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Small - final mcq > Past 2020 - internal > Flashcards

Past 2020 - internal Flashcards

1
Q
  1. DIC. Therapy?
    a) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid
    b) Transfusion, vitamin-K, fluid therapy
    c) Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy
    d) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, pentoxifylline
    e) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, furosemide
A

c) Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy

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2
Q
  1. Portosystemic shunt. Diagnosis?
    a) Icterus, ascites, anorexia, vomiting, hepatomegaly
    b) Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural/digestive/urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia, increase bile acids (PPBA), doppler ultrasonography
    c) Ultrasonography, hepatomegaly, AST, ALT increased, biopsy
    d) Ascites, hypoproteinaemia, haematuria, ALT increased
A

b) Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural/digestive/urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia, increase bile acids (PPBA), doppler ultrasonography

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3
Q
  1. Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:
    a) Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
    b) Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
    c) Chronic liver disease, DIC, Raynaud’s syndrome
    d) Rodenticide poisoning, DIC, Harada’s disease
A

a) Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease

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4
Q
  1. Rodenticide poisoning: diagnostic tests:
    a) Clotting time 5-8 minutes, bleeding time 3-5 minutes, prothrombin time >20 minutes
    b) Clotting time >5 minutes, bleeding time < 5 minutes, prothrombin time <15 seconds
    c) Clotting time > 5 minutes, prothrombin time <5 seconds, APTT > 40 seconds
    d) Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds
A

d) Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds

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5
Q
  1. Megaoesphagus/cause/dog?
    a) Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction
    b) Taurine deficiency
    c) Food allergy or food intolerance
    d) Ethylene glycol toxicosis
A

a) Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction

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6
Q
  1. What treatment if not adequate for a dog that drank 3dl antifreeze 12 hours ago?
    a)D-penicillamine
    B)Haemodialysis
    C) 4-methylprazole
    D)Ethanol iv.
A

a)D-penicillamine

C. 4-methylprazole - from merckvetmanual

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7
Q

28) The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is?
a) <1.5
b) >1.5
c) <2.5
d) >2.5

A

d) >2.5

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8
Q
  1. What is the most common type of leukaemia in dogs?
    a) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
    b) Chronic small lymphocytic leukaemia
    c) Acute myelogenous leukaemia
    d) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia
A

a) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

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9
Q
  1. For what kind of purposes do we use the DAMNIT-V scheme?
    A) For differentiating between hydrocephalus and brain stem hypoplasia during the physical examinations of the neurological system
    B)For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases
    C) For grading the severity of the neurological lesions of the spinal cord during myelography
    D) For prognosis
A

B)For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases

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10
Q
  1. What is the 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders?
    a) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are inflammatory processes
    b) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are necrotic
    c) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are hematoma
    d) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes
A

d) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes

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11
Q
  1. If a dog is azotaemia, then? (choose the right answer)
    a) The ammonia level is increased in its blood
    b) The 1⁄2 of its nephrons has been destroyed in their kidneys
    c) It may have been dehydrated
    d) It has urethral obstruction
A

a) The ammonia level is increased in its blood

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12
Q
  1. Tetanus/Dog/Which statement is not true?
    a) Tetanus can be diagnosed simply based on the history and clinical signs
    b) Saw-horses posture is characteristic for the disease
    c) Diazepam can be administered as sedative agent both intravenously and rectally
    d) Partial tetanus is more common than the generalised form
A

d) Partial tetanus is more common than the generalised form

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13
Q
  1. Aujeszky-disease (pseudorabies)/swine/which statement is true?
    a) Adults: neurological deficits are common (tic, ataxia, convulsion), respiratory symptoms are rare and mild
    b) Piglets: only respiratory symptoms but often fatal haemorrhagic pneumonia
    c) Adults: neurological deficits are rare (tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms
    d) Adults: neurological deficits are common (tic, ataxia, convulsions), severe respiratory symptoms
A

c) Adults: neurological deficits are rare (tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms

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14
Q
  1. The suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supported by? Which answer is wrong from the list below?
    a) The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment
    b) The detection of ethylene-glycol in blood
    c) Detection of ethylene-glycol in blood
    d) The observation of marked halo-signs in the kidneys during ultrasonography
A

a) The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment

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15
Q
  1. Prevention of epileptic seizures/medication/dog?
    a) Diazepam, dexamethasone, phenytoin
    b) Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide
    c) Nitrazepam, progabide, phenobarbital
A

b) Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide

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16
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be seen in the picture?
    a) Cervical vertebral instability
    b) Vertebral fracture
    c) Cervical static stenosis
    d) Osteoporosis
A

c) Cervical static stenosis

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17
Q
  1. Ethmoid hematoma/cause?
    a) Traumatic injury of the ethmoid region (e.g. nasogastric tubing)
    b) Secondary to hemostatic problems
    c) Angiomatous tissue overgrowth
    d) Neoplastic origin
A

c) Angiomatous tissue overgrowth

18
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true/PSS/dog?
    a) The symptoms of portosystemic shunt can worsen after feeding of protein rich food (meat)
    b) The postprandial bile acid level of the blood is higher than normal in portosystemic shunts
    c) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs
    d) In congenital portosystemic shunt the nervous symptoms are episodic
A

c) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs

19
Q
  1. Rabies vs. Aujeszky’s disease/differences in symptoms/dog and cat?
    a) Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky’s disease, attacking behaviour is common in rabies
    b) Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis are common in Aujeszky’s diseases, paresthesia is common in rabies
    c) Dysphagia do not occur in Aujeszky’s diseases, only in rabies, Lung oedema is characteristic in Aujesky’s disease
    d) Rabies does not occur in cats, only Aujeszky occurs in cats
A

a) Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky’s disease, attacking behaviour is common in rabies

20
Q
  1. Neurophysiologic background of botulism?
    a) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited released of GABA at the presynaptic motor nerve endings
    b) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor nerve endings
    c) General muscular paralysis due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor nerve endings
    d) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of GABA at the postsynaptic motor nerve endings
A

b) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor nerve endings

21
Q
  1. Tetanus/aetiology, pathogenesis/dog?
    a) Clostridium tetani infection - encephalitis - spastic paralysis
    b) Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection - tetanospasmin-formation
    - GABA and
    glicin inhibition
    c) Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin - neuromuscular paralytic effect
    d) Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin - GABA and glicin activation
A

b) Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection à tetanospasmin-formation à GABA and
glicin inhibition

22
Q
  1. Causes of anaemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct?
    a) Lack of erythropoietin
    b) Gastrointestinal bleeding/ulcers
    c) Deceased survival of red blood cells
    d) Haemolysis
A

d) Haemolysis

23
Q
  1. D-vitamin toxicity – which of the below statements is FALSE?
    a) In dogs it is more frequent, because cats have higher tolerance to vitamin D
    b) Chronic vit. D toxicity causes transient hypercalcaemia, soft tissue calcification,
    mineralisation of long bones
    c) Acute D-vit, toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform
    seizures
    d) Useful in D vit tox, treatment: charcoal, IV fluid therapy, sucralphate, prednisolone, furosemide
A

d) Useful in D vit tox, treatment: charcoal, IV fluid therapy, sucralphate, prednisolone, furosemide

24
Q
  1. Lissencephaly (lyssencephalon)/Definition?
    a) Complication of hydrocephalus
    b) Congenital under-development (lack of development) of the sulci and gyri of the cortex
    c) One type of metabolic storage disorders of the brain
    d) Histopathological alteration of the brain as a sequel of rabies (lyssa)
A

b) Congenital under-development (lack of development) of the sulci and gyri of the cortex

25
Q
  1. Laryngeal paralysis dog/infectious origin?
    a) Rabies, Aujeszky’s disease, botulism
    b) Canine distemper, botulism, leptospirosis
    c) Leptospirosis, listeriosis, lyssa
    d) Botulism, rabies, parvovirus
A

a) Rabies, Aujeszky’s disease, botulism

26
Q
  1. Feline viral leukaemia/aetiology?
    a) Pathogen: Lentivirus, Oncoviridae family (FeLV), infection by inhalation in indoor cats, living together
    b) Pathogen: oncovirus (FIV), infection via faeces, in old male cats
    c) Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family (FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasa;l secretions, in outdoor cats
    d) Pathogen: retrovirus, Caliciviridae family (FeLV), infection: via urine, faeces
A

c) Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family (FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasa;l secretions, in outdoor cats

27
Q
  1. Which statement if NOT true?
    a) Antiepileptic therapy could cause elevated ALP, ALT and GGT level in dog
    b) The potentiated sulphonamide therapy can cause a destructive cholangitis in dog
    c) The glucocorticoid therapy always lead an irreversible necrosis in the liver
    d) The antidote of the acetaminophen toxicosis is the N-acetylcystine
A

c) The glucocorticoid therapy always lead an irreversible necrosis in the liver

28
Q

.

A

.

29
Q
  1. Severe thrombocytopenia: causes?
    a) AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
    b) AITP, babesiosis, EPO, Leydig-cell tumour
    c) Ehrlichiosis, Addison’s disease, DDIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
    d) Ehrlichiosis, Addison’s disease, DIC, FeLV
A

a) AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour

30
Q
  1. Rodenticide poisoning: causes and pathogenesis?
    a) Dicoumarol types rodenticidesliver dysfunctionvitamin K synthesis decreases bleeding tendency
    b) Dicoumarol type rodenticidesvitamin-K absorption decreasesclotting time increases bleeding tendency
    c) Dicoumarol type rodenticides vitamin-K antagonism clotting time increases bleeding tendency
    d) Dicoumarol type rodenticidesfactor-K antagonismclotting time increasesbleeding tendency
A

c) Dicoumarol type rodenticides vitamin-K antagonism clotting time increases bleeding tendency

31
Q
  1. D vitamin toxicity – which of the below statements is FALSE?
    a) In dogs it is more frequent, because cats have higher tolerance to vitamin D
    b) Chronic vit D toxicity causes transient hypercalcaemia, soft tissue calcification,
    mineralisation of long bones
    c) Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures
    d) Useful in D vit toxicosis, treatment: charcoal, IV fluid therapy, sucralphate, prednisolone, furosemide
A

c) Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures

32
Q
  1. Feature of von-Willebrand’s disease:
    a) Prolonged surgical bleeding
    b) Severe thrombopenia
    c) Spontaneous bleeding is common
    d) Dalmatians are predisposed
A

a) Prolonged surgical bleeding

33
Q
  1. What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?
    a) Elevated packed cell volume due to dehydration
    b) Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume
    c) Elevated packed cell volume due to splenic contraction
    d) Elevated packed cell volume due to low oxygen tension
A

b) Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume

34
Q

-

A

:) keep up the good work

35
Q

Rabies/incubation period?

a) Usually 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected
b) Symptoms start 3-10 days after infection
c) Incubation period is very short, symptoms start 1-2 days after infection
d) Usually 2-4 months, but can be longer if the hind limbs of the patient had been bitten

A

a) Usually 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected

36
Q
  1. Cause of paralytic ileus?
    a) Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (postoperative stage)
    b) Tetanus, botulism, enterotoxicosis, herpes
    c) Stress, organic phosphorous ester toxicosis
    d) Intestinal intussusception, chantaridin toxicosis
A

a) Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (postoperative stage)

37
Q
  1. Tetanus/aetiology, pathogenesis/dog?
    a) Clostridium tetani infectionencephalitisspastic paralysis
    b) Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection tetanospasmin-formation GABA and
    glicin inhibition
    c) Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin neuromuscular paralytic effect
    d) Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin GABA and glicin activation
A

b) Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection tetanospasmin-formation GABA and
glicin inhibition

38
Q
  1. Lissencephaly (lyssencephalon)/Definition?
    a) Complication of hydrocephalus
    b) Congenital under-development (lack of development) of the sulci and gyri of the cortex
    c) One type of metabolic storage disorders of the brain
    d) Histopathological alteration of the brain as a sequel of rabies (lyssa)
A

b) Congenital under-development (lack of development) of the sulci and gyri of the cortex

39
Q
  1. Physiologic coagulation time (in glass tube) in dogs?
    a) Less than 5-10 minutes
    b) Less than 10-15 minutes
    c) Less than 15-20 minutes
    d) Less than 2-5 minutes
A

d) Less than 2-5 minutes

40
Q

.

A

.

41
Q
  1. For what disease is this posture characteristic?
    a) Encephalomyelitis caused by canine
    b) Tetanus
    c) Botulism
    d) Hydrocephalus with brain stem
A

b) Tetanus

42
Q

The approx. upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and cat is?

a) 1.2 mmol/l
b) 3.5 mmol/l
c) 2.0 mmol/l
d) 0.8 mmol/l

A

c) 2.0 mmol/l

Small - final mcq (11 decks)

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