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RUSVM VZ > SaS Final > Flashcards

SaS Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the parts to Bone reconstruction of the Stifle?

A

Trochleoplasties

Tibial tuberosity transposition

Distal femoral osteotomy

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2
Q

Complications of The Lateral ear canal resection

A

Don’t prefer it on cockerspanials (otitis externa)

Don’t choose a patient that has otitis externa (it does not treat it)

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3
Q

What is the Gold standard for nasal disease diagnostics?

A

Computed tomography

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4
Q

How do you make the Fascia as clean as possible?

A

Cut where the subcutaneous tissue and fascia meet

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5
Q

Fifi just had contractions ended 20 minuets ago. Should medical treatment be started?

A

No. >30 minuets is the common practice.

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6
Q

When is arthroscopy a good option for potential diagnosis?

A

OCD and FMCP

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7
Q

What are some issues consistent with hepatic dysfunction?

A

Hypoglycemia

Hypoprotenemia

Decreased BUN

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8
Q

What does the TTA surgery aim for?

A

Extension of the tibial tuberosity to make the force of weight bearing parallel to patellar tendon

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9
Q

Jerry (dog) is an abdominal cryptorchid. What is the proper surgical procedure?

A

there are two;

Ventral midline

abdominal incision Laparoscopically

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10
Q

What are the indications for Complete/Partial Liver lobectomy?

A

Biopsy

Neoplasia

Trauma

Abscess

Cysts

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11
Q

How do you make a simple continuous closure the same risk of dehiscence from a simple interrupted?

A

IT IS HARD –6 throws at the beginning –8 throws at the end if everything is done properly

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12
Q

Advantages/Disadvatages to Tru-cut Biopsy

A

Minimally invasive

Ultrasound/CT guided

14-16 guage needles

Increased risk of bleeding

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13
Q

Cat presents open fracture with periosteal stripping and extensive ST loss. Classification?

A

Type III B

Extensive ST Loss, Bone exposure, stripped periosteum

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14
Q

You suspect a partial tear of the CCL. What do you expect?

A

Partial tear: commonly happens in the craniomedial band and instability in flexion

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15
Q

What can worsen the signs of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Anything that taxes the liver:

High protein meals

NSAIDs

Benzodiazepines

GI Ulceration

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16
Q

Which procedures have a more rapid return of function with CCL rupture?

A

TPLO(tibial plateau leveling osteotomy)/ TTA

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17
Q

How do you treat non-surgically ear hematoma?

A

Drain;

IV cortisone

Dexamethasone/prednisalone- long term

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18
Q

In a C-section; where do you make the incision; Over the fetus or before/after the fetus?

A

C-section: Do not make the incision over the fetus “Milk” the fetuses to incision.

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19
Q

What are the main things we monitor after PSS surgery?

A

Portal hypertension, seizures

Treat with IV fluids until eating on own (offer food early post-op period)

Analgesia- Buprenophine

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20
Q

T/F Every graft with slits is to be expanded.

A

False; Slits can be primarily to prevent accumulation of fluid under the graft. Grafts do not always need to expand

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21
Q

A dog presents with 2.3 cm bone sticking out. Soft tissue does not seem to be damaged severly. No flaps or avulsions.

What classification?

A

Type II

>1 cm, Mild soft tissue trauma without extensive soft tissue damage. No flaps or avulsions

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22
Q

What Dietary chanes can be made to prevent GDV?

A

Egg, Fish, Plenty of water before meals, smaller volumes

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23
Q

What is the Ideal method to diagnosis pyometra?

A

Ultrasound- pyometra

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24
Q

What is a poor prognosticator with single congenital shunts?

A

Ascities

(copper colored irises)

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25
Q

Where does the left ovarian vein drain?

A

Left renal vein

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26
Q

What must you do for PSS surgery?

A

MEASURE PORTAL PRESSURES

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27
Q

You bridge the incision from this type of skin repair to the recipient site.

A

You commonly use a bridge incision on flap

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28
Q

What is important to remember duing the OHE of a torsed Uterus?

A

Do no derotate a torsed Uterus

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29
Q

what is the common closure of the feline castration?

A

Healing by second intention is the common closure of the feline castration

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30
Q

Why did you just Matrix-block the other vet from using prostaglandin (for whatever stupid reason) on a closed cervix pyometra?

A

Prostaglanding vs. Closed cervix = rupture

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31
Q

Which hormone level is usually low in a Retained ovary?

A

LH (hence; Cats may require lutenization first)

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32
Q

What is the normal Sulcular debth in Cats?

A

> 1mm

Sulcular debth in cats

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33
Q

You notice Vessel thrombosis in the spleen when fixing a GDV. What do you do?

A

Splenectomy- Vessel thrombosis in the spleen

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34
Q

What can happen if you are too far lateral on the Ventral midline incision?

A

Seroma from the dead space

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35
Q

“Doc, it’s been 3 hours since the first puppy!?” -you reply-?

A

This can be normal. Continue to watch closely. If it goes on for 4 hours or more please bring them in.

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36
Q

You notice diffuse arragnment of adenocarcinomas in the liver. Where should you look for metastiasis?

A

Lymph nodes, peritoneum and lungs

Adenocarcinomas Diffuse

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37
Q

What kind of samples can you gain from a Laparoscopy?

A

Multiple relatively small tissue samples;

Cup biopsy forceps

Tru-cut needle

Gillotine (performed with suture loops)

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38
Q

A young dog presents with oral tumors. What are our two differentials?

A

odontomas

Undifferentiated Malignant oral tumor

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39
Q

What are the advantages of open castration?

A

Decreased risk of ligature slipping Decreased risk of abdominal hemorrhage Useful for large, bulky pedicles

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40
Q

What are commonly the most malignant oral tumors?

A

Oral melanomas are more commonly malignant

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41
Q

“Bunny hopping” is a sign of what?

A

CCL degeneration/failure

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42
Q

Describe the common Arteriovenous malformations of the Liver

A

Intrahepatic

multiple high pressure arterial to low pressure venous malformations

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43
Q

What do you need to do prior to an orthopedic exam?

A

a regular PE!

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44
Q

T/F Intraabdominal hemorrhage can be life threatening

A

True

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45
Q

What are indications for a lateral ear canal resection?

A

Moist environment predisposing to re-infection

Difficulty administering treatments

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46
Q

It’s been 24 hours since the temperature drop on a poodle. Problem?

A

No problem. Iz common

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47
Q

Name some things that happen with a patients Blood work who has a PSS;

A

Microcytic anemia, Pokilocytes (cats), Decreased bun, increased liver enzymes, INcreased pre and post-prandial bile acids, Increased ammonia, Decreased protein C activity.

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48
Q

T/F

Suture ligation is possible for all extra hepatic portosystemic shunts.

A

False

Suture ligation <50% of patients

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49
Q

T/F All uterine ruptures present as septic peritonitis

A

False; Sterile, pregnant uterus- minimal sings

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50
Q

Where is the fixation point, on the stomach, for a gastroplexy? (commonly)

A

Fixation point is at the base of the greater curvature

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51
Q

What osteotomy related complication can you see with TTA?

A

Iatrogenic patellar luxation TTA

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52
Q

“Kidra’ has been trying to make a ‘nest’ for the past 33 hours”

A

Please bring ‘Kidra’ in. Most likely dystocia

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53
Q

What is one signifying feature to look for to know that you are not too far lateral in the Ventril Midline incision?

A

“Pop” in to the SubQ

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54
Q

Cat presents with

Deep pocket formation (3mm), Gingival recession with abnormal topography and moderatly mobile incisors.

What stage of periodontal disease?

A

Stage 3

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55
Q

What are the indications of Choledochtomy?

A

Choledocholithiasis

Biliary sludge

(not commonly performed)

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56
Q

Describe the Midline approach

A

1)Sharply incise the Subcutaneous in the same plane as the skin 2) Identify linea alba

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57
Q

What are the indications for medical treatment of CEH?

A

Cystic endometerial hyperplasia: Valuable breeding animal no vaginal bleeding

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58
Q

Which suture distributes tension the best?

A

Monofilament distributes tension the best

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59
Q

What does a radiograph have to be in order to diagnose UAP?

A

The limb has to be in flexed lateral and not just a simple neutral lateral view.

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60
Q

You notice Venous congestion when fixing a GDV; What do you do?

A

Nothing; Congestion is self limiting

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61
Q

What is the holding layer of the body wall?

A

Body wall holding later; External rectus sheath.

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62
Q

How many Molars do cats have? Mandible and maxilary?

A

1 on each (total 4)

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63
Q

Is vaginal cytology helpful in metritis diagnosis?

A

No; Degenerative neutrophils, intracelular bacteria. Both of which are normal postpartum findings.

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64
Q

What are the qualifications for medical management of Pyometra?

A

Not systemically ill OPEN PYOMETRA only Owner highly motivated and aware of risks

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65
Q

How much porisity does cortical bone have?

A

Cortical bone porisity 5-10%

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66
Q

What analgesia do we use with PSS?

A

Buprenorphine

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67
Q

What is the standard treatment for CEH?

A

OHE is the default treatment for cystic endometrial hyperplasia

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68
Q

What is the advantage/time-to-use Flank approach?

A

Ovariohysterctomy Cats Risk of evisceration eliminated

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69
Q

T/F Ovarian neoplasms are commonly metastatic

A

False; Metastatic disease is uncommon overall

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70
Q

What is Biliary Mucoceles?

A

Hyperplasia of mucus-secreting cells and excessive mucus secretion;

Associated wtih hypothyroidism

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71
Q

What happens when you dissect too caudaly during a lateral ear canal resection?

A

Hit the parotid gland

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72
Q

It’s been 38 hours since the temperature drop on a pregnant beagle. Problem?

A

Yes, possibly dystocia.

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73
Q

Describe a grade IV MPL.

A

IV MPL: “out-out” –Patella is fixed in luxation –Manual reduction is not possible –hypoplastic patella

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74
Q

You are attempting an Ovariohysterectomy. The uterus is distended; what do you do?

A

Distended uterus; Enlarge the incision

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75
Q

Explain the cardiovascular effects of DGV;

A

Poor venous return; Decreased preload, perfusion, and CO and BP

Hypotension ontop of Hypoxemia

Vasoconstriction; Catecholamines, decreased perfusion, renal shutdown, loss of GIT mucosa, Shock and death.

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76
Q

What is anisotropicy?

A

Elastic modulus dependent upon direction of loading application.

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77
Q

T/F You can not skip subcutaneous closure

A

False You may skip if there is minimal Subcutaneous tissue

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78
Q

Dog presents with;

Gingival tissue is firm and pink. Some defined stipling and minimal sulcular debth (2.2mm)

What stage of periodontal disease?

A

Stage Zero- or Normal

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79
Q

What do you tell Joe about his dog who just came out of a TTA surgery?

A

Restrict exercise till radiographic healing (8-12 weeks) Expect 6 months of recovery following surgery compression bandage 24-48 hours.

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80
Q

What are the renal effects of GDV?

A

Poor perfusino leads to Oliguria/ Anuria

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81
Q

if you can’t perform a cholecystoduodenostomy, what should you perform?

A

Cholecystojejunostomy

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82
Q

T/F The horners associated with TEKA can be present before.

A

True!

Horners syndrome can be caused before the surgery takes place

(E.g. caused by the pre-existing diseased state)

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83
Q

What do you normally have with portal vein hypoplasia?

A

Portal hypertension

or

Microvascular Dysplasia

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84
Q

What do you incise through for a closed feline castration?

A

Spermatic fascia

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85
Q

The Gold standard for diagnosing PSS;

A

CT angiography

(Ultrasound is next best)

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86
Q

What are some DDx for the blood pannle seen with pyometras?

A

Sepsis SIRS (neutrophilia w/ left shift, Mild thrombocytopenia- inflammation, hypoalbuminemia, mild cholestasis {bilirubin, liver enzymes])

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87
Q

Kitty with suspect middle ear polyps. Has neuronal signs. What does this tell you?

A

Within the tympanic bulla

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88
Q

What marker do you position next to for near complete resectino of the lobe during a partial/complete lobectomay?

A

Hilus of the liver

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89
Q

Which components are ligated with an Open castration?

A

Separately ligated Vascular components( artery, nerve, plexus) Parietal tunic, cremaster, ductus deferens

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90
Q

Which radiograph angle is the most diagnostic?

A

Right lateral ; GDV most diagnostic

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91
Q

What do you do if the pedicle starts bleeding?

A

Extend the Incision

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92
Q

How can you tell if CCL rupture is chronic?

A

DJD on the physical exam and radio-graphs can confirm chronicity.

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93
Q

What is the main thing we worry about in the surgery on the mandible/jaw?

A

Occlusion;

not if the bones are lined up nice and pretty

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94
Q

Where do the ovarian arteries branch from?

A

Directly off the aorta

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95
Q

When do you use the scrotal approach in Castration?

A

Mature patients

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96
Q

What is the lateral patellar luxation signalment

A

Large breeds

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97
Q

What’s the common ‘medical treatment’ of dystocia?

A

Monitor calcium and glucose (supplement as needed) Oxytocin

98
Q

Describe the Tibial thrust test

A

Puts the limb in a normal weight bearing scneario

99
Q

What are most of the bacteria once sub-gingival plaque has “set in”?

A

Once there is presence of sub-gingival plauqe most Bacteria are:

Anaerobic

100
Q

Trixy (dog) is diagnosed with Inguinal cryptorchid. Surgical approach?

A

Skin and SQ tissue incised over the testicle

101
Q

How do people commonly treat liver fracture?

A

Conservative managment:

IV fluids

+/- Transfusion.

102
Q

What are the Indications for LIgature tecnique of the liver?

A

Should Only be used for left lateral and left medial liver lobectomies in small dogs and cats

103
Q

Where is the proper ligament located?

A

Urterine horn to caudal pole

104
Q

Describe Cholecystectomy

A

Ligate the cystic duct and cystic argery

Do not ligated/damage the common bile duct

105
Q

What is the indication of perineal castration?

A

Patient is already in perineal position

106
Q

What does furture distention of GDV cause in the dog?

A

Inital: Rotation along the mesenteric axis

Prolonged: Clockwise rotation of the stomach

107
Q

A cat comes into your clinic in labor. All the kittens come out fine but the last. Of corse the mom prolapses. You try manual reduction but it does not work. What is the next treatment??

A

OHE is indicated when manual reduction is not possible of uterine prolapse.

108
Q

What is the normal Sulcular debth in the dog?

A

< 3mm

Sulcular debth

109
Q

T/F You are not entering the abdominal cavity with open castration when you exteriorize the testicle

A

False: You are technically entering the abdominal cavity.

110
Q

What is the ‘colonic maneuver’?

A

Retraction of the colon medially –mesocolon will retract jejunum

111
Q

What is the external force applied to any cross sectional area?

A

Sterss: external force applied to any cross setional area

112
Q

What should you try before choledochotomy?

A

Attempt to flush stones back into gall bladder

113
Q

What is important to remember about Exteral tracheal ring implants?

A

Only good for the cergical regions

114
Q

What does TPLO surgery aim for?

A

Rotation of the proximal tibia to make the Force of weight bearing perpendicular to tibial axis.

115
Q

What are some complications seen commonly after PSS surgery?

A

Hyovolemic shock

hypothermia, weak pulses, Abdominal pain, Vomiting/Diarrhea, Seizures

116
Q

A dog walk in bright and alert; breeder presenting for failure to conceive. They have noticed vaginal discharge and drinking a lot. Top DDx?

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

117
Q

What’s the order of what to do for open fractures?

A

1) stablize patient 2) asses tissue damge 3) assess neurovascular status 4) imaging 5) clean wound, collect culture, start with Cefazolin

118
Q

Describe Grade II patellar luxation

A

Grade II: “In-Out” –Patella luxates with lateral pressure or on flexion of stifle, remains luxated until reduced manually or when animal extends –Spontaneous luxation and reduction occurs, with intermittent lameness

119
Q

Where is a common place to find osteophytes in joint injuries?

A

Patella and trochelar ridges

120
Q

T/F Crepitus confirms osteophyte

A

False: Crepitus can be caused by other factors mal-formed joints arthritis.

121
Q

When Do you see Ascites with PSS?

A

Secondary to portal hypertension

122
Q

Describe the prescrotal approach;

A

Routine elective castration Shave, prep, drape (testicles out of field) Stand on ‘wrong’ side advance testicle to prescrotal position Incise over testicle on midline (expose parietal vaginal tunic)

123
Q

what are the advantages to closed castration?

A

Decreased risk of scrotal hematoma Decreased postoperative swelling Slightly quicker

124
Q

Which is the ‘grade’ of the various repairs of the CCL rupture repair?

A

In order: Lateral suture

TPLO

TTA,

Tightrope

125
Q

How do you check the right pedicle?

A

Retract the duodenum

126
Q

Name the anatomical location of the Ovaries

A

–Ovaries are located at the caudal pole of the kidneys –Uterine horns are dorsolateral –Uterine body is located between urinary bladder and colon, adjacent to ureters.

127
Q

Where is the attachment of the CCL?

A

Caudomedial aspect of the lateral condyle Cranial intercondyloid area of the tibia

128
Q

Dog presents with Pain on flexion and supination of the Elbow. DDx?

A

MCD (medial compartment disease)

129
Q

T/F

Incongruities are always static

A

False;

The Radius shifts during weightbearing- Dynamic

130
Q

Dogs or Cats are more prone to honers syndrome from ear surgery?

A

True

Nerves run superficially in ventromedial area

131
Q

What needle type should you use on a hysterotomy?

A

Taper needle (Less traumatic)

132
Q

What is it important to do post-PSS surgery?

A

Recheck 4-8 weeks

Serum chimstry, Liver function tests

(BW values may never normalize)

133
Q

Describe high porosity;

A

High porosity:

Long elastic phase

Lower yeild point

134
Q

T/F

Prognosis of cats after Permanent tracheostomy is good.

A

False

Cats do not do well, either subcoming to original problem or developing a secondary with Laryngeal paralysis

135
Q

How do you treat a laceration of the Pinna that involves two skin surfaces and/or cartilage?

A

Must do a primary closure

Vertical mattress- deep bites align cartilage, superficial alligns skin

136
Q

Fidoa is brought back in because there is bleeding near her abdominal incision from an ovarinhysterectomy 12 days ago. Is this likely?

A

No; Commonly postoperative dehescience is within 7 days.

137
Q

What is special a bout the Multi-loblar-osteochondro-sarcoma?

A

It’s essentially a low grade malignant tumor in most cases

Occurs on flatbones-skull

&

Vertical rhamus of the mandible

138
Q

What side does the menisofemoral ligament reside on?

A

Lateral side only

139
Q

What surgical technique do we generally use with mandibular

A

Skin flaps and other techniques to alleviate tension

140
Q

What is caracteristic of a Grade 1 patellar luxation?

A

Grade I: –Patella can be manually luxated but spontaneously returns to normal position –Spontaneous luxation is rare –Flexion and extesion of the joint are normal

141
Q

What happens if you don’t perform the Bulla of the TEKA treatment?

A

Chronic discharge from the damaged epithelium

142
Q

What side does the meniscotibial ligament reside on?

A

Lateral and medial

143
Q

You diagnose cryptorchidisum. What is the surgical approach to rectify this?

A

Inguinal or Abdominal

144
Q

What kind of clamps do you use for a OHE?

A

Non-crushing (Doyen)

145
Q

Patients patella comes in luxated. You can manually reduce it but it reluxates spontaneously. What other signs do you expect to see and what grade of patellar luxation is this?

A

Grade III: “Out-In” –Medial displacement of quadriceps –Deformities of femur and tibia may be grossly apparent

146
Q

What is in the maxilary recess?

A

Lateral nasal gland; can be large and gelatinous

and

parotid duct

147
Q

What’s the gold standard for diagnosis Biliary Mucoceles?

A

Imaging;

mineralization, Hepatomegaly

Ultrasongraphy- enlarged gallbladder with immobile ecogenic bile, Striated or stellate pattern “Kiwi” sign. Pericholecystic hyperechoic fat or fluid may indicate rupture

148
Q

which is the most common type of luxation (hip)

A

Craniodorsal

149
Q

Larry (dog) has scrotal bruising. How do you treat?

A

Conservative management Cold then warm compress

150
Q

What is one hormone produced by the Ovary?

A

Progesterone- important in pyometra

151
Q

A cat is presented with 2.5cm margins from a SCC on it’s ear. Tx?

A

Total pinnectomy

>1-2 cm margins from visible lesion

152
Q

T/F

Cats

Adeomas > Adenocarcinomas

(which do they have more?)

A

True:

Cats have more ademonmas than Adeoncarcinomas

153
Q

Ortolani sign; what is it and what do we use it for

A

We used for DHD –hip subluxates when limb adducts –reduces when limb abducts

154
Q

Describe the location/function of the Round ligament

A

It is a remnant of the gubernaculum. –uterine horn to vaginal process –free border of laterla fold of mesometrium

155
Q

Where is the suspensory ligament located?

A

Cranial pole to body wall

156
Q

what is one important thing to remember on the closure of metritis?

A

Do no penetrate the mucosa

157
Q

Where does the right ovarian vein drain?

A

Vena cava

158
Q

How do you harvest skini graphs?

A

1)Dissect graft from donor site Deep to cutaneous trunci 2) remove cutaneous trunci muscle and superficial subcutaneous tissue prior to applying graft

159
Q

On an exploratory you notice a uterine neoplasia in Fifi (a poodle). What is a good assumption?

A

A good assumption would be to declare it a benign leiomyoma (90% of canines). Would not hurt to biopsy.

160
Q

What do you incise through for an open feline castration?

A

Parietal tunic

161
Q

Name some things that happen to the urine of an animal with a PSS.

A

Decreased USG

ammonium biurate crystals/calculi

Sediment consistent with UTI

162
Q

Fido is brought in for routine elective castration. Best surgical approach?

A

Pre-scrotal

163
Q

What should you make sure to do before cholecystectomy?

A

confirm patency prior to removing the gallbladder

164
Q

On Radiographs you notice what appears to be a neoplasia in Nala’s uterus. Prognosis?

A

Until you biopsy; Guarded Likely malignant/metastatic in cats.

165
Q

You see splenic torsion of the spleen when fixing a GDV. What do?

A

Splenectomy= splenic torsion

166
Q

Prognosis of Extrahepatic PSS?

A

Good-excellent 78-94% of patients

167
Q

T/F

Dogs usually present with something that leads to Cholangiocellular tumors.

A

False:

88% of cholangiocellular tumors are discovered at time of necropsy. Mostly intrahepatic

168
Q

What is an example of Extracapuslar stabilization?

A

Lateral suture, Lateral fabellotibial suture, “Extracap”, TightRope

169
Q

What are some symptoms seen on the physical exam of suspected pyometra?

A

Tachycardia, Tachypenea Vaginal discharge

170
Q

How do you check the left pedicle?

A

Retract the descending colon

171
Q

Do presents with enlarged Parotid/retropharngeal lymph nodes and painful temporomandibular joint. DDx?

A

Otitis Media

172
Q

Ovariectomy is only acceptable for what?

A

Cystic disease is the only acceptable time to use Ovariectomy

173
Q

Where does gastric necrosis normally occur ?

A

Greater curvature; Where most gastric necrosis

174
Q

T/F Closed castration has better prognosis that Open.

A

False; there is no data to support either.

175
Q

How many ligatures are placed on a closed castration?

A

two; commonly millers and transfixation

176
Q

which method is best to detect early Otitis media?

A

MRI

(don’t see radiographic changes till later)

177
Q

What are common surgical procedures to fix MPL and LPL?

A

Soft tissue reconstruction and Bone reconstruction/realignment

178
Q

When do multiple acquired porotosystemic shunts happen

A

Commonly secondary to portal hypertension

(macrovascular shunt ligation, chirrhosis, idiopathic, hepatic AV malformation)

179
Q

What diseases do you reduce with Castration?

A

Androgen-related diseases; Prostatic disease Perianal adenoma perineal hernia Testicular disease

180
Q

What are common congenital etiologies of MPL?

A

Medial displacement of tibial tuberosity Abnormal (shallow) trochelar groove Hypoplasia of medial condylar ridge

181
Q

What is a suggested order to open fracture stablization?

A

Assess tissue damage

Assess neurovascular status

Imaging

Clean wound, culture

Treat with Cefazolin

182
Q

What do we worry about with Oral melanomas specifically?

A

They metastasize early to regional lymph nodes and lungs early compared to other cancers

183
Q

What are two etiologies to Pyometra?

A

Pyometra: Hormonal- progesterone-> uterine secretions Bacterial: Gram neg (E.Coli

184
Q

Where do you make the circular incision for the Vertical ear canal resection?

A

at the level of the anhelix

185
Q

What osteotomy related complication can you see with TPLO?

A

Iatrogenic angular limb deformities; Complication of TPLO

186
Q

Signalment for Middle ear polyps

A

Younger

Felines

187
Q

A dog comes in with severe exposure of bone. What’s one method to speed granulation tissue formation over the exposed bone?

A

‘Forage’-ing –Drilling holes through near cortex into medullary cavity

188
Q

Cholecystectomy indications?

A

Necrotizing cholecystitis

Chronic cholecystitis

Biliary mucocele- thick biliary sludge

Cholelithiasis

Neoplasia

Trauma

189
Q

What is a draining tract assocaited with teeth?

A

Parulis- Draining tract associated with teeth

190
Q

Which veins are compressed with GDV?

A

Caudal vena cava

Portal vein

Splenic veins

191
Q

What is an Arthrogram?

A

Contrast injected into a join space in efforts to find disruption of structures; not used anymore because we have MRI

192
Q

What are some GI signs of PSS.

A

Hypermotlity of intestinal loops

pale/ashen discolration of intestines

increased mesenteric arterial puslation

Cyanosis of pancrease

193
Q

You open a dog that presents with GDV but you do not see the greater omentum. What does this mean?

A

The greater omentum will not be visible if it is a counterclockwise torsion.

194
Q

What kind of margins do you want to take with oral tumors?

A

1-2 cm

195
Q

Which is is more prone to having metastatic disease of the Ovaries? Cats/Dogs

A

Cats

196
Q

T/F Punch (seed) graphs are split thickness graphs

A

False Punch Graphs are full thickness

197
Q

T/F

Liver tumors are more common in the cat than in the dog.

A

False:

Liver tumors are more common in dogs than cats.

198
Q

Describe Cholangiocellular tumors

A

Mostly intrahepatic

High metastatic rate

Second most common primary malignancy of the liver in dogs

Most common primary hepatobiliar tumor in cats

199
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Uterine Torsion?

A

Tx: uterine torsion= OHE

200
Q

Describe the breakdown of the Broad ligament;

A

Broad ligament breakdown starts caudally and goes laterally away from the vessels

201
Q

What is the classification for long oblique. Length of fracture > 2.0 diameter of diaphysis

A
202
Q

What are the parts to Soft tissue reconstruction in MPL/LPL repair?

A

Medial release Lateral imbrication

203
Q

How do you medically treat PSS?

A

Lactulose (traps ammonia)

Reduced protein diet

Antibitics

intrahepatic PSS

204
Q

T/F

Squamous cell carcinomas of the pinna in the cat are highly/commonly metastatic

A

False

205
Q

A dog presents from an other non-skilled veterinarian with Otitis externa that ‘cannot be treated medically (with Rx)’. Your Tx?

A

TEKA

Total ear canal ablation with lateral bulla osteotomy

206
Q

Why do we not use the Lateral Ear canal resection much anymore?

A

Otitis externa does not limit itself to the external canal.

207
Q

What is recomended to do with a partial and total mandibulectomy?

A

Extend the closure of comisure

level of the second premolar

208
Q

What is this?

A

Copper colored Irises of a cat

Ascities, PSS

209
Q

What are two things to look for when choosing when to start grafting?

A

1) Granulation tissue; pink/glistening 2) Wound contacting and epithelial migration visible at wound margin

210
Q

What does osteotomy eliminate?

A

In CCL rupture treatment Eliminates tibial thrust (active) Does not eliminate cranial drawer (passive)

211
Q

When can you expect dogs to start eating again after complete mandibulaectomy?

A

1-2 days

212
Q

Name some things that can be seen with degenerative joint disease;

A

–Medial buttressing- fiberous tissue develops –Joint edema

213
Q

T/F OHE affects milk production

A

False: OHE does not affect milk production

214
Q

Dog presents with pan on extension of the fore limb (specifically at the elbow). DDx?

A

Un-united Anconeal process

Pain on extension of the elbow

215
Q

What bone reconstruction do you use for a Grade IV luxation?

A

Distal femoral osteotomy (DFO)

216
Q

What are emergency indications for the use of Temporary tracheostomy?

A

Brachycephalic airway disease

Laryngeal paralysis

Mass (treatable) cusing obstruction the upper airway

Oropharyngeal or laryngeal foreign body

&

Patients undergoing mechanical ventilation

217
Q

How do you close around the temporary tracheostomy?

A

Use umbilical tape to secure tube around neck

Remove obturator and replace with inner cannula

If incision is excessively long, partially close muscle, SQ and skin

218
Q

How do you replace a temporary tracheostomy?

A
  1. remove inner cannula and replace with new (clean with 0.05% chlorhexidine
  2. Pre-oxygenate for 3-5 min
  3. Suction trachea with sterile suction tip to level of carina (<10 sec) repeat 2-4x
  4. Clean skin around tracheostomy incision
  5. Replace tube every 24 horus
219
Q

Name some complications of Temporary tracheostomy;

A

Tube occlusion

Pneumomediastinum

Vagally mediated bradycardia and collapse

220
Q

You have successfully cleaned out a patient with Hemothorax. What should you place to allowed continued protection?

A

Thoracostomy tube

221
Q

T/F

Thoracostomy tubes are only used for egress drains

A

False:

Ingress or egress

222
Q

You have a patient that is constantly producing suppurative effusion into the thorax. What kind of tube should you use for Thoracostomy?

A

Wider tube for suppurative effusion in thoracostomy tubes

223
Q

FiFi is constantly leaking air into her thorax. What kind of tube should you use on thoracostomy?

A

Smaller tube

224
Q

How do you measure a thoracostomy tube?

A

Start; Dorsal 1/3r of thoracic wall at 7-9 IC space

End: Point of the elbow

225
Q

Where is the idea place for Thoracostomy tubes?

A

7-9 intercostal space

226
Q

When is it safe to remove thoracostomy tubes?

A

abscence of pneumothorax for 12-24 hours.

Fluid production down to 2 mls/kg/day

227
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Intrapericardial pressure is higher than end diastolic pressure.

(limited RV filling, Increased systemic venous pressure, Decrease in CO)

228
Q

What is Pulsus paradoxus?

A

Happens during Cardiac tamponade:

Exaggerated fall in arterial pressure with inspiration due to decreased left sided heart filling

Pulses feel weak to absent on inpiration.

229
Q

What should always be done during/after pericardiocentesis?

A

Fluid kept

230
Q

What are the landmarks for the Pericardiocentesis?

A

5-6 intercostal space- mid ventral

231
Q

PDS lenght?

A

4-6 months

232
Q
A
233
Q

What is the approach to Thoracic Duct Ligation?

A

Transdiaphragmatic

10th IC space- cat

Dog- 10th IC space

234
Q

Where do you ligate the Thoracic Duct?

A

As close to the diaphragm as possible

235
Q

What is the most common cause of Chylothorax?

A

Idiopathic

236
Q

What does the Diagnosis of Chylothorax normally look like?

A

Triglycerides of fluid > serum

Serium > Cholesterol of Fluids

Modified transudate, lymphocytic effusion

237
Q

what surgerys can help with a Chylothorax?

A

Thoracic duct Ligation

Cysterna Chyli ablation

+/- omentalization

+/- Pleuralport placment

238
Q

What’s the clamp time on the kidney? (how long to keep it occluded)

A

Not over 20 mins!!

239
Q

How do you close the kidney?

A

Suture less closure; Hold for 5 mins, forms a fibrin seal

Suture capsule closed

240
Q

What are the advantages to Pyelolithotomy?

A

Does not require occlusion of blood supply

Does not damage nephrons

RUSVM VZ (8 decks)

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