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Sam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university clinic as part of the complex treatment of heartworm?

a. Selamectin
b. Ivermectin
c. Moxidectin
d. Milbemycin oxime

A

c. Moxidectin

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2
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG?

a. /the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias
b. /The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrhythmia
c. / P-wave is always visible in front of QRS complex in supraventricular arrhythmias
d. / P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrhythmias before QRS complex

A

a. /the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

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3
Q

What modality is used in two dimensional real time imaging of cardiac structures?

a. B-mode
b. Color doppler
c. M-mode
d. Spectral doppler

A

c. M-mode

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4
Q

Which of the following is the main “shock organ” of the horse and the dog?

a. Liver
b. Lung
c. GI tract
d. Pancreas

A

c. GI tract

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5
Q

Not typical clinical sign in cats in case of so called riding thrombus:

a. Caudal limb paralysis
b. Loud vocalization
c. Dyspnoe
d. Loss of femoral pulse(s)

A

c. Dyspnoe

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6
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis?
/ Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
/ Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
/ Left ventricular dilation
/ Right ventricular dilation

A

/ Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

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7
Q

What is the most important compensation priority during heart failure?
Maintenance of systemic venous blood pressure
Maintenance of systemic arterial blood pressure in vital organs
Keeping systemic arterial blood pressure low in non-vital organs

A

Maintenance of systemic arterial blood pressure in vital organs

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8
Q

Reduction of ventricular afterload during heart failure

a. Always beneficial
b. Should only be used in mild heart failure
c. Should only be used in severe heart failure
d. Extremely risky

A

c. Should only be used in severe heart failure

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9
Q 
In which clinical category can ascites occur in canine heartworm disease?
During the 2. category
During the 3. category
During the 2. and 3. category 
During none of them
A

During the 3. category

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10
Q 
NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)? 
May cause thromboembolism
May cause sudden death
Often has long survival 
Causes right sided heart dilation
A

Causes right sided heart dilation

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11
Q

How can you determine the left atrial-aortic ratio (LA/AO) during the echocardiography?

a. Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view
b. Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view
c. Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in long axis view
d. Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

A

a. Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view ??
c. Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in long axis view ??

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12
Q

Classification of pimobendan:

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Ca-channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor
c. A bipyridine derivative
d. Ca-channel sensitizer and alpha-adrenergic blocker

A

b. Ca-channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

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13
Q

Which drug does not have a significant diuretic effect in small animals? a. Furosemide

b. Torasemide
c. Spironolactone
d. Hydroclorothiazide

A

c. Spironolactone

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14
Q

acemaker implantation is justified:

a. For the treatment of supraventricular tachycardias
b. For the treatment of ventricular tachycardias
c. For treatment of 3rd-degree AV block
d. For treatment of 1st- degree AV block

A

c. For treatment of 3rd-degree AV block

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15
Q

What is the most common cardiac disease in cats? a. ARVC

b. DCM
c. HCM
d. RCM

A

c. HCM

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16
Q

What medicine should be given to a dog with grad B2 mitral valve disease (MMVD)?

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Pimobendan
c. Furosemide
d. None of them

A

b. Pimobendan

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17
Q

Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer!
a. In a monopolar system, a large-surface return electrode must be placed on the
patient ́s body
b. In monopolar systems, if the contact surface between the return electrode and body
is small, burns may occur
c. Forceps-like bipolar systems do not require large-surface return electrode
d. The efficiency and patient safety of the monopolar system is better

A

d. The efficiency and patient safety of the monopolar system is better

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18
Q

What is the most reliable diagnostic method in pneumothorax

a. Radiography
b. Physical examination
c. Ultrasonography
d. Thoracoscopy

A

a. Radiography

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19
Q

Which of the following organs is the source of MDF release in shock?

a. Liver
b. Lung
c. GI tract
d. Pancreas

A

d. Pancreas

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20
Q

What medicine should be given to a dog with grade B1 mitral valve disease (MMVD)?

a. ACE inhibitor
b. Pimobendan
c. Furosemide
d. None of them

A

d. None of them

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21
Q

PDA means…

a. Abnormally directed Botallo ligament
b. Patency of the botallo duct
c. Abnormally directed aortic arch

A

b. Patency of the botallo duct

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22
Q

What is the goal of asepsis?

a. To prevent contamination
b. To reduce contamination
c. To allow contamination
d. All the above

A

a. To prevent contamination

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23
Q

The most common heart disease in cats:

a. Mitral endocardosis
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

A

b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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24
Q

Which is the wrong answer? Supraventricular arrhythmias are

a. Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilation)
b. Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g. pancreatitis)
c. Sometimes caused by fibrosis of the AV-node
d. Maybe caused by increased vagal tone

A

c. Sometimes caused by fibrosis of the AV-node

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25
Q

Suture types. Pick the false answer!

a. One or more tissue layer may be used according to the tissue type
b. For wound closure, “layer to layer”, inverting and relaxing techniques may be used
c. The pattern may be interrupted or continuous
d. Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be placed on the wound line

A

d. Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be placed on the wound line

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26
Q

The most common heart disease in dogs

a. Mitral endocardosis
b. Dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

A

a. Mitral endocardosis

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27
Q

Both digoxin, calcium channel blockers (e.g. diltiazem) and beta-blockers (e.g. atenolol):
a. Reduce the conduction velocity in the AV node
(decrease AV nodal conduction)
b. Increase the rate of conduction in the AV node
c. Reduce the contractility of the heart
d. Increase the contractility of the heart

A

a. Reduce the conduction velocity in the AV node

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28
Q

In which alteration is the dislocation of the cardiac dullness can be characteristic?

a. In lung edema
b. In lung fibrosis
c. For a space occupying mass within the thoracic cavity
d. In pleural effusion

A

d. In pleural effusion

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29
Q

How the heart will respond to increased preload?

a. Responds with eccentric hypertrophy
b. Reacts with concentric hypertrophy
c. Responds by decreasing the contractions
d. The heart cannot respond

A

a

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30
Q

An ECG is most appropriate (indicated if: (More than one correct answer is possible)

a. When the heart rate of a cat arrived for vaccination is 150 bpm
b. When a cat that had an accident has 200 bpm heart rate
c. When a cat with a body temperature of 40.8 C has a heart rate of 190 bpm*
d. When a cat that arrived for flea prevention has 120 bpm heart rate

A

A or D

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31
Q

Electrosurgery. pick the false answer!
a. The thermocauter is a metal device heated by fire
b. The electrocauter is a metal device heated by direct current
c. Electrosurgical devices are “cold”, they increase the temperature of treated tissue
applying for alternating current
d. All three methods allow controllable and safe surgical intervention

A

d. All three methods allow controllable and safe surgical intervention

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32
Q

Which step is incorrrect after ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia:

a. Blood test, abdominal ultrasound
b. cTroponin-I measurement
c. Administration of digoxin
d. Ehocardiography

A

c. Administration of digoxin

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33
Q

What is not typical of surgery of PDA?
Left sided 4th intercostal throacotomy
Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
High risk intraoperative complication
Circumcostal sutures for the colsure of the chest

A

Circumcostal sutures for the colsure of the chest

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34
Q

PRAA means…

a. abnormally directed Botallo ligament
b. Patency of the Botallo duct
c. Abnormally directed aortic arch
d. Abnormally directed subclavia artery

A

c. Abnormally directed aortic arch

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35
Q

Which is the wrong answer?… may play a role in the progression of heart failure:
a. Chronic activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and the sympathetic
nervous system
b. Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (down regulation)
c. The production of inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d. Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy
demands

A

b. Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (down regulation)

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36
Q

Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC?

a. Fibrinogen
b. D-dimer
c. APTT
d. FDP

A

a. Fibrinogen

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37
Q

Tying surgical knots. Pick the false answer! (more than one correct answer is possible?
a. In surgery at least two half-knots with opposite direction are considered to be a knot
b. Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for
multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening
c. Two-handed, one-handed and instrumental knotting may be performed
d. Instrumental knotting is safer for ligating large vessels and bundle of tissues

A

b. Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for
multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening

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38
Q

Can ultrasonography be applied for the diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia

a. Yes
b. no
c. Maybe d. Never

A

yes

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39
Q

hat is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

a. May cause thromboembolism
b. May cause sudden death
c. Often has long survival
d. Causes right sided heart dilation (it cause left sided heart failure)

A

d. Causes right sided heart dilation (it cause left sided heart failure)

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40
Q

Which statement is true regarding the antigen test result in canine heartworm disease?

a. Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animal
b. Strength of reaction is often related to the number of worms within the affected animal
c. Strength of re

A

a. Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animal

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41
Q

Which does not belong to the abnormal remodelling process of the heart?

a. Embryonic MHC receptors appearing on the cell membrane of myocardial fibers
b. Macroscopic transformation of the heart (dilation, hypertrophy)
c. Changes in the function of myocardial fibers (contractility, arrhythmias)
d. Changes in myocardial cell connections

A

d. Changes in myocardial cell connections

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42
Q

The most important medications to treat congestive heart failure

a. ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril)
b. Beta-receptor blockers (atenolol, cavediol)
c. Loop-diuretics (furosemide, torsemide)
d. Pimobendan, levosimedan

A

c. Loop-diuretics (furosemide, torsemide)

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43
Q

Which answer is wrong? Consequences of right sided heart failure

a. Pulmonary edema
b. Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
c. Congestive liver
d. Ascites

A

a. Pulmonary edema

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44
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a spaniel 3rd-degree AV block?

a. Determination of the potassium level
b. Administration of atropine
c. Administration of diltiazem
d. Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

A

b. Administration of atropine

C. Administration of diltiazem
=reversible cause of AV block

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45
Q

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure?

a. Because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia
b. Because in heart failure, reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
c. Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
d. Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the pre-load anyway

A

b. Because in heart failure, reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output

46
Q

Which answer is false?
a. During surgical scrubbing, the hand should be higher than the elbow
b. During autoclaving, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic
microbes may remain on the surface of the devices
c. Sterile devices in soaked packaging should not be used
d. In the operating room, the sterile person should not lower the hands below table
level

A

b. During autoclaving, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic
microbes may remain on the surface of the devices

47
Q

Which statement is not characteristic for the radiographic finding of pneumothorax

a. Elevation of the heart from the sternum
b. Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs
c. Compression of the lung lobes
d. Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

A

d. Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

48
Q

Which is the first compensation during heart failure

a. The renin - angiotensin - aldosterone system is activated
b. Processes that plasma volume are initiated
c. The peripheral blood vessels dilate
d. Heart rate increase

A

d. Heart rate increase

49
Q

Which solution of the mostly potentially alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis

a. NaCl solution
b. NaHCO3
c. Lactated Ringers d. Acetated Ringers

A

b. NaHCO3

50
Q

Which statement is true regarding feline heartworm disease

a. Cats are occasionally infected
b. Cats are often infected
c. Cats are never infected
d. None of the statements are true

A

a. Cats are occasionally infected

51
Q

Which answer is false?
a. During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
b. The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on
c. The open gloving method is used for minor interventions (e.g. catheterization)
d. When performing the open gloving method, the folded back inner surface of the
glove cuff can be touched with your bare hands

A

a. During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

52
Q

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning of surgery

a. Surgical gloves
b. Artery clamp
c. The skin of the patient
d. Gauze sponges

A

d. Gauze sponges

53
Q

Which is not one of the main indications for ECG in pets

a. Tachycardia, bradycardia
b. Monitoring surgical anaesthesia
c. Arrhythmia with pulse deficits
d. Heart murmur with weak pulse

A

d. Heart murmur with weak pulse

54
Q
  1. Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heartworm disease
    a. Pulmonary arteries
    b. Pulmonary veins
    c. Both can be altered
    d. None of them
A

a. Pulmonary arteries

55
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock

a. Methyl - prednisolone Na - succinate
b. Prednisolone Na - succinate
c. Dexamethasone
d. Corticosteroids

A

d. Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

56
Q

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion

a. In pleural effusion
b. During pneumonia
c. In pulmonary neoplastic diseases
d. During cardiac enlargement

A

a. In pleural effusion

57
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe PDA

a. Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c. Left ventricular dilatation
d. Right ventricular dilatation

A

c. Left ventricular dilatation

58
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of dilated cardiomyopathy

a. Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c. Left ventricular dilatation
d. Right ventricular dilatation

A

c. Left ventricular dilatation

59
Q

hich can be a congenital pericardial disease

a. PPDH
b. PHDP c. PHPD d. PDHP

A

a. PPDH

60
Q

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include:

a. Ventricular preload and afterload
b. Contractility, distensibility
c. Heart rate and synchronization of contractions
d. The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

A

d. The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

61
Q

What is not typical of the surgery of PRAA

a. Left sided 4th intercostal thoracotomy
b. Ligature and bisection of the Botallo duct
c. Extraluminal dilation of the stenotic oesophagus
d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

A

c. Extraluminal dilation of the stenotic oesophagus d. Circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

62
Q

The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of congestive heart failure

a. ACE inhibitor spironolactone
b. ACE inhibitor digoxin
c. Furosemide pimobendan
d. Furosemide spironolactone

A

c. Furosemide pimobendan

63
Q

n ECG exam is most appropriate (indicated) if:

a. When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm
b. When a dog that had an accident has 200 bpm heart rate
c. When a dog with a body temperature of 40.8 C has a heart rate of 180 bpm
d. When the heart rate of a dog arrived for microchip implantation is 160 bpm

A

a. When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

64
Q

Consequence of left heart failure

a. Pulmonary oedema
b. Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
c. Congestive liver
d. Ascites

A

a. Pulmonary oedema

65
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiography findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a. Thoracentesis
b. Abdominocentesis
c. Ultrasonography
d. Respiratory endoscopy

A

c. Ultrasonography

66
Q

whicg of the following is the main “shock organ” of the horse and the cat
Liver
Lung
Small intestines Pancreas

A

Lung

67
Q 
What is not needed to a standard echocardiographic examination 
Phased array transducer
Right lateral recumbency
Using standard planes
Linear transducer
A

Right lateral recumbency

68
Q

In which clinical category can hemoglobinuria occur during canine heartworm disease

a. During the 2. category
b. During the 3. category
c. During the 4. category
d. In none of them

A

c. During the 4. category

69
Q

Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in para - oesophageal (rolling) hiatal hernia?

a. Cardia
b. Fundus
c. Corpus
d. Antrum Pylori

A

b. Fundus

70
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease

a. Doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
b. Fenbendazole, doramectin, clopidogrel
c. Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
d. Doxycycline, milbemicin - oxim, melarsomine

A

c. Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine

71
Q

Which of the following types of shock SIRS is rated in

a. Hypovolemic
b. Cardiogenic/obstructive
c. Distributive
d. Hypoxic

A

d. Hypoxic

72
Q

Ventricular extrasystoles are

a. Caused by atrial disease ?(e.g.dilatation)
b. Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g.splenic tumor)
c. Always caused by heart failure
d. Caused by increased vagal tone

A

a. Caused by atrial disease ?(e.g.dilatation)

73
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias
a. They take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias
b. Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para - oesophageal
c. The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited
d. The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum
transversum

A

a. They take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias

74
Q

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?

a. Honey - like, viscous exudate during puncture
b. Thin, water - like fluid during puncture
c. Bloody fluid during puncture
d. None of them

A

a. Honey - like, viscous exudate during puncture

75
Q

Typical clinical findings in case of dog`is hemopericardium:

a. Strong pulse
b. Systolic heart murmur
c. Reddish mucosal membranes
d. Distant (muffled) heart sounds

A

d. Distant (muffled) heart sounds

76
Q

Which type of perineal hernia is the most common one in bitches? a. Lateral

b. Dorsal c. Ventral
d. Perineal hernia does not exist in bitches

A

d. Perineal hernia does not exist in bitches

77
Q

Which of the following abdominal organ does usually not dislocate in PPDH

a. Spleen
b. Greater omentum c. Liver
d. Small intestines

A

a. Spleen

78
Q

Which is the wrong answer? Supraventricular arrhythmias are

a. Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilatation)
b. Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g. pancreatitis)
c. Sometimes caused by the fibrosis of the AV - node
d. Maybe caused by increased vagal tone

A

c. Sometimes caused by the fibrosis of the AV - node

79
Q

hich of the following sign of the followings are characteristic of PRAA

a. Vomiting 30 min after feeding
b. Vomiting 1 - 2 hours after feeding
c. Vomiting 4 - 5 hours after feeding
d. Regurgitation

A

d. Regurgitation

80
Q

Lidocaine and mexitil may be used:

a. For the treatment of the silent atrium
b. For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
c. For the treatment of 3rd - degree AV block
d. For the treatment of junctional tachycardia

A

b. For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia

81
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia

a. To perform a vagus maneuver
b. Administration of atropine
c. Administration of diltiazem d. Echocardiography, blood test

A

b. Administration of atropine

82
Q

What is the wrong answer? If we increase cardiac preload a. It increases the strength of the cardiac contractions

b. It can cause congestion
c. The heart dilates
d. Heart performance will decrease

A

b. It can cause congestion

83
Q

What can not be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs

a. Chemodectoma
b. idiopathic inflammation
c. Thromboembolism
d. Coagulopathy

A

b. idiopathic inflammation

84
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)

a. Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c. Left ventricular dilatation
d. Right ventricular dilatation

A

c. Left ventricular dilatation

85
Q

hen does cardiac dullness occur during percussion of the thorax

a. Thoracic fluid accumulation
b. Pneumonia
c. Lung tumors
d. Enlargement of the heart

A

a. Thoracic fluid accumulation

86
Q

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography?

a. The MAP
b. The direction of flow
c. The pressure difference between the heart chambers
d. The character of flow (laminal or turbulent)

A

c. The pressure difference between the heart chambers

87
Q

What lesion are expected in severe endocardiosis

a. Left ventricular hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Left heart distension
d. Right heart distension

A

c. Left heart distension

88
Q

What lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy

a. Left ventricular hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Left heart distension
d. Right heart distension

A

c. Left heart distension

89
Q

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis?

a. Left ventricular hypertrophy
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Left heart distension
d. Right heart distension

A

a. Left ventricular hypertrophy

90
Q

After physical and auxiliary examinations we diagnose mitral endocardiosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in

a. AHA-A
b. AHA-B
c. AHA-C d. AHA-D

A

b. AHA-B

91
Q

Basic therapy for endocardiosis with typical symptoms present

a. Furosemide, potassium, pimobendan
b. Furosemide, spirinolactone, digoxin
c. ACE - I, bronchodilators
d. Furosemide, ACE – I

A

a. Furosemide, potassium, pimobendan

92
Q

Which congenital heart disease has a spesific continous “machinery” heart murmur as a symptom

a. Pulmonic stenosis
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Tetralogy of fallot
d. PDA

A

d. PDA

93
Q

he herniation/strangulation of which organ causes acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia

a. Small intestines
b. Large intestines
c. Uterus
d. Bladder

A

d. Bladder

94
Q

The most common color code meaning in color Doppler echocardiography:
Red: blood flow towards the transducer; blue: blood flow away from the transducer
Blue: blood flow towards the transducer; red: blood flow away from the transducer Blue: venous blood flow; red: arterial blood flow
Blue: decreasing speed blood flow; red: increasing speed blood flow.

A

Red: blood flow towards the transducer; blue: blood flow away from the transducer

95
Q

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs? Pulmonic stenosis
Ventricular septal defect
Fallot - tetralogy
PDA

A

PDA

96
Q

What diagnostic tests are needed for heartworm disease screening Only modified Knott test
Only antigen test
Both
Neither

A

Both

97
Q

What cannot be determined by color Doppler ultrasound The presence of blood flow
The direction of blood flow
The speed of blood flow
The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

A

The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

98
Q

Suture materials. Choose the incorrect answer
The size of the suture material is given either in metric unit (e.g. 1 - European Pharmacopoeia) or in USP unit (5 - 0, United States Pharmacopoeia)
Catgut is a natural resorbable suture material
Polyglycolic acid, polyglactin and polydioxanone are synthetic and absorbable Polyester, polyamide, and polypropylene are synthetic and non absorbable

A

The size of the suture material is given either in metric unit (e.g. 1 - European Pharmacopoeia) or in USP unit (5 - 0, United States Pharmacopoeia)

99
Q

How can you differentiate a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular on ECG
Ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
A supraventricular extrasystole is always normal width
The P - wave is always visible before QRS complex in supraventricular extrasystole The P - wave is never visible before the QRS

A

Ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

100
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe aortic stenosis
Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
Left ventricular dilatation
Right ventricular dilatation

A

Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy

101
Q

Which modality is used to measure linear chamber sizes and display their alteration as a function of time in echocardiography

Color Doppler
Pulsed wave Doppler
B-mode
M-mode

A

M-mode

102
Q

Which of the following drugs has no afterload reducing effect Amlodipine
Pimobendan
Digoxin
Hydralazine

A

Digoxin

103
Q 
hich answer is wrong? Consequence of left sided heart failure
Thoracic fluid accumulation in cats
Pulmonary oedema in dogs 
Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs 
Pulmonary oedema in cats
A

Thoracic fluid accumulation in cats

104
Q

Which answer is true
During surgical scrubbing, the number of germs in the skin of the forearm increases from the elbow to the fingertips
The back of the surgical gown is considered sterile after putting it on
If the surgical gloves tear, one must scrub in again
The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not on how hard you rub it.

A

The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not on how hard you rub it.

105
Q

hich step is not recommended when treating animals with refractory heart failure D)
Administration of Amlodipine
Administration of higher doses of pimobendan
Parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor
Parenteral administration of furosemide

A

Parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor

106
Q

Which color is typical of the compensatory stage of shock Pale
Cyanotic
Dirty red
Bright red

A

Bright red

107
Q 
Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in axial (sliding) hiatal hernia
Cardia
Fundus 
Corpus 
Antrum pylori
A

Cardia

108
Q

What kind of fluid can you find in the pericardium most commonly in dogs Blood
Exudatum
Transudatum
Chylus

A

Transudatum

109
Q

Basic surgical instruments. Pick the false answer!

a. Their function can be separating, gripping, exploring and merging
b. The scalpel is held with fingertips in the case of long straight incisions and pencil grip in the case of short, fine incisions
c. The Mayo - Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle

A

b. The scalpel is held with fingertips in the case of long straight incisions and pencil grip in the case of short, fine incisions

110
Q 
correction
Which surgical method is the most recommended for diaphragmatic hernia
a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy
A

a. Laparotomy

111
Q 
correction
Which surgical method is the most recommended for diaphragmatic hernia
a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy
A

a. Laparotomy

Small - final mcq (11 decks)

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