SAM anesthesia test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Premedication
A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
B. Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia
C. Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia
D. Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia

A

A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia

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2
Q
Calming
A. Analgesia
B. Anxiolysis
C. Sedation
D. Anesthesia
A

C. Sedation

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3
Q
Reduction of fear
A. Analgesia
B. Anxiolysis
C. Sedation
D. Anesthesia
A

B. Anxiolysis

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4
Q
Pain relief
A. Analgesia
B. Anxiolysis
C. Sedation
D. Catalepsy
A

A. Analgesia

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5
Q
Catalepsy may be caused by
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Fentanyl
D. Xylazine
A

A. Ketamine

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6
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Superficial ‘sleeping’
B. Analgesia
C. Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

A

D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

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7
Q
Anesthesia types. Pick the fals answer
A. Local
B. Regional
C. Subtotal
D. General
A

C. Subtotal

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8
Q
General anesthesia criteria. Pick the fals answer
A. Inhalational
B. Hypnosis
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle relaxation
A

A. Inhalational

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9
Q

Balanced anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug
B. Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics
C. Pain may be controlled by analgesics
D. Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

A

A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug

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10
Q
Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Thalamocortical dissociation
B. Limbic depression
C. Peripheral analgesia
D. Alteration of consciousness
A

B. Limbic depression

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11
Q
Phenothiazines may cause lifethreatening hypotension in...
A. Dobermanns
B. Boxers
C. Staffordshire terrieres
D. Greyhounds
A

B. Boxers

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12
Q
Brachycephalic breeds need... Pick the fals answer
A. Preoxigenation
B. Short induction
C. Fast intubation
D. Early extubation
A

D. Early extubation

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13
Q
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in... Pick the fals answer
A. Australian shepherd
B. English shepherd
C. German shepherd
D. Pug
A

D. Pug

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14
Q
Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the fals answer
A. Mucous membranes
B. Capillary refill time
C. Spleen size
D. Pulse frequency and quality
A

C. Spleen size

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15
Q
Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the fals answer
A. Auscultation
B. Electrocardiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. Hearth muscle biopsy
A

D. Hearth muscle biopsy

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16
Q
Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam. Pick the fals answer
A. Parasitological examination of feces
B. White blood cell count and hematocrit
C. Total plasma protein
D. Urea, Crea and ALT
A

A. Parasitological examination of feces

17
Q
ASA 1. Pick the fals answer
A. Healthy state
B. Symptom-free state
C. Low anesthesia risk
D. Age: 0 day – 8 years
A

D. Age: 0 day – 8 years

18
Q
ASA 2. Pick the fals answer
A. Mild systemic disease
B. No apparent functional disorders
C. High anesthesia risk
D. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
A

C. High anesthesia risk

19
Q
ASA 3. Pick the fals answer
A. Severe systemic disease
B. Visible functional impairment
C. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
D. Not life-threatening status
A

C. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years

20
Q
ASA 4. Pick the fals answer
A. Severe systemic disease
B. Constant threat to life
C. Age: 0–3 days or over 10 years
D. Age: 6–16 years
A

D. Age: 6–16 years

21
Q

CEPOD classification. Pick the fals answer
A. I: immediate, life-saving intervention
B. II: urgent intervention
C. III: planned for near future
D. IV: no time for classification

A

D. IV: no time for classification

22
Q

Preanesthetic fasting. Pick the fals answer
A. Usually 6 hours
B. Less than 6 hours in very young patients
C. More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients

A

c. more than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs

23
Q
Advantages of premedication. Pick the fals answer
A. Decreases stress, fear and aggression
B. Lowers anesthetic demand
C. Decreases drug expenditure and costs
D. Increases the excitation phase
A

D. Increases the excitation phase

24
Q
Steps of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Premedication
B. Induction
C. Stadium analgesiae
D. Recovery
A

C. Stadium analgesiae

25
Q

Effects of premedication. Pick the fals answer
A. Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
B. Increases O2-demand
C. Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs
D. Eliminates excitation stage

A

B. Increases O2-demand

26
Q
Reasons of vein cannulation. Pick the fals answer
A. Drug administration
B. Fluid therapy
C. Emergency access
D. Monitoring core temperature
A

D. Monitoring core temperature

27
Q

Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the fals answer
A. Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects
B. Rapid onset of action
C. Long duration
D. Short duration or counteractable

A

C. Long duration

28
Q
Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Inhalational
D. Epidural
A

D. Epidural

29
Q
Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the fals answer
A. Control the depth of anesthesia
B. Patient monitoring
C. Reduce surgical time
D. Maintain homeostasis
A

C. Reduce surgical time

30
Q

Stages of narcosis (I-IV). Pick the fals answer
A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase
B. Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase
C. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

A

D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

31
Q
Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Unconsciousness
B. Lack of perception
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle rigidity
A

D. Muscle rigidity

32
Q

Atropine is used for treatment… Pick the fals answer
A. Bradycardia caused by opioids
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by 2-agonists (high BP)
C. AV- and SA-blocks
D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm

A

D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm