S7 Understanding Arrhythmias and the Action of Drugs on CVS Flashcards

1
Q

What can cause tachycardia?

A
  • ectopic pacemaker activity
  • after depolarisations
  • atrial flutter
  • re-entry loops
  • sinus tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can cause bradycardia?

A
  • sinus bradycardia

* conduction block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the abnormalities in heart rate/rhythm (arrhythmias)?

A
  • bradycardia
  • atrial flutter
  • atrial fibrillation
  • tachycardia (supraventricular/ventricular)
  • ventricular fibrillation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are cardiovascular drugs used to treat?

A
  • arrhythmias
  • heart failure
  • angina
  • hypertension
  • risk of thrombus formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When are delayed after-depolarisations more likely to happen?

A

More likely to happen if intracellular Ca2+ is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are delayed after-depolarisations depolarisations?

A

Abnormal depolarisations that occur before the next depolarisation should occur (if they reach threshold, it triggers an earlier action potential) causes ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are early after-depolarisations? What can it lead to?

A

Abnormal depolarisation leads to production of an action potential before repolarisation is complete

Can lead to oscillations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When are early after-depolarisations likely to happen? When does someone have this?

A

More likely to happen is the action potential is prolonged

If they have a longer QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is re-entry?

A

When a propagating impulse fails to die out after normal activation of the heart so it persists to re-excite the heart after the refractory period has needed - leads to arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What normally happens to the impulses in the spread of excitation?

A

Reach a point where they cancel out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens if there is incomplete conduction damage?

A

Excitation can take a long route to spread the wrong way through the damaged area, setting up a circuit of excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a re-entrant mechanism arise from in the AV node?

A

The slow and fast pathways in the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can re-entrant circuits lead to atrial fibrillation?

A

You can get multiple small re-entry loops in the atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does ventricular pre-excitation occur? What is this syndrome called?

A

An accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles creates a re-entry loop

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A
  1. Drugs that block voltage-sensitive sodium channels
  2. Antagonists of beta-adrenoreceptors
  3. Drugs that block potassium channels
  4. Drugs that block calcium channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an example of a drug that blocks voltage-dependent Na+ channels (class I)? How does it work?

A

Lidocaine (anaesthetic)

Blocks voltage-gates Na+ channels in the open/inactivated states so blocks damaged depolarised tissue and has little effect in normal cardiac tissue due to it’s quick dissociation (in time for next AP in normal tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is lidocaine used following a MI? How is it given?

A

If the patient has ventricular tachycardia

Intravenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does lidocaine prevent?

A

Prevents automatic firing of depolarised ventricular tissue (damaged) by blocking Na+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some examples of beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists (class II)?

A

Propranolol
Atenolol

(Both are beta blockers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do beta-adrenoreceptors do?

A

Blocks sympathetic action by acting on beta-1 adrenoreceptors and decreases the slope of the pacemaker potential in the SA node and slows conduction at the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can beta-blockers be used for?

A
  • prevents supraventricular tachycardia by slowing conduction in the AV node so slows the ventricular rate of patients with atrial fibrillation
  • used after myocardial infarction
  • reduces the oxygen demand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do drugs that block K+ channels (class III) do?

A

They prolong the action potential by blocking K+ channels and hence lengthen the absolute refractory period to prevent another AP from occurring too soon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the disadvantage of drugs that block K+ channels?

A

They produce a prolonged QT interval which is pro-arrhythmic rather than anti-arrhythmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the K+ channel blocker drug that is used? What is is usually used to treat?

A

Amiodarone (has other actions as well as blocking K+ channels)

Treat tachycardia associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (re-entry lop due to extra conduction pathway) and effective for suppressing ventricular arrhythmias post MI

25
Q

What are some drugs that can block Ca2+ channels in the heart?

A

Non-dihydropyridine types: verapamil and dilitiazem

26
Q

What do non-dihydropyridine type Ca2+ channel blockers do?

A
  • decrease the slope of the AP at the SA node
  • decrease AV nodal conduction
  • decrease force of contraction (negative inotropy)
27
Q

Where do dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers act?

A

Act on vascular smooth muscle

28
Q

How is adenosine produced usually?

A

Produced endogenously at physiological levels but can be administered intravenously

29
Q

What does adenosine act on?

A

Alpha-1 receptors at the AV node (but have a short half life)

30
Q

What does adenosine do?

A
  • enhances K+ conductance (hyperpolarises cells of conducting tissue)
  • anti-arrhythmic - terminates re-entrant supraventricular tachycardias
31
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do?

A
  • inhibit action of angiotensin converting enzyme
  • prevents conversion of angiotension I into angiotensin II
  • involved in treatment of hypertension and heart failure
32
Q

What is a disadvantage of ACEi?

A

Can cause a dry cough due to excess bradykinin (ACE breaks down bradykinin)

33
Q

What is the advantage of inhibitor production of angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensin II increases reabsorption of Na+ and water in kidneys meaning an increase in blood volume and lead to vasoconstriction.

So inhibiting this means less reabsorption so decreased blood volume and increased vasodilation.

34
Q

What is the benefit on the heart of decreasing blood pressure (deceasing vasomotor tone) and blood volume (decreasing fluid retention)?

A
  • blood pressure - reduces afterload of the heart
  • blood volume - reduces preload of the heart

Both of these reduce the work load of the heart

35
Q

What type of drug has similar affects of ACEi? When are these used?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) e.g. losartan

Used if a patient can’t tolerate ACEi due too the dry cough

36
Q

What heart issues are diuretics used to treat?

A

Treat heart failure and hypertension

Loop diuretics are useful in congestive heart failure (fluid building up around the heart) - increase loss of Na+ and water from the kidneys

37
Q

What is the advantage of vascular smooth muscle Ca2+ channel blockers in heart problems?

A
  • decrease peripheral resistance
  • decrease arterial blood pressure

So reduce workload of heart by reducing afterload

38
Q

What do positive inotropes do?

A

Increased contractility and cardiac output

39
Q

What are the two types of positive inotropes?

A
  • cardiac glycosides

* beta-adrenergic agonists

40
Q

What is a type of cardiac glycoside?

A

Digoxin

41
Q

What do cardiac glycosides block?

A

Na+/K+ ATPase

42
Q

How do cardiac glycosides work to increase contractility?

A
  1. Na+/K+ ATPase is blocked by cardiac glycosides
  2. Leads to a rise in intracellular Na+ conc.
  3. This rise leads to decreased activity of the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger
  4. So increase in intracellular Ca2+ conc. (more Ca2+ is stored in SR)
  5. This leads to an increased force of contraction
43
Q

What is the action of cardiac glycosides on heart rate? When can they be used in heart failure?

A
  1. Increases vagal activity (via CNS)
  2. This slows the AV conduction
  3. Which slows heart rate

If there is an arrhythmia like atrial fibrillation

44
Q

What is an example of a beta-adrenoceptor agonist? What does it stimulate?

A

Dobutamine (a selective beta-1 adrenoceptor agonist)

Stimulates beta-1 receptors at the SA node, AV node and ventricular myocytes

45
Q

When are beta-adrenoceptors used?

A
  • cardiogenic shock

* acute but reversible heart failure e.g. after cardiac surgery

46
Q

Why would you not use cardiac glycosides as a long term treatment for heart failure?

A

It makes the heart conduct faster, but this isn’t good in the long run

47
Q

When does angina occur?

A

When oxygen supply to the heart doesn’t meet it’s need - results in pain with exertion and ischaemia of heart tissue (chest pain)

48
Q

How can you treat angina?

A

With organic nitrates

49
Q

What is the effect of NO on veins? Why do they act preferentially on veins?

A

Vasodilation of veins (venodilation)

Because there is less endogenous nitric oxide in veins?

50
Q

How does NO cause vasodilation of veins?

A
  1. NO activates guanylate cyclase
  2. This leads to an increase in cGMP
  3. This lowers the intracellular Ca2+ conc
  4. And so causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
51
Q

How does dilation of smooth muscle vasculature help alleviate angina symptoms?

A
  • venodilation lowers preload so workload of heart is decreased so heart fills less so reduced force of contraction (Starling’s Law) and so oxygen demand of heart is lowered
  • action of coronary collateral arteries improves oxygen delivery to ischaemic myocardium
52
Q

Why don’t organic nitrates work by dilating arterioles?

A

Because in the ischaemic region, the arterioles are already fully dilated and if you increase the dilation of the normal arterioles will have a negative impact

53
Q

What types of drugs do you use to treat angina by reducing the workload of the heart?

A
  • organic nitrates (venodilation)
  • beta-adrenoreceptor blockers
  • Ca2+ channel antagonists
54
Q

What types of drugs do you use to treat angina by improving the blood supply to the heart?

A
  • Ca2+ crabbed antagonists

* minor effect of organic nitrates

55
Q

Which heart conditions carry an increased risk of thrombus formation?

A
  • atrial fibrillation
  • acute myocardial infarction
  • mechanical prosthetic heart valves
56
Q

What are the two types of antithrombotic drugs?

A
  • anticoagulants

* antiplatelet drugs

57
Q

What is a type of antiplatelet drug?

A

Aspirin

58
Q

What anticoagulants prevent venous thromboembolism?

A
  • heparin (via IV)
  • fractionated heparin (subcutaneous injection)
  • warfarin (orally)