Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RUSVM VZ > SAM I- Final > Flashcards

SAM I- Final Flashcards

1
Q

Cat is prsents with upper respiratory disease with Punctuate/dendritic ulcers. . DDx?

A

Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dog presented for lamness and pneumonia, Has ulcers on his nose, tongue, hard palate. DDx?

A

Calici

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Kitty presents with Conjunctivitis and chemosis. Dx?

A

Chlamydophila felis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F Calici & chlamydophila can shed without distress

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You perscribe topical decongestants and supportive treatment(humidifier) to a herepes positive kitten. Why did the Senior vet laugh/be-disappointed-in-you and say the kitten will be back soon?

A

You did not prescribe systemic antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which nerve provides lifelong latency for herpes?

A

Trigemnial ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three main complications of recurrent Herpes?

A
  1. Chronic rhinitis/sinusitis (turbinate damage predisposes to secondary bacterial infections of the nasal cavity) 2. Chronic conjunctivitis 3 Fibrosis of the lacrimal ducts= epiphora
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kathy has a kitty with herpes. How do you make the kitty better?

A

Ocular: Topical antivrals Oral lysine Supportive- fluids, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

“But I gave my kitty a vaccination for Herpes” and you reply with “…

A

1) does not protect from infection 2) does not reduce severity Intranasal; only useful for outbreaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can comes with with ulcers around nose and tounge with pneuonia. “my other Vet vaccinated against Calici”. What’s the probable Dx?

A

Calici…. still High mutation rate, no cross protection from vaccines or strains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which is more common. FCV with Pneumonia or Herpes with Pneumonia?

A

FCV w/ pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should/can you look out for in an animal that has Calici?

A

GI signs Lameness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A kitten comes in with lamness and ulcers on his paws w/ sore joints. Dx?

A

FCV- Calici Limping kitten syndrome; one of the two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clients cat is diagnosed with FCV- VIrulent hemorrhagic systemic syndrome. What’s the prognosis? (mortality rate?)

A

40-60% mortality rate FCV- Virulent hemorrhagic systemic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What’s the difference in treatment between FCV and Herpes?

A

There is none; supportive, Interferon may be effective, Sequealae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cat walks in with Conjunctivits and chemosis. Dx?

A

FUCKING CHLAMYDOPHILA FELIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Kitty is congested with Upper respiratory signs. How do you treat?

A

Topical decongestants; Phenylephrine keep warm & hydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The new vet struts in to the break room after diagnosing her first case upper respiratory problems. “what was it?” everyone asks. Her answer “Bacterial rhinitis”. What causes the others vets insecurity and possible to call the patient back in?

A

Bacterial rhinitis is rarely a primary disease; dig for other possibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A long nosed dog presents with snot. Your physical exam reveals Nasal ulceration and depigmentation. What should be your next diagnostic step?

A

Imaging [nasal aspergillosis] Rhinoscopy white plaques Radiographs- not very helpful CT/MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Doggy diagnosed with Nasal Aspergillus; what du?

A

Debride Infuse; Clotrimazole, enilconazole Repeat if sings persist after 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Unilateral discharge in a dog. Plaque on rhinoscopy. Dx?

A

Aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cat has upper respiratory signs and you suspect Cryptococcosis. What is a reliable way to test?

A

Serum titer test is very reliable for Cryptococcus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you treat an Upper respiratory cat with cryptococcosis?

A

systemic Conazoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dog presents with sneeze and reverse sneezing. Dx?

A

Pneumonyssus caninum Parasitic; nasal mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A dog ‘Nosey’ presents with recurrent inflammatory rhinitis and reverse sneezing. A accompanying vet suggests a biopsy (histopathologcal diagnosis); what is she/he thinking?

A

Lymphoplasmacytic Rhinitis (LPR) (common in dogs with long noses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A dog is shown to have destruction of the nasal septum. Which DDx is thrown out?

A

LPR- does not usually cause damage to the nasal septum, frontal sinus, cribiform plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

On rhinoscopy of a dog you notice; Red, edematous mucosa, bleeds easily, turbinate atrophy and destruction. What do you need before you can make a Dx?

A

Radiography to ensure cruciform plate is enact Biopsy and histopathology Can differentiate between neoplasia and fungal rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you treat LPR?

A

Nothing proven can; nasal steroids, long term doxycycline (or azithromycin) with NSAIDS –flushes –maropitant (cerenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MoA of Cerenia

A

Blocks substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dog who has presented in the pass with nasal problems is brought in again, This time with dysphagia. On physical exam you notice one nostril does not have airflow. Dx?

A

Nasal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

“Doctor, My fluffy has been diagnosed with nasal carcinoma. How long does it have to live?”

A

Well my sultry minx. 12-16 months with debridment/radiation 3-6 without treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which tumors provide better survival times?

A

Adenocarcinomas and Sarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which tumors provide poor-er surival times?

A

Undifferentiated carcinomas and squamos cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who lives longer with radiation therapy? Dogs/cats

A

Cats- because fuck cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You find a neoplasia in the nose. It is most likely what? (malignant or non)

A

Most are Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which neoplasias are more common in cats?

A

Lymphomas and adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dog presents with Bronchitis, has presented with bronchopneumonia in the past and shows signs of a developing Respiratory tract infection. Top DDx?

A

PCD (Primary ciliary dyskinesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Kartageners syndrome?

A

Bronchiectasis, complete transposition of viscera (situs invertus) and CHRONIC RHINOSINUSISiTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

You suspect PCD, What is the most reliable way to confirm it?

A

Culturing ciliated cells from biopsy samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hey Doc, What type of disease is PCD?

A

Inherited autosomal recessive Ciliary dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dog presents with a non productive cough and retching/gaging. Top DDx?

A

Tracheal & Bronchial disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F Kennel cough is only associated with one organism

A

False: Kennel cough often includes secondary bacterial invaders Think: Viruses and bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

An owner is confident that FiFi doesn’t have to be checked in on because it’s been two days since the Kennel cough outbreak at the dog show. Why do you tell her she’s wrong? (in nice words of corse)

A

Kennel cough incubation time is 3-7 days. Tell her to look for Cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Do presents happy and alter with a dry-cough on tracheal palpation. Also has serous oculonasal discharge. Top DDx?

A

Uncomplicated Kennel Cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What to agents can lead Kennel cough to show sever signs?

A

Mycoplasma & Bordetella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What two agents can lead to kennel cough showing mild signs?

A

Parainfluenza and Canine adenovirus 2 (also Mycoplasma and bordetella but they are known for sever signs as well)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F Complicated Kennel cough will only show with lower airway symptoms

A

False: Complicated is both UPPER and LOWER problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What will you see on the work up for a Kennel Cough Dog; Hemogram-? thoracic rads-? PCR-?

A

Kennel Cough: Hemogram- Leukocytosis with left shift Thoracic rads- bronchopneumonia Positive PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Do presents with Complicated Kennel cough; How do you treat?

A

Gentamycin x2 weeks. NOT Penicillin Cough suppressants (if unproductive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A cat presents acutely with mucosal edema, excessive mucus production and neutrophilic inflammation and chronically with a cough. Dx?

A

Chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens in untreated feline astma?

A

Permanent changes- fibrosis and emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A dog is presented for bumping into things. IOP is 26. DDx?

A

Hypertension &; Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What topical anesthetic is used in the eye exam?

A

proparacaine- topical anesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A dog presents with 10 mm/min schirmer test. Is this abnormal?

A

Yes, it is under-production Dogs >15 mm/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A dog walks in with Glaucoma. What do you do?

A

You DON’T perform anything that needs mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where is the tapetum on the indirect examination?

A

It is reflected dorsally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cat presents with hyperemia and blepharospasm. This cat had also been to see another vet to have topical antibiotics for an eye ulceration. Dx?

A

cats have been shown to have hypersensitivity to topical tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T/F Exopthalmos has a different sized globe; hence why it moved out of the socket

A

False; Exopthalmos can have normal sized globe

59
Q

What is Exenteration?

A

Exenteration: Removal of globe and orbital contents

60
Q

What is Orbital cellulitis?

A

Generalized swelling of the Orbit

61
Q

The Vet you are working along side suggests Idiopatic inflammation (cellulitis) as the diagnosis of a cat that came in; what does she/he need to prove it?

A

Evidence that there are no other causes (puncture, foreign body, infectious) It is a rule-out diagnosis

62
Q

A great dane comes in with exopthalmos and a pain on the opening of his mouth during physical examination. Treatment?

A

He has Orbital cellulitis(or possible retrobulbar abscess) Topical & systemic antibiotics, Broad spectrum (pending culture), anti inflammatory

63
Q

Do presented with exopthalmos that can be retropulsed. Primary DDx?

A

Extraocular polymyositis –confirm with preservation of the temporalis and masticator muscles

64
Q

How do you treat Extraocular polymyositis?

A

Tx (extraocular polymyositis) Immunosuppressive corticosteroids (slow taper)

65
Q

5 year old Bassett hound with recent progressive eye swelling mild discomfort. What is a good ‘intro’ step after the ultrasound suggests a neoplasia?

A

Try to rule out neoplasm; Ultrasound guided biopsy.

66
Q

What is proptosis?

A

in ability for animals to close their eye.

67
Q

What is the prognosis of the eye in proptosis?

A

only 27% of proptosed canine eyes retained vision.

68
Q

What am I?

>2cm

A

Bulla

69
Q

What am I?

A

Macule

70
Q

What am I?

A

Pustule

71
Q

What am I?

A

Wheal

72
Q

What am I?

A

Plaque

73
Q

What am I and what preceeded me?

A

Epidermal collarette

pustules or vesicles can preceed me

74
Q

what am I?

A

Lichenification

75
Q

A canine presents for Neurologic KCS. How do you treat?

A

Pilocarpine PO

(or any parasympathomimetic)

and

Eyeways

76
Q

How do you treat KCS?

A

Stimulate tear production; Cyclosporine A/tacrolimus

Control secondary inflammation or infection

Lubrication/artifical tears

77
Q

T/F sclearl conjuctiva are movable

A

True

78
Q

You culture Gram positive cocci from a dogs conjunctival. Should you Freak/Treat?

A

If there is no problem; No, do not treat.

Gram positive cocci can be common commensal microflora of the conjunctiva.

79
Q

What is Blepharospasm?

A

Blepharospasm:

it’s a sign of pain seen in conjunctivits.

80
Q

What is ankyloblepharon?

A

Ankyloblepharon; fusion of the eyelids

81
Q

What is symblepharon?

A

Symblepharon;

Partial or Complete adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva of the eyelid to the bulbar conjunctiva of the eyeball.

82
Q

Which dogs are predisposed to congenital acinar hypoplasia? (KCS)

A

KCS

Yorkies and Chihuahuas

83
Q

What is descemet’s membrane?

A

Descemet’s membrane:

A thin basement layer of elastic collagen

84
Q

What are examples of Ulcerative keratitis?

A

Corneal ulcers

Superficial punctate keratitis

Bullous keratopathy

Corneal lacerations & foreign bodies

85
Q

What am I?

A

Non-healing Superficial ulcer (chronic)

chronic corneal epithelial defect, indolent ulcer, boxer ulcer

86
Q

What am I?

A

Deep Corneal ulcer:

See creater-like lesion of variable depth in cornera.

Includes descemetocele and melting ulcer

87
Q

What can happen if corneal laceration is deep?

A

Deep corneal laceration;

Exude aqueous humor

&

Iris prolapse

88
Q

If you suspect a Descement membrane disruption. How long is recovery?

A

A new descemet’s membrane takes several weeks.

89
Q

How long does it take to recover from Corenal surgery?

A

Corneal remodeling occurs over several months

90
Q

How does the Lens age?

A

Old fibers are compressed which increases nuclear density which alters ligh refraction eventually; pushed inward.

91
Q

What are 3 aquired Lense Disorders?

A

Acquired:

Nuclear/lenticular sclerosis

cataracts

Luxations

92
Q

T/F

Acute lens luxations are not painful

A

False;

Acute lens luxations are painful

93
Q

T/F

All Dogs have the same platlets

A

Cavleer’s have macrocytic platlets with lowered number

94
Q

How do you coun’t platelets with oil immersion?

A

Count the number of platelets in 10 oil immersion fields

Dog; Multiply by 1.5x10^9

Cats: multiply by 2x10^9

95
Q

What are the four ways platlets can be depleated?

A
  1. Production problem
  2. Platelet destruction
  3. Increased demand/consumption (acute hemorrhage, DIC/vasculitis)
  4. Sequestriation
96
Q

What can be the source of Marked thrombocytopenia?

A

INfectious

if not then—

neoplasia

if not then—

bonemarrow

97
Q

Hercules (dog) presents anemic. Normal RBCs but thrombocytopenia. Would a bone aspirate be helpful?

A

No, will always have other RBC type involvment if there are bone marrow problems.

98
Q

how quickly should you see a re-bound in platelets for IMTP and Erlichiosis?

A

3-5 days

99
Q

How much depletino of coagulation factors do you need before dysfunction?

A

90%

100
Q

What test do we use to gauge predispoistion to thromboembolisic events?

A

D-dimer test

Warning: not sensitive.

101
Q

What is important to consider the adiminstration of Vincristine?

A

Vincristine administration: Are the platlets actually functional

102
Q

What can you use to treat Von Willebrands disease?

A

Cryopricipitate- lasts 4 hours

Desmopressin- lasts 2 hours

103
Q

Dog presents with Caudal dorsum alopecia. DDx?

A

Flea allergy

104
Q

What is a likely DDx?

(elbow and ear alopecia)

A

Sarcoptic mange

105
Q

Doggy presents with Feet licking, chewing;

DDx?

A

“Rears and ears” = food alergy

Feet licking, chewing= atopy or food alergy

106
Q

T/F

Atopy is seasonal

A

Sorta trick question:

It can be both Seasonal and Non-seasonal

107
Q

What are the diseases we rate with Grade 10 puritis? (the worst)

A

Scabies

Flea allergy

Food allergy

108
Q

What are examples of Deep Pyodermas?

A

Folliculitis/Furunculosis

Lick granuloma (acral lick dermatitis)

109
Q

What are some examples of Superficial pyodermas?

A

Impeetigo (puppy pyoderma)

Superficial bacterial folliculits

110
Q

What is an example of Surface pyoderma?

A

Pyotraumatic dermatitis (hot spot)

111
Q

What kind of pyoderma is this?

A

Surface pyoderma:

Intertrigo

Hotspot/pyotraumatic dermatitis

112
Q

What am I?

A

Superifical pyoderma:

epidermal layer and/or hair follicles

Papules, pustules, epidermal collarettes crusts

113
Q

What layer is disrupted?

A

Dermal layer or subcutis plus follicles

Exudation of blood and/or pus, crusting, odor, ulceration, tract, fistula, swelling

114
Q

T/F

If You suspect surface pyoderma you should culture.

A

False:

If you suspect surface pyoderma

115
Q

What denotaes a partial response?

A

Decrease in tumor volume of >50%

116
Q

What denotaes a stable disease (oncology)?

A

Decrease of <50%

but

no increase >10%

117
Q

What is progressive disease?

A

>10% growth of the tumor

118
Q

What cell cycle phase are most rapidly dividing tumors at?

A

Go

119
Q

What is “Growth Fraction” and how do we use it?

A

It’s the ratio of G1/2:G0

The higher the growth fraction the greater the efficacy of chemotherapy.

120
Q

When do cytotoxic drugs work most effectively on tumors

(in respect to the tumor growth curve)?

A

Early on

121
Q

When are single drug protocols used?

A

If cell type is particularly sensitive (TVT, or CML)

In combination with surgery/radiotherapy to prevent metastases

122
Q

Name some Phase non-specific agents:

A

Alkylating agents

Anti-tumor antibiotics

Miscellaneous

123
Q

What are two things we need to keep drugs from doing in multi-drug regiments?

A

Drug toxicites should not overlap

Drugs should not INTERFERE with each other

124
Q

What’s the down side of CHOP?

A

It is a highly toxic Protocol

125
Q

What is the general outline for the treatment of Lymphoma (hemopoeitic tumors)?

A

Induction- intense treatment (risk of toxicity)

Consolidation: unrelated rugs to reduce surivial

Maintenance: prolongs relpase

Rescue: no longer in remission, use unrelated/alkylating drugs

126
Q

What is the progression (works best on -> works the least) of chemoteraphy reponsive tumors?

A

Best

Hemopoietic

Mast cell tumors

Solid carcinomas/sarcomas

worst

127
Q

When do seizures usuallyhappen with hypoglycemia?

A

BG <45-50 mg/dL

Seizures

128
Q

How do you treat hypoglycemia?

A

NOT DEXTROSE

Prednisalone

(Diazoxide if you have the money)

129
Q

What are the three causes of the most severe puritis?

A

Scabies

Flea allergy

Food allergy

130
Q

What layer does Pyotraumatic dermatitis effect?

A

Surface- pyotraumatic dermatitis

131
Q

What layer of the skin does Impetigo cause pyoderma?

A

Superficial - Impetigo

132
Q

What layer of the skin does Folliculitis/furunculosis cause pyoderma?

A

Deep- Folliculitis/ furunculosis

133
Q

What layer do Lick granulomas cause pyoderma?

A

Deep- Lick granuloma

134
Q

How do we diagnose pyoderma?

A

Pustules, papules, Crust

(presence of bacteria rules in pyoderma)

135
Q

Which topical is good against Pseudomonas?

A

Silver sulfadiazine

136
Q

Which topical can you use against MRSA?

A

Mupirocin

137
Q

What do you use for pyoderma with oily seborrhea or comedomes?

A

Benzoyl peroixde

138
Q

What do you use for pyoderma with dry seborrhea or normal skin/coat?

A

Chlorhexidine

139
Q

What level of antibiotics is Fluoroquinolones?

A

3rd Tier; LAST RESORT

140
Q

How long does simplicef work?

A

24hrs

141
Q

How lone does Convenia work?

A

1-2 weeks

142
Q

T/F

You have to place a cest tube with Diaphragmatic herniorrhaphy

A

False:

You do not need a chest tube for Diaphragmatic herniorraphy.

Can use a butterfly catheter with a 3-way-stop’

143
Q

What is this?

A

Peritoneopericardial Diaphragmatic Hernia

PPDH

RUSVM VZ (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions