and INSTABILITY of POSTURE. usually due to damage to basal ganglia.

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12
Q

bradykinesia

A

slow movements

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13
Q

chorea

A

movements that are SUDDEN

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14
Q

clonus

A

INVOLUNTARY ALTERNATING SPASMODIC CONTRACTION of a muscle precipitated by a QUICK STRETCH REFLEX. characteristic of an upper motor neuron lesion

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15
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

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16
Q

dysarthria

A

slurred and impaired speech due to MOTOR deficits of tongue or other muscles

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17
Q

dysmetria

A

INABILITY to CONTROL range of movement and the FORCE of MUSCLE ACTIVITY

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18
Q

dysphagia

A

INABILITY to SWALLOW

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19
Q

hemiparesis

A

WEAKNESS on one side of body

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20
Q

hemiplegia

A

PARALYSIS on one side of body

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21
Q

kinesthesia

A

ability to PERCEIVE the DIRECTION and EXTENT OF MOVEMENT of a joint or body part

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22
Q

symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR)

A

head positioned in flexion or extension

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23
Q

STNR normal age of response

A

6-8 months

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24
Q

STNR with head positioned in extension

A

arms are extended

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25
Q

STNR with head positioned in flexion

A

arms are flexed

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26
Q

postural drainage

A

techniques for therapists to help dislodge mucous from lungs

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27
Q

upper lobes anterior segment

A

supine with pillow under knees. claps btwn clavicle and nipple on each side

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28
Q

upper lobes apical segment

A

leans back on pillow at 30 degree angle against therapist

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29
Q

upper lobes posterior sgmt

A

pt leans over pillow at 30 degree angle. claps over upper back on each side.

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30
Q

left upper lobe lingular

A

foot of bed elevated 16 inches. lies prone on rt side and rotates 1/4 turn backward. claps over left nipple area

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31
Q

right middle lobe

A

foot of bed elevated 16 inches. prone on left side and rotates 1/4 turn backward. claps over right nipple area

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32
Q

lower lobe anterior basal

A

foot of bed elevated 20 inches. sidelying

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33
Q

lower lobe lateral basal

A

foot of bed elevated 20 inches. prone

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34
Q

lower lobes posterior basal

A

foot of bed elevated 20 inches. prone

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35
Q

lower lobes superior segments

A

bed flat. patient prone with 2 pillows under hips. claps over middle of back at tip of scap on either side of spine

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36
Q

arterial insufficiency

A

usually caused by arteriosclerosis. acute stage: acute arterial obstruction, distal pain, sudden onset. vascular: decreased or absent pulses, pallor of forefoot on elevation, dependent rubor. risk factors: smoking, diabetes, hypertension

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37
Q

arterial insufficiency: skin

A

dry skin

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38
Q

arterial insufficiency

A

arterial insufficiency severe muscle ischemia, intermittent claudication, worse with exercise, relieved by rest. rest pain means severe involvement. will present with muscle fatigue, cramping, numbness, paresthesia overtime

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39
Q

chronic venous insufficiency

A

acute stage: dvt, calf pain, aching, EDEMA, muscle tenderness. caused by vein obstruction

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40
Q

chronic venous insufficiency: skin

A

ulcers: sides of ankles, mostly MEDIAL MALLEOLUS. will be DARK, BROWN, MAY LEAD TO STASIS DERMATITIS, CELLULITIS, skin thick

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41
Q

venous insufficiency

A

vascular: venous dilation. edema: moderate to severe. risk factors: venous hypertension, varicose veins. pain: minimal to moderate steady pain. aching pain with prolonged standing or sitting

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42
Q

w/c for C1-C4 lesions

A

electric w/c with tilt in space or reclining back

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43
Q

w/c for C5

A

can use manual w/c with projections. C5’s have shoulder function and elbow function.

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44
Q

w/c for C6

A

manual w/c w/friction surface and hand rims independently. ability to drive a car independently. use of radial wrist extensors

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45
Q

w/c for C7

A

manual w/c w/friction surface hand rims independently. has use of triceps (elbow extension - can push up on arm rests)

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46
Q

w/c for C8-T1

A

may use manual w/c with standard hand rims. use of hands.

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47
Q

ERV-expiratory reserve volume

A

max amt of air expired after a normal expiration. 1000 mL

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48
Q

FVC-forced vital capacity

A

amount of air forcefully expired after maximal inspiration

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49
Q

FRC-functional residual capacity

A

amount of air in lungs after a normal exhalation. ERV+RV

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50
Q

RV-residual volume

A

volume of air remaining in airways and lungs after max expiration

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51
Q

tidal volume

A

volume of air inspired OR expired in one breath. 500 mL

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52
Q

TLC-total lung capacity

A

total amt of air lungs can hold. total amount after a max inspiration. IRV+TV+ERV+RC

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53
Q

vital capacity

A

max volume of air that can be forcefully expired after a max inspiration. 4000-5000 mL

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54
Q

moro reflex

A

when head drops into extension for a few inches the arms abduct with fingers open

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55
Q

palmar grasp reflex

A

pressure in palm will produce reflex of flexion/strong grip. birth to 4 months

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56
Q

plantar grasp reflex

A

pressure to base of toes will produce reflex of toe flexion. 28 weeks of gestation to 9 months

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57
Q

positive support reflex

A

weight placed on balls of feet will produce stiffening or legs and trunk into extension. 35 weeks of gestation to 2 months

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58
Q

cold therapy/cryotherapy contraindications

A

cold therapy/cryotherapy contraindications infection, ischemic tissue, peripheral vascular disease, hypertension

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59
Q

hot therapy/superficial heat contraindications

A

arterial disease, bleeding, circulation issues, malignancy, thrombophlebitis

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60
Q

ultrasound contraindications

A

epiphyseal areas in children, pain/temp/sensory deficits

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61
Q

traction contraindications

A

tumor, pregnancy, acute sprain or fracture, osteoporosis

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62
Q

compression contraindications

A

heart failure

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63
Q

estim contraindications

A

pacemaker, arrythmia, heart failure, malignancy, broken skin

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64
Q

cervical traction guidelines

A

supine, force between 10-15 lbs and progress to 7% of body weight

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65
Q

lumbar traction guidelines

A

supine or prone. force of less than half of body weight for initial treatment, 25 to 50% of body weight required for actual separation. for muscle spasm, 25% of body weight should be used.

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66
Q

intermittent compression

A

used primarily to reduce chronic or post traumatic edema. can use for venous insufficiency

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67
Q

e-stim

A

increasing size of one of 2 electrodes will decrease current density

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68
Q

estim pulsed/alternating/biphasic

A

muscle retraining

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69
Q

estim direct current/monopolar

A

used with iontophoresis

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70
Q

ultrasound for muscle/deep tissue

A

frequency: 1 MHz

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71
Q

ultrasound for superficial/bony

A

frequency: 3 MHz

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72
Q

pulsed u/s

A

produces nonthermal effects

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73
Q

continuous u/s

A

produces thermal effects

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74
Q

u/s BNR

A

5:1 or 6:1

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75
Q

u/s ERA transducer head

A

ERA=1/2 size of transducer head

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76
Q

standard manual w/c dimensions

A

supine or prone. force of less than half of body weight for initial treatment, 25 to 50% of body weight required for actual separation. for muscle spasm, 25% of body weight should be used.

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77
Q

doorway width for w/c

A

32”

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78
Q

hallway width for w/c

A

36”

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79
Q

ramp dimensions for w/c

A

12:1 rise/run

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80
Q

u/s for stroke

A

upper motor neuron lesion

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81
Q

estim for pressure ulcer

A

enhances healing. use monophasic pulsed current

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82
Q

what muscles should be stimulated for Bell’s Palsy?

A

frontalis

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83
Q

arterial insufficiency will cause

A

reactive delayed hyperemia (increase of blood flow to tissues)

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84
Q

Parkinsons-what exercises for preventing falls?

A

postural exercises

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85
Q

tight hip flexors will cause

A

anterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis

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86
Q

hyperthyroidism often presents with

A

RA

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87
Q

diagnostic procedures to confirm disc herniation

A

MRI

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88
Q

intervention exercises for lumbar stenosis

A

pts will tolerate flexion exercises

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89
Q

lumbar stenosis

A

involves multilevel impingement in spine ligaments. pain is worse when ambulating or extending spine.

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90
Q

best exercises for ankylosing spondylitis

A

pts tend to assume flexed postures, so back extension exercises would be most important. ankylosing spondylitis is a form of rheumatic disease w/inflammation of spine. will exhibit posture such as forward head, increased kyphosis, loss of lumbar curvature.

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91
Q

which nerve is compressed - carpal tunnel syndrome

A

median. causes atrophy and weakness of thenar muscles and lateral lumbricals. positive tinel’s and phalens

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92
Q

regular exercise for diabetics will

A

lower blood glucose levels and decrease amount of insulin required

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93
Q

compensations of shoulder motions

A

flexion: extension of spine. abduction: lateral flexion. scap protraction: IR. scap elevation: shoulder hyperextension

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94
Q

orthostatic hypotension after bed rest

A

most likely result of inadequate ventricular filling during diastole - decreased venous tone

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95
Q

most appropriate exercise for new dx of hyperthyroidism

A

decrease intensity

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96
Q

traumatic brain injury - tonic reflexes

A

tonic reflexes are released. TL supine reflex results in flexor stimulation when in prone

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97
Q

bicipital tendonitis

A

inflammation of long head. impingement of proximal tendon btwn anterior acromion and bicipital groove. speed’s test

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98
Q

colles fracture

A

most common fracture caused by FOOSH. immobilized for 5-8 weeks

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99
Q

idiopathic scoliosis

A

2 types: structural: irreversible lateral curve with rotation. nonstructural: reversible lateral curve w/o rotation which straightens with flexion. over 45 degrees would require surgery

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100
Q

piriformis syndrome

A

piriformis overworked with overpronation (due to hip IR).

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101
Q

plantar fasciitis

A

chronic irritation of fascia from overpronation

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102
Q

spondylolysis

A

fracture of par interarticularis

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103
Q

spondylolysthesis

A

anterior/posterior slippage of one vertebra on another following bilateral spondylolysis. avoid extension, Lf, ROT

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104
Q

thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)

A

compression of neurovascular bundle

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105
Q

tibial plateau fracture

A

valgus and compressive forces to knee with knee in flexion. often in conjunction with MCL injury

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106
Q

torticollis

A

spasm/tightness of SCM. laterally flex towards affected side, rotation away from affected side.

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107
Q

ulnar collateral ligament injury

A

due to repetitive valgus strain (overhead throw). pain at medial elbow at distal insertion, sometimes parasthesia in ulnar nerve distribution with positive tinel’s sign.

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108
Q

end feels

A

firm (stretch) ex: ankle dorsiflexion. hard (bone to bone) ex: elbow extension. soft (soft tissue approximation) ex: elbow flexion

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109
Q

abnormal end feels

A

empty: cannot reach end feel due to pain, ex: joint inflammation, fracture. firm: increased tone, tightening of capsule. hard: fracture, osteoarthritis. soft: edema, synovitis.

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110
Q

ROM requirements for normal gait

A

hip flexion: 0-30, hip extension: 0-15, knee flexion: 0-60, knee extension: 0, ankle DF: 0-10, ankle PF: 0-20

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111
Q

trendelenburg gait

A

glute medius weakness

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112
Q

RA pathologies

A

boutonniere deformity: DIP extension. Swan neck deformity: DIP flexion

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113
Q

effusion

A

increased volume of fluid within a joint capsule

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114
Q

Q angle

A

degree of angulation when measuring from midpatella to ASIS, and tibial tubercle. measured in supine with knee straight: 13 degrees average for male, 18 degrees average for female. excessive Q angle can lead to pathology and abnormal tracking.

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115
Q

dermatome

A

see page 70

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116
Q

Brunnstrom’s 7 stages of recovery (spasticity and tone)

A

1=no volitional mvmt

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117
Q

UE: D1 Flexion

A

starts in shoulder flexion

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118
Q

UE: D1 Extension

A

starts in shoulder extension

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119
Q

UE: D2 Flexion

A

…

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120
Q

UE: D2 Extension

A

…

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121
Q

LE: D1 Flexion

A

…

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122
Q

LE: D1 Extension

A

…

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123
Q

LE: D2 Flexion

A

…

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124
Q

LE: D2 Extension

A

…

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125
Q

Ranchos Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning (TBI)

A

p 101

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126
Q

carpal bones mnemonic

A

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can’t Handle: Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetral, Pisiform, Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate (proximal row, then distal row)

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127
Q

PNF technique “repeated contractions” should be applied when

A

at the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish

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128
Q

To increase pt’s ambulation distance (w/chronic arteriosclerotic vascular disease) with INTERMITTENT CLAUDICATION

A

short duration, frequent intervals

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129
Q

to stretch hip flexors (could be in Parkinson’s patient)

A

prone lying would be best choice. increased flexibility in hip flexors will improve standing posture

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130
Q

blood pressure response to exercise

A

systolic pressure increases

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131
Q

when ascending a curb with axillary crutches using 3 pt gait

A

should lead with

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132
Q

action that would place greatest stress on achilles tendon

A

eccentric contraction of gastroc and soleus

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133
Q

a quad cane should be used in the UE that is

A

opposite from affected LE. the longer legs should be positioned away from patient

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134
Q

how much pressure for compression garment to control LE edema?

A

30-40 mmHg

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135
Q

which stage of bone healing is associated with the termination of external fixation?

A

clinical union

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136
Q

most appropriate method to selectively train VMO is

A

quad setting exercises and biofeedback

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137
Q

muscles

A

go over origins and insertions.

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138
Q

when working with a Parkinson’s patient on controlled mobility, what would be best intervention? when working with same patient on motor control, which technique should be utilized?

A

promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control for controlled mobility. for motor control, should use rhythmic initiation.

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139
Q

which component of the vertebral artery test is most likely to assess patency of intervertebral foramen?

A

extension to assess intervertebral foramen; lateral flexion and rotation have a greater effect on vertebral artery

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140
Q

how to address a patient with diplopia during interventions

A

place a patch over one of the eyes

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141
Q

movements in frontal plane occur as

A

side to side movements

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142
Q

most appropriate rate to release pressure when obtaining bp measurement?

A

rate of 2-3 mm Hg per second.

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143
Q

most significant differences between heat exhaustion and heat stroke:

A

mental status and skin temp. heat stroke: altered mental status and elevated skin temp.

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144
Q

primary purpose of “anterior control” TLSO

A

prevent thoracic flexion

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145
Q

to avoid burning a pt during iontophoresis

A

pta should

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146
Q

post polio syndrome

A

symptoms that occur years after onset of poliomyelitis. remaining motor units become more dysfunctional. (sensation not affected.)

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147
Q

conventional TENS parameters

A

50-100 pps

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148
Q

lab values

A

…

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149
Q

pronation of foot consists of:

A

eversion of heel

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150
Q

confused-agitated patients (rancho los amigos) would benefit from:

A

numerous activities since they have a short attention span.

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151
Q

what determines the depth of u/s penetration?

A

frequency

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152
Q

mean angle of anteversion in an adult

A

8-15 degrees. patients with excessive anteversion of hip typically present with excessive medial rotation and limited lateral rotation of hip

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153
Q

most important value to check when giving exercises to diabetic patient

A

blood glucose value.

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154
Q

dysmetria

A

cerebellar

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155
Q

most common site for ulnar nerve injury

A

medial epicondyle of humerus

156
Q

how to calculate heart rate by QRS complexes

A

if there are eight QRS complexes in a six second interval

157
Q

guillain barre syndrome symptoms

A

rapid

158
Q

decorticate and decerebrate posturing

A

decorticate: UE flexion and LE extension. decerebrate: UE and LE extension

159
Q

positive support reflex

A

promotes extension of LE and trunk w/weight bearing through balls of the feet. reflex normally integrates at 2 months of age

160
Q

Grade I & II mobilization

A

used mainly for pain

161
Q

age predicted maximal heart rate

A

220 - patient’s age

162
Q

length of treatment when using u/s?

A

5 minutes for area that is 2-3 times the size of the transducer face

163
Q

lateral trunk bending towards affected side of transfemoral amputee would indicate what problem with prosthesis?

A

too short

164
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

generate info related to discriminative sensations. (2 point discrimination

165
Q

acute burn produces hypermetabolism and results in:

A

increased oxygen consumption

166
Q

genu recurvatum patient would benefit from increasing

A

plantar flexion stop of ankle foot orthosis. this would prevent PF after heel strike and inhibit full extension of knee during midstance

167
Q

normal hemoglobin value for male

A

14-18 gm/dL

168
Q

a lesion affecting the sensory cortex often results in impairments including loss of:

A

perception

169
Q

corticospinal tract

A

carries info from cerebral cortex to spinal nerves. the tract’s projections are primarily contralateral

170
Q

level or urea in the blood provides a gross estimate of what?

A

kidney function. increased blood urea nitrogen level can be indicative of dehydration

171
Q

MS

A

progressive CNS disease marked by intermittent damage to myelin sheath. patients tend to fatigue later in day

172
Q

failure to stabilize scapula while measuring glenohumeral abduction will lead to:

A

upward rotation and elevation of scapula

173
Q

humeral head slides posteriorly on glenoid fossa during shoulder medial rotation and as a result places pressure on the:

A

posterior capsule

174
Q

dorsal scapular nerve innervates

A

levator scapulae and rhomboids

175
Q

passive insufficiency occurs when

A

a 2 joint muscle is stretched across two joints at the same time. when performing passive knee flexion

176
Q

infant’s pulse is often assess at the ___ artery

A

brachial. an older child’s pulse is often assessed at the radial artery.

177
Q

patient slightly vaults and has early toe off due to what gait deviation?

A

pt has limited DF.

178
Q

RR _____ a intensity of exercise plateaus

A

decreases. patient will accommodate to level of exercise and RR will tend to decrease.

179
Q

shoulder: medial rotators and adductors provide support for the

A

anterior joint capsule. these muscles should be strengthened after anterior shoulder dislocation

180
Q

C2

A

dermatome: temple

181
Q

C3

A

dermatome: entire neck

182
Q

C4

A

dermatome: shoulder area

183
Q

C5

A

dermatome: deltoid area

184
Q

C6

A

dermatome: anterior arm

185
Q

C7

A

dermatome: lateral arm and forearm to index

186
Q

C8

A

dermatome: medial arm and forearm to long

187
Q

L1

A

dermatome: back

188
Q

L2

A

dermatome: back

189
Q

L3

A

dermatome: back

190
Q

L4

A

dermatome: medial buttock

191
Q

L5

A

dermatome: buttock

192
Q

S1

A

dermatome: buttock

193
Q

S2

A

dermatome: buttock

194
Q

S3

A

dermatome: groin

195
Q

S4

A

dermatome: perineum

196
Q

T1

A

dermatome: medial forearm to base of little finger. myotome: elbow flexion and arm horizontal

197
Q

T2

A

dermatomes: medial upper arm to medial elbow

198
Q

T3-T12

A

dermatomes: upper thorax

199
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

sx: polydipsia

200
Q

hip joint consists of

A

convex femoral head within a concave acetabulum. hip flexion requires a posterior and inferior translation of the femoral head within the acetabulum

201
Q

a minor lesion of a muscle or tendon will yield

A

mild to mod pain with resistance

202
Q

special tests

A

go over

203
Q

plumb line measurements

A

normal posture: thru lobe of ear

204
Q

e-stim: when measuring phase charge

A

unit of measure is

205
Q

duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

proximal muscle weakness first

206
Q

heterotopic ossification

A

abnormal bone growth in tissue. sx include decreased ROM

207
Q

bp cuff

A

width of bladder should be 40% circumference of midpoint of limb. average size adult=5-6 inches

208
Q

stages of ulcers

A

…

209
Q

which muscles of respiration are the most active during forced expiration

A

internal intercostals. depress ribs during forceful expiration

210
Q

emphysema will present with

A

hyperinflated lungs and chest wall becomes fixed in hyperinflated position. total lung capacity and dead space in lungs significantly increase

211
Q

extensor lag

A

lack of full knee extension with full contraction of the quads. pts with extension lag have greater passive extension than active extension.

212
Q

shortening of latissimus dorsi presents as

A

limitation of shoulder flexion or abduction due to muscles origin on external lip of iliac crest and its insertion on intertubercular groove of humerus

213
Q

burn thicknesses

A

…

214
Q

best predictor of altered sensation after burn

A

depth of burn injury

215
Q

ideational apraxia

A

deals with errors in concepts and sequencing of tasks. most commonly due to a lesion in patient’s dominant parietal lobe of cerebrum

216
Q

residual limb wrapping

A

6 inch ace wrap most appropriate for transfemoral amputation. 4-5 inch most appropriate for transtibial amputation

217
Q

homolateral synkinesis

A

flexion patter of involved UE facilitates flexion of involved LE

218
Q

raimiste’s phenomenon

A

involved LE will abd/adduct with applied resistance to the uninvolved LE in the same direction

219
Q

souque’s phenomenon

A

raising the involved UE above 100 degrees with elbow extension will produce extension and abduction of fingers

220
Q

akinesia

A

inability to initiate movement

221
Q

apraxia

A

inability to perform purposeful learned movements

222
Q

chorea

A

movements that are sudden

223
Q

dysdiadochokinesia

A

inability to perform rapidly alternating mvmts

224
Q

dysmetria

A

inability to control range of a mvmt and force of muscular activity

225
Q

dysphagia

A

inability to properly swallow

226
Q

hemiballism

A

involuntary and violent movement of a large body part

227
Q

hemiparesis and hemiplegia

A

paresis: weakness on one side of body

228
Q

ideational and ideomotor apraxia

A

ideational: inability to formulate an initial motor plan and sequence tasks where proprioceptive input necessary for mvmt is impaired….ideomotor: person plans a movement or task

229
Q

complete/incomplete lesion

A

complete: no preserved motor or sensory function below level of lesion. incomplete: may be scattered motor function

230
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A

incomplete lesion from compression and damage to anterior part of cord. injury is usually cervical flexion. loss of motor function

231
Q

brown-sequard’s syndrome

A

incomplete lesion caused by stab wound

232
Q

cauda equina injuries

A

injury below L1 spinal level where long nerve roots transcend. usually incomplete due to large number of nerve roots in area. considered a peripheral nerve injury. flaccidity

233
Q

central cord syndrome

A

incomplete lesion from compression and damage to central portion of sc. usually cervical hyperextension that damages spinothalamic tract

234
Q

posterior cord syndrome

A

compression of posterior spinal artery. loss of pain perception

235
Q

ectopic bone

A

or heterotopic ossification

236
Q

sacral sparing

A

incomplete lesion where some of innermost tracts remain innervated. sensation of saddle area

237
Q

myelotomy

A

surgical procedure that severs certain tracts within sc in order to decrease spasticity and improve function

238
Q

neurogenic bladder

A

bladder empties reflexively for a pt with an injury above level of S2. sacral reflex arc remains intact

239
Q

nonreflexive bladder

A

bladder is flaccid as a result of cauda equina or conus medullaris lesion. sacral reflex arc is damaged

240
Q

rhizotomy

A

surgical resection of sensory component of a spinal nerve in order to decrease spasticity and improve function

241
Q

neurectomy

A

surgical removal of a segment of a nerve in order to decrease spasticity and improve function

242
Q

spinal shock

A

occurs physiologically 30 to 60 mins after trauma to sc and can last up to several weeks. presents with total flaccid paralysis and loss of all reflexes below level of injury

243
Q

tenotomy

A

surgical release of a tendon in order to decrease spasticity and improve function

244
Q

zone of preservation

A

poor or trace motor or sensory function for up to 3 levels below neurologic level of injury

245
Q

glasgow coma scale

A

total score of 8 or less indicate coma in 90% of pts. score of 9-12 indicate moderate brain injuries

246
Q

osteomalacia

A

softening of the bone

247
Q

osteopenia

A

low bone mass; deprivation of bone

248
Q

osteopetrosis

A

increased bone density

249
Q

osteoporosis

A

decreased bone density

250
Q

paget’s disease

A

metabolic condition characterized by heightened osteoclast activity. excessive bone formation lacks true structural integrity. bone appears large but lacks strength. medication for treatment

251
Q

endocrine system

A

hormones…glands of system include: hypothalamus

252
Q

endocrine system dysfunction: signs and symptoms

A

neuromuscular: muscle weakness

253
Q

adrenal dysfunction:

A

addison’s disease or cushing’s syndrome

254
Q

addison’s disease

A

hypofunctioning of adrenal cortex. electrolyte imbalance. weakness

255
Q

cushing’s

A

excessive amount of cortisol. persistent hyperglycemia

256
Q

thyroid dyfunction:

A

hypothyroidism

257
Q

hypothyroidism

A

decreased levels of thyroid hormones in bloodstream. fatigue

258
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

excessive levels of thyroid hormones in blood. nervousness

259
Q

type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

pancreas fails to produce adequate insulin. rapid onset of sx

260
Q

type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

when body cannot properly respond to insulin. sx: ketoacidosis does not occur since insulin is still produced.

261
Q

rehab considerations for pts with diabetes

A

peripheral neuropathies

262
Q

phases of tissue healing

A

inflammation: 1-6 days

263
Q

hydrotherapy tanks

A

extremity tank: used for distal upper or lower extremity

264
Q

qualitative vs quantitative research

A

qualitative: derives data from observation

265
Q

types of clinical evidence

A

systematic: comprehensive survey of topic which all primary studies have been identified

266
Q

berg balance

A

test designed to assess a patient’s risk for falling. 14 tasks

267
Q

tinetti

A

another tool assessing risk for falling. patients with a total score of less than 19 indicates a high risk for a fall. tool has combined max total of 28.

268
Q

mini mental state exam

A

screening patients for cognitive impairments. one point for correct answer and 0 for incorrect answer. max score of 30

269
Q

short portable mental status questionnaire

A

10 item screening tool mainly used in geriatrics. orientation and memory, practical skills and math skills are assessed. max score of 10, with a score below 8 indicating cognitive impairment. lower score below 8 the more significant the cognitive impairment.

270
Q

borg rating of perceived exertion scale (endurance)

A

tool designated to measure perceived exertion, dyspnea, and exercise intensity. original scale measures 6-20 points and revised scale measures 0-10 points. score of 20 (original) or 10 (new) indicates high intensity exercise that cannot be completed due to exhaustion.

271
Q

six minute walk test

A

tool used to determine a patient’s functional exercise capacity. allows for observation of heart rate and oxygen consumption during activity.

272
Q

fugl-meyer assessment (motor recovery)

A

used to measure recovery after CVA.

273
Q

functional independence measure (FIM)

A

used in rehab hospitals in order to determine a patient’s level of disability and burden of care.

274
Q

barthel index

A

tool designed to measure the amount of assistance needed to perform 10 different activities with a total max score of 100.

275
Q

special tests: shoulder

A

dislocation (apprehension test), biceps tendon pathology: lundington’s, speed’s, yergason’s; rotator cuff/impingement: drop arm, hawkins-kennedy impingement, neer impingement, supraspinatus; thoracic outlet syndrome: adson, allen, costoclavicular syndrome, roos, wright (hyperabduction), miscellaneous: glenoid labrum tear

276
Q

special tests: elbow

A

ligamentous instability (varus stress

277
Q

special tests: wrist/hand

A

ligamentous instability: ulnar collateral ligament instability test. vascular insufficiency: allen test, capillary refill test. contracture/tightness: bunnel-littler test, tight retinacular ligament test. neuro dysfunction: froment’s sign, phalen’s test, tinel’s sign. miscellaneous: finkelstein test, grind test, murphy sign

278
Q

special tests: hip

A

special tests: hip contracture/tightness: ely’s, ober’s, piriformis, thomas, tripod sign, 90-90 slr test. pediatric: barlow’s, ortolani’s. miscellaneous: craig’s, patrick’s (faber), quadrant scouring test, trendelenburg test.

279
Q

special tests: knee

A

ligamentous instability: anterior drawer, lachman, lateral pivot shift, posterior drawer, posterior sag, slocum test, valgus stress, varus stress. meniscal pathology: apley’s compression, bounce home, McMurray. swelling: brush, patellar tap. miscellaneous: clarke’s sign, hughston’s plica, noble compression, patellar apprehension

280
Q

special tests: ankle

A

ligamentous instability: anterior drawer, talar tilt. miscellaneous: homan’s sign, thompson, tibial torsion, true leg length discrepancy

281
Q

special tests: spine

A

cervical: foraminal compression

282
Q

special tests: spine

A

lumbar/si region: sacroiliac joint stress

283
Q

nerves of the brachial plexus

A

nerves of the brachial plexus somatic network of nerves that originate near the neck and shoulder. These nerves begin at the spinal cord in the neck and control the hand, wrist, elbow, and shoulder

284
Q

brachial plexus: dorsal scapular nerve

A

originates from rami of plexus. innervates rhomboids

285
Q

bp: long thoracic

A

originates from rami of plexus. innervates serratus anterior

286
Q

bp: nerve to subclavius

A

originates from trunk of plexus: innervates the subclavius

287
Q

bp: suprascapular

A

originates from trunk of plexus: innervates infraspinatus and supraspinatus

288
Q

bp: lateral pectoral

A

originates from lateral cord of plexus: innervates pec major and pec minor

289
Q

bp: musculocutaneous

A

originates from lateral cord of plexus: innervates coracobrachialis

290
Q

bp: lateral root of the median

A

originates from the lateral root of plexus: innervates flexor muscles in forearm, except flexor carpi ulnaris and five muscles in hand.

291
Q

bp: medial pectoral

A

originates from medial cord of the plexus: innervates pec major and minor.

292
Q

bp: ulnar

A

originates from medial cord of plexus: innervates 1 1/2 muscles of forearm and most small muscles of hand

293
Q

bp: medial root of median

A

originates from medial cord of plexus: innervates flexor muscles in forearm

294
Q

bp: upper scapular

A

originates from posterior cord of plexus: innervates subscapularis.

295
Q

bp: thoracodorsal

A

originates from posterior cord of plexus: innervates latissimus dorsi.

296
Q

bp: lower subscapular

A

originates from posterior cord of plexus: innervates subscapularis

297
Q

bp: axillary

A

originates from posterior cord of plexus: innervates deltoid

298
Q

bp: radial

A

originates from posterior cord of plexus: innervates brachioradialis

299
Q

muscle spindle

A

receptors that respond to change in length

300
Q

golgi tendon organ

A

responds to tension/stretch of a tendon

301
Q

achilles tendon rupture

A

impaired blood flow along with degeneration will make tendon more susceptible to injury. occurs most frequently when pushing off a weight bearing extremity with an extended knee. patient will present with swelling over distal tendon, palpable over calcaneal tuberosity, and pain & weakness with plantar flexion. special tests: thompson’s and possible O’brien needle test by physician

302
Q

adhesive capsulitis

A

nflammation and fibrotic thickening of anterior joint capsule. primary is spontaneous, secondary is from an underlying condition. associated with diabetes. acute: pain radiates below elbow. arthrogram can assist with diagnosis by detecting a decreased volume of fluid within joint capsule. should avoid abduction. pain with lateral rotation. interventions may include u/s, grade 3 and 4 mobs, pnf techniques, stretching. can take up to 12-24 months to recover

303
Q

ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)

A

degenerative disease producing upper and lower motor neuron impairments. demyelination, axon swelling and atrophy. unknown cause. tests: electromyography, muscle biopsy, spinal tap. medication: reluzole (Rilutek).

304
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

systemic condition of inflammation of spine and larger peripheral joints. leads to fibrosis and ossification. usually affects SI joint, intervertebral disks, spine, and other joints. special test: wright-schober. low impact aerobic exercise with emphasis on extension and rotation are appropriate. high impact and flexion exercises are contraindicated.

305
Q

ACL Grade III sprain

A

ACL Grade III sprain injuries usually occur during hyperflexion, rapid deceleration, hyperextension or landing in an unbalanced position. grade III acl sprain is considered a complete tear of ligament with excessive laxity. laxity is often classified as anterolateral or anteromedial. MRI is preferred imaging tool. special tests: lachman, anterior drawer, pivot shift. for surgery, the patellar tendon is the most commonly utilized graft for intraarticular reconstruction. closed chain are more desirable than open chain since they minimize anterior translation of the tibia.

306
Q

bicipital tendonitis

A

inflammation in long head of biceps. repeated full abduction and lateral rotation of humeral head leads to inflammation. years of shoulder wear and tear

307
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome

A

median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel, along with four flexor digitorum profundus tendons, 4 flexor digitorum superficialis tendons, and flexor pollicis longus tendon. occurs as a result of compression of the median nerve. normal tissue pressure within the carpal tunnel is 7-88mmHg, but CTS can result in pressure above 30mmHg. increase in pressure produces ischemia in nerve. special tests: positive tinel’s, positive phalen’s, positive tethered median nerve stress test. treatment can include corticosteroid injections, splinting, and PT. PT includes carpal mobilization and gentle stretching.

308
Q

cerebral palsy

A

broad term used to describe a group of nonprogressive movement disorders that result from brain damage. 2-4 out of 1,000 births. most common cause of permanent disability in children. spastic CP involves upper motor neuron damage. athetoid CP involves damage to cerebellum. CP is classified as monoplegia (one involved extremity), hemiplegia (unilateral involvment of upper and lower extremities), and quadriplegia (involvement of all extremities). special tests: barthel index, bayley scale of infant development, bruininks-oseretsky test of motor proficiency, alberta infant motor scale, pediatric evaluation of disability inventory.

309
Q

CVA

A

interruption of cerebral circulation resulting in cerebral insufficiency. results from prolonged ischemia to an artery in the brain. CT can confirm

310
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

inherited disease that affects ion transport of exocrine glands resulting in impairment of hepatic, digestive, respiratory and reproductive systems. causes the exocrine glands to overproduce thick mucus. creates an elevation of sodium chloride and pancreatic enzyme insufficiency. chromosome 7. 1:2,500 births for caucasians, 1:17,000 births for african americans. most consistent symptom is finding of high sodium and chloride in sweat. symptoms are cough, salty skin, sputum production, wheezing, poor weight gain, recurrent infections. testing: neonates’ meconium as screening tool for increased albumin. most common complication is exacerbation of obstructive pulmonary disease. PF testing results in decreased forced expiratory volume, forced vital capacity. functional residual capacity and residual volume become increased. hypoxemia and hypercapnia develop due to alteration in perfusion. treatment: chest PT and medications

311
Q

down syndrome

A

trisomy 21. error in cell devision and cell nucleus results in 47 chromosomes. pair of 21st chromosomes is responsible for downs. 1 in every 800-1000 births. increased incidence of celiac disease

312
Q

duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

progressive neuromuscular degenerative disorder tat manifests symptoms once fat and connective tissue begin to replace muscle that has been destroyed by disease. dystrophin gene xp21. 20-35:100

313
Q

emphysema

A

emphysema results from long history of chronic bronchitis. results from a non-reversible injury and destruction of elastin protein within the alveolar walls. causes permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles within the lungs. causes pockets of air to form between alveolar spaces and within the lung parenchyma. pulmonary function: impaired forced expiratory volume, vital capacity, and forced vital capacity. will caused increases in: total lung capacity, residual volume, and functional residual capacity. cor pulmonale can result with advanced emphysema. PT includes breathing exercises such as pursed lip breathing, ventilatory muscle strengthening, chest wall exercises, patient education on posture, airway secretion clearance, and energy conservation techniques.

314
Q

fibromyalgia

A

rheumatology syndrome or a nonarticular rheumatic condition. widespread history of pain in all four quadrants of body.

315
Q

guillain-barre syndrome

A

acute polyneuropathy is a temporary inflammation and demyelination of the peripheral nerves’ myelin sheaths, potentially resulting in axonal degeneration. results in motor weakness in a distal to proximal progression, sensory impairment, and possible respiratory paralysis. weakness will progress towards upper extremities and head. level of disability usually peaks within 2 to 4 weeks after onset. gradual recovery can take months to years. can be diagnosed through a CSF sample containing high protein levels and little to no lymphocytes.

316
Q

HIV

A

retrovirus that invades and destroys cells within the immune system. transmitted through contact with blood

317
Q

huntington’s disease

A

neuro disorder of CNS and is characterized by degeneration and atrophy of basal ganglia and cerebral cortex of brain. loss of neurons creates dysfunction in inhibition that results in the symptoms of chorea

318
Q

juvenile RA

A

in children less than 16. inflammation and stiffness to multiple joints for a period of greater than 6 weeks. medication, PT including ROM, exercise, pain control, functional mobility, strengthening, endurance, aerobic training.

319
Q

lateral epicondylitis

A

tennis elbow. inflammation or degenerative changes at common extensor tendon that attaches to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow. repeated overuse of wrist extensors

320
Q

medical collateral ligament sprain - grade II

A

MCL is primary stabilizer of medial side of knee against valgus force and lateral rotation of tibia especially during knee flexion. common mechanism of injury is direct blow against the lateral surface of knee causing valgus stress and damage to medial aspect of knee. grade II injury is partial tearing of ligament’s fibers resulting in joint laxity when ligament is stretched. patient will present with inability to fully extend and flex knee

321
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

produces patches of demyelination that decreases the efficiency of nerve impulse transmission. presents with visual problems, parasthesias and sensory changes, clumsiness, weakness, ataxia, balance dysfunction and fatigue. PT interventions include regulation of activity level, relaxation and energy conservation techniques, normalization of tone, balance activities, gait training, core stabilization and control, adaptive/AD training.

322
Q

MI: myocardial infarction

A

poor coronary artery perfusion, ischemia, and subsequent necrosis of cardiac tissue. 12 lead ekg: elevated ST segment indicates acute infarction, inverted T wave indicates myocardial ischemia, depressed ST segment indicates pending subendocardial or transmural infarction. blood serum analysis can be utilized to determine the level of selected cardiac enzymes. PT intervention is a multi phase cardiac rehab program

323
Q

patellofemoral syndrome

A

damage to articular cartilage of patella ranging from softening to complete cartilage destruction resulting in exposure of subchondral bone. common during adolescence. management includes controlling edema

324
Q

peripheral vascular disease

A

usually secondary to atherosclerosis (hardening of arteries). narrowing of lumen of blood vessels, causing a reduction of circulation. patient education important: protecting limbs, foot and skin care, risk factor reduction

325
Q

plantar fasciitis

A

chronic overuse secondary to repetitive stretching of plantar fascia through excessive foot pronation during loading phase of gait. interventions: ice massage, deep friction massage, heel insert, orthotics, gentle stretching of achilles tendon and plantar fascia

326
Q

reflex sympathetic dystrophy

A

increase in sympathetic activity causing a release of norepinephrine in periphery and subsequent vasoconstriction of blood vessels resulting in pain and increase in sensitivity to peripheral stimulation. intense burning and pain in affected extremity

327
Q

restrictive lung disease

A

decrease in lung and chest wall compliance, decrease in lung volumes, increase in work of breathing.

328
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

systemic autoimmune disorder of connective tissue - chronic inflammation within synovial membranes, tendon sheaths, and articular cartilage. 3 times greater in females, dx’d more frequently between 30-50. blood work assists in diagnosis thru elevation of rheumatoid factor, wbc count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, hemoglobin and hematocrit values

329
Q

rotator cuff tendonitis

A

inability of a weak supraspinatus to depress head of humerus into glenoid fossa during arm elevation. caused by excessive overhead activity. weakness and painful arc of motion most occurring between 60-120 degrees of active abduction

330
Q

sciatica (secondary to herniated disk)

A

sciatic nerve inflamed - damage secondary to compression from herniated disk. low back and gluteal pain radiating down back of thigh. pain will increase in sitting

331
Q

spina bifida - myelomeningocele

A

occulta (incomplete fusion of posterior vertebral arch with no neural tissue protruding) meningocele (incomplete fusion of posterior vertebral arch with neural tissue/meninges protruding outside neural arch) myelomeningocele (incomplete fusion of posterior vertebral arch with both meninges and sc protruding outside neural arch). approx 75% of vertebral defects are found in lumbar/sacral region most often at L5-S1. prenatal testing of AFP in blood will show elevated levels

332
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus

A

connective tissue disorder caused by autoimmune reaction in body. females greater risk, most common age group is 15-40. pt will present with red butterfly rash across cheeks and nose, red rash over light exposed areas, arthralgias, alopecia, pleurisy, kidney involvement, seizures, and depression

333
Q

temporomandibular joint dysfunction

A

females greater risk, 20-40 yrs, limited jaw motion, headache, tinnitus. treatment: moist heat, ice, biofeedback, u/s, electrostimulation, TENS and massage

334
Q

thoracic outlet syndrome

A

compression and damage to brachial plexus nerve trunks, subclavian vascular supply, and/or axillary artery. contributing factors in development of condition include presence of a cervical rib, abnormal first rib, postural deviations, hypertrophy or spasms of scalene muscles, and elongated cervical transverse process. females greater risk than males. 30-40

335
Q

total hip arthroplasty

A

posterolateral approach allows abductor muscles to remain intact, but there may be higher incidence of post-op joint instability due to interruption of posterior capsule. cemented=PWB initially. noncemented=toe touch WB for up to 6 weeks

336
Q

total knee arthroplasty

A

destruction of articular cartilage secondary to OA. post-op care includes knee immobilizer, limb elevation, CPM, knee protocol exercises. avoid squatting, quick pivoting

337
Q

transfemoral abduction due to osteosarcoma

A

may present with fatigue, LOB, phantom pain or sensation, hypersensitivity of residual limb, psycho issues regarding loss of limb. lying in prone position is beneficial to decrease hip flexion contraction

338
Q

transtibial amputation due to arteriosclerosis obliterans (closing of arteries

A

results in ischemia and subsequent ulceration of affected tissues. may have a decrease in cardiovascular status depending on frequency of intermittent claudication prior to amputation

339
Q

TLR (tonic layrinthine reflex)

A

position of labyrinth in inner ear-reflected in head position. in supine, body and extremities are held in extension; i prone, body and extremities are held in flexion. birth to 6 months. often causes full body extension, which interferes with balance in sitting or standing

340
Q

galant reflex

A

touch to skin along spine from shoulder to hip. response: lateral flexion of trunk to side of stimulus. 30 weeks of gestation to 2 months. can interfere with development of sitting balance. can lead to scoliosis.

341
Q

positive support reflex

A

weight place on balls of feet when upright will produce stiffening of legs and trunk into extension. 35 weeks of gestation to 2 months. interferes with standing and walking

342
Q

arthrogryposis multiplex congenita (peds)

A

non-progressive neuromuscular disorder. restriction in utero allows for fibrosis of muscles and structures within the joints. cylinder-like extremities with minimal definition, contractions, joint dislocations, muscle atrophy. tx: attain max level of developmental skills through positioning, stretching, strengthening, splinting, use of adaptive equipment.

343
Q

prader-willi syndrome

A

genetic condition diagnosed by physical attributes and patterns of behavior. partial deletion of chromosome 15. constant desire for food.

344
Q

spinal muscle atrophy

A

condition of progressive degeneration of anterior horn cell.

345
Q

baroreceptor reflex

A

produced by mechanoreceptors that are found within walls of heart, vessels, large arteries. activated when pressure rises within large arteries above 60 mmHg. mechanoreceptors are sensitive to stretch and pressure peak in activity at approx 180 mmHg. activation results in vasodilation secondary to inhibition of vasomotor centers within medulla as well as a decrease in heart rate and strength of contraction secondary to vagal stimulation.

346
Q

bainbridge reflex

A

occurs when mechanoreceptors embedded within right atrial myocardium respond to increase in pressure and stretch. stimulates vasomotor centers of medulla, and results in increased sympathetic input and heart rate. can also influence a decrease in heart rate when heart is beating too fast.

347
Q

chemoreceptor reflex

A

responds to need for increased depth and rate of ventilation. located on carotid and aortic bodies and detect lack of oxygen, responding to an increase in arterial CO2 levels.

348
Q

low hematocrit

A

feeling of weakness

349
Q

high hematocrit

A

increased risk of thombus

350
Q

low hemoglobin

A

anemia or recent hemorrhage

351
Q

high hemoglobin

A

hemoconcentration caused by polycythemia or dehydration

352
Q

high platelets

A

increased risk of thrombosis. low platelet count increases risk of bruising and bleeding.

353
Q

WBC count

A

increase will occur after hemorrhage, surgery, coronary occlusion or malignancy. decrease will indicate infection

354
Q

blood volume

A

average in adult is 7-8% of body weight. blood is pumped through body at 30 cm/sec with a total circulation time of 20 seconds.

355
Q

systolic pressure measures

A

force exerted against arteries during ejection cycle

356
Q

diastolic pressure measures

A

force exerted against arteries during rest

357
Q

bp is directly related to

A

cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance.

358
Q

pulse pressure

A

generally increases in direct proportion to intensity of exercise since systolic pressure increases with exercise

359
Q

systolic bp is legs is 10-20%

A

higher than pressure in arms. this is why ankle -brachial index value of greater than 1.0 is still considered be normal.

360
Q

bp that fails to increase or decrease with increasing workloads may signal a

A

plateau or decrease in cardiac output

361
Q

systolic bp normally decreases promptly with

A

cessation of exercise. 3 minute post exercise systolic bp should be less than the 90% of systolic bp at peak exercise.

362
Q

intracranial monitoring

A

isometric exercise and valsalva maneuver should be avoided. avoid neck and hip flexion greater than 90 degrees and lying down in prone position.

363
Q

hypovolaemic shock

A

caused by insufficient circulating blood volume. primary cause is hemorrhage or severe burn. clinical presentation: hypotension due to lack of circulating volume, anxiety, altered mental state, cool and clammy skin, rapid and thready pulse, thirst and fatigue. activate emergency medical system. lie patient in supine with legs elevated approx 12” in situations where tolerated.

364
Q

memory/amnesia

A

anterograde memory: inability to create new memory. post-traumatic amnesia: does not recall injury or events up until point of recovery. retrograde: inability to remember events prior to the injury.

365
Q

rancho los amigos: levels of cognitive functioning

A
  1. no response, 2. generalized response: inconsistent and nonpurposeful, 3. localized response: reacts specifically but inconsistently, 4. confused-agitated: heightened state of activity. bizarre and nonpurposeful behavior, 5. confused-inappropriate: responds to simple commands consistenly but responds randomly or inappropriate with increased complexity of commands, 6. confused-appropriate: shows goal-directed behavior, but is depended on external input, 7. automatic appropriate: appropriate and purposeful but robot-like, 8. purposeful appropriate: able to recall and integrate past and present events, and is aware and responsive to environment.
366
Q

CPR Adult Flow Chart

A

CPR Adult Flow Chart No movement or response-phone 911, emergency response-open airway; check breathing-if no breathing, administer 2 breaths that make chest rise-if no response, check pulse. if pulse-rescue breathing only at 10-12 breaths/min-if no pulse, begin CPR with 30 compressions and 2 breaths. push hard and fast (100/min) and release completely. minimize interruptions during compressions. continue to perform CPR until medical assistance arrives, breathing, coughing or other signs of circulation return, the patient begins to move or you cannot physically continue due to exhaustion.

367
Q

CHF: congestive heart failure

A

usually results from coronary artery disease when heart is unable to maintain adequate cardiac output. characterized by abnormal retention of fluid and results in diminished blood flow to the tissue and congestion of the pulmonary and/or systemic circulation. symptoms: pulmonary edema, dyspnea when lying down, S3 gallop, exertional hypotension, weight gain within hours, increased resting heart rate

368
Q

CAD: coronary artery disease

A

narrowing or blockage of coronary arteries that may produce ischemia and necrosis of the myocardium. inability for vasodilation and arteries cannot meet the metabolic demands. this will produce ischemia and ultimately necrosis. significant blockage is present over 75%

369
Q

typical lung volumes and capacities

A

tidal volume=500mL, expiratory reserve volume=1000mL, vital capacity=4000-5000mL, inspiratory capacity=3000-4000mL, 75-80% vital capacity, 55-60% of total lung capacity

370
Q

forced expiratory volumes

A

FEV1 (in one second): 83% of VC, FEV2: 94% of FC, FEV3: 97% of VC

371
Q

PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen)

A

95-100mmHg.

372
Q

pursed lip breathing

A

improves ventilation by decreasing RR and increasing tidal volume

373
Q

segmental breathing

A

used to prevent accumulation of fluid by directing inspired air to predetermined areas. applying pressure downward and inward during exhalation.

374
Q

cor pulmonale

A

medical emergency. sudden dilation of right ventricle of heart secondary to a pulmonary embolus. rt sided heart failure will occur if not treated. chronic cough, chest pain, distal swelling, dyspnea, fatigue and weakness

375
Q

most occlusive to non-occlusive

A

hydrocolloids, hydrogels, semi-permeable foam, semi-permeable film, impregnated gauze, alginates, and traditional gauze

376
Q

hydrocolloids

A

hydrocolloids used for partial to full thickness wounds, can be used with granular or necrotic wounds. provides moist environment for wound healing. enables autolytic debridement. good for wounds that have moderate exudate. cannot be used on infected wounds. (hydrogels similar but used for wounds with less exudate)

377
Q

foam dressings - hydrophilic polyurethane base

A

allow exudates to be absorbed into foam. provide protection over partial and full thickness wounds

378
Q

alginates

A

calcium salt of alganic acid that is extracted from seaweed. highly permeable and non-occlusive. require a secondary dressing. used on partial and full thickness draining wounds such as pressure wounds or venous insufficiency ulcers. often used on infected wounds due to likelihood of excessive drainage

379
Q

selective debridement

A

removes only nonviable tissues from a wound. often performed by sharp debridement, enzymatic debridement, and autolytic debridement. (nonselective debridement removes both viable and nonviable tissue. often termed mechanical and is most commonly performed by wet-to-dry dressings, wound irritation and hydrotherapy-whirlpool)

380
Q

pressure ulcer staging

A

Stage I: intact skin, change in skin color, temp, stiffness or sensation, Stage II: partial thickness skin loss that involves epidermis and/or dermis. superficial and presents as an abrasion, blister or shallow crater. Stage III: full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may go down to underlying fascia. Stage IV: full thickness skin loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures.

381
Q

zones of injury (burns)

A

zone of coagulation: area of burn that received most severe injury along with irreversible cell damage. zone of stasis: area of less severe injury that possesses reversible damage and surrounds the zone of coagulation. zone of hyperemia: area surrounding the zone of stasis that presents with inflammation, but will fully recover without any intervention or permanent damage

382
Q

burn classification

A

superficial burn: involves outer epidermis only. red with possible slight edema. healing occurs w/o scarring. Superficial partial-thickness: involves epidermis and upper portion of dermis. extremely painful w/blisters. minimal to no scarring. Deep partial thickness burn: complete destruction of epidermis and majority of dermis. discolored with broken blisters and edema. damage to nerve endings may result only in moderate levels of pain. healing occurs with hypertrophic scars and keloids. Full thickness: complete destruction of epidermis and dermis along with partial damage of subcutaneous fat layer. presents with eschar formation and minimal pain. requires grafting and may be susceptible to infection. Subdermal burn: complete destruction of epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layer. may involve muscle and bone.

383
Q

skin grafts

A

allograft: from another human or cadaver. autograft: taken from patient’s own body. heterograft (or xenograft): taken from another species. mesh: altered to create a mesh like pattern to cover larger area.

384
Q

HeatStroke

A

may develop following heat exhaustion if the condition is not treated. It occurs when the body’s temperature rises and the cooling system stops working. This potentially life-threatening condition is characterized by nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness, fatigue, rapid heart rate, hot and dry skin, shortness of breath and decreased urination.

385
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

is usually accompanied by a fever no higher than 104 degrees Fahrenheit, excessive thirst, nausea, fainting, cool and clammy skin, weakness, muscle aches, heavy sweating, slow heartbeat and dizziness.

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