S2_L4: Cerebral Palsy

Question 1

Little’s disease pertains to what specific type of Cerebral palsy?

Answer 1

Spastic diplegic cerebral palsy

Question 2

Youth are transported in a manual wheelchair in all settings.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 2

E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Question 3

Self-mobility is severely limited, even with the use of assistive technology.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 3

E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Question 4

Youth are limited in their ability to maintain antigravity head and trunk postures and control leg and arm movements.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 4

E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Question 5

Youth use wheeled mobility in most settings.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 5

D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV

Question 6

Physical assistance of 1-2 people is required for transfers.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 6

D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV

Question 7

Indoors, youth may walk short distances with physical assistance, use wheeled mobility or a body support walker when positioned. They may operate a powered chair, otherwise are transported in a manual wheelchair.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 7

D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV

Question 8

Youth are capable of walking using a hand-held mobility device.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 8

C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III

Question 9

Youth may climb stairs holding onto a railing with supervision or assistance.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 9

C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III

Question 10

At school, they may self-propel a manual wheelchair or use powered mobility. Outdoors and in the community, youth are transported in a wheelchair or use powered mobility.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 10

C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III

Question 11

Youth walk in most settings but environmental factors and personal choice influence mobility choices.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 11

B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II

Question 12

At school or work, they may require a hand-held mobility device for safety and climb stairs holding onto a railing. Outdoors and in the community, youth may use wheeled mobility when traveling long distances.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 12

B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II

Question 13

They perform gross motor skills such as running and jumping but speed, balance, and coordination are limited.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 13

A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I

Question 14

Youth walk at home, school, outdoors, and in the community. Youth are able to climb curbs and stairs without physical assistance or a railing.
A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I
B. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level II
C. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level III
D. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level IV
E. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level V

Answer 14

A. Gross Motor Functional Classification Level I

Question 15

Most common type of cerebral palsy

Answer 15

Spastic cerebral palsy

Question 16

2nd most common type of cerebral palsy

Answer 16

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy

Question 17

Syndrome of early hypotonia, developmental delay, hypogonadism, small hands and feet, and normal length.
A. Prader Willi Syndrome
B. Sotos Syndrome
C. Werdnig Hoffman Disease
D. Congenital Muscular Dystrophy

Answer 17

A. Prader Willi Syndrome

Question 17

Syndrome of early hypotonia, developmental delay, large birth weight, macrosomia, megacephaly, and large hands and feet.
A. Prader Willi Syndrome
B. Sotos Syndrome
C. Werdnig Hoffman Disease
D. Congenital Muscular Dystrophy

Answer 17

B. Sotos Syndrome

Question 18

Also known as acute spinal muscular atrophy
A. Prader Willi Syndrome
B. Sotos Syndrome
C. Werdnig Hoffman Disease
D. Congenital Muscular Dystrophy

Answer 18

C. Werdnig Hoffman Disease

Question 19

Enumerate the 3 management that can be done to treat scoliosis in patients with cerebral palsy

Answer 19

1. Surgery
2. Bracing
3. Positioning

Question 20

Most common site of pressure sores in children with cerebral palsy

Answer 20

Occiput

-Because the head is the heaviest part

Question 21

Most common site of pressure sores in adolescents with cerebral palsy

Answer 21

Sacrum

Additional: In adults, common site for pressure sores is the sacral area or the ischial tuberosity. In side-lying, the shoulder or trochanters are prone to sores.

Question 22

Maintenance of sitting by (1)___ years and suppression of obligatory infantile reflexes by (2)___ months are good prognostic indicators of eventual walking (Molnar, p.203).

Answer 22

1. 2
2. 18

Note: However, they will still present with deficits

Question 23

TRUE OR FALSE: It is generally assumed that if a child is not sitting up by himself by age of 4 or walking by age 8, he will never be an independent walker.

Answer 23

True

The goal then will be the use of wheelchairs

Question 24

A child who starts to walk at age 3 will certainly continue to walk and will be walking when he is ___ years old unless he has a disorder other than cerebral palsy.

Answer 24

13

Question 25

Bleck's Prognosis for Walking Child has cerebral palsy and findings show (+) Moro (Startle) reflex and (+) parachute / protective extension reaction. What is the child's prognosis? A. Poor prognosis B. Guarded prognosis C. Good prognosis

Answer 25

B. Guarded prognosis Score of 1 (due to presence of Moro reflex)

Question 26

Bleck's Prognosis for Walking Child has cerebral palsy and findings show (+) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex, (+) extensor thrust, and (-) foot placement reaction. What is the child's prognosis? A. Poor prognosis B. Guarded prognosis C. Good prognosis

Answer 26

A. Poor prognosis -Score of 2 or more. In this case, the score is 3.

Question 27

Bleck's Prognosis for Walking Child has cerebral palsy and findings show (+) neck righting reflex and (+) symmetric tonic neck reflex. What is the child's prognosis? A. Poor prognosis B. Guarded prognosis C. Good prognosis

Answer 27

A. Poor prognosis

Question 28

Bleck's Prognosis for Walking Child has cerebral palsy and findings show (+) parachute / protective extension reflex. What is the child's prognosis? A. Poor prognosis B. Guarded prognosis C. Good prognosis

Answer 28

C. Good prognosis -Score of 0

Question 29

Management includes Positioning, Braces, Surgery, and Soft tissue releases (e.g., for hip adductors or for the iliopsoas) A. Contractures B. Scoliosis C. Hip dislocation (hip dysplasia) D. Pressure sores

Answer 29

C. Hip dislocation (hip dysplasia) Additional: Dislocations may be caused by spasticity

Question 30

Management includes turning schedule and proper positioning, proper hygiene (keep area dry in perineal & anal area), modalities (i.e. UVR), and topical medications A. Contractures B. Scoliosis C. Hip dislocation (hip dysplasia) D. Pressure sores

Answer 30

D. Pressure sores

Question 31

TRUE OR FALSE: Management for spasticity and contractures include physical and occupational therapy, exercises, neurofacilitatory techniques/stretching, electrical stimulation, heating modalities (e.g. ultrasound) or icing, proper positioning, bracing, casting, and splints.

Answer 31

True Additional: Heating modalities or icing have effects of relaxation of spasticity. In using ultrasound in children, caution must be observed.

Question 32

TRUE OR FALSE: Orthopedic Surgery for lengthening will not reduce spasticity but is done to lengthen the tendon of Achilles, adductor or hamstring muscles to improve range of motion.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

The only anti-spasticity medication that acts on the periphery (i.e. muscles)

Answer 33

Dantrolen Na

Question 34

Botulinum toxin (botox injections) are injected intramuscularly, and are used to stop muscle contractions. Botox injections are done every how many months?

Answer 34

3-4 months -Can also be taken every 4-6 months

Question 35

TRUE OR FALSE: Selective ventral rhizotomy is the surgical management for spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy. It is done by operating on the anterior horn cells in spinal cord to decrease spasticity.

Answer 35

False, it's selective dorsal rhizotomy

Question 36

Anatomical structure affected in ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 36

Cerebellum

Question 37

Anatomical structure affected in dyskinetic cerebral palsy

Answer 37

Basal ganglia

Question 38

Anatomical structure affected in spastic cerebral palsy

Answer 38

Corticospinal tract

Question 39

The pathogenesis of periventricular leukomalacia arises from infection/inflammation and ______.

Answer 39

Ischemia/hypoxia

Question 40

The premature neonatal brain is susceptible to two main pathologies in the development of cerebral palsy. Enumerate both.

Answer 40

1. Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) 2. Periventricular leukomalacia (PVL)

Question 41

What is the single strongest risk factor for the development of CP?

Answer 41

Twinning

Question 42

TORCHS is an acronym that stands for?

Answer 42

Toxoplasmosis Other infections (varicella zoster, adenovirus, enterovirus) Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus Syphilis

Question 43

English surgeon who was the first to describe cerebral palsy in 1862. This individual described hemiplegic, rigid, paraplegic, and generalized types.

Answer 43

William John Little

Question 43

Group of nonprogressive but often changing motor impairment syndromes that may or may not involve cognitive and sensory deficits that is caused by a nonprogressive defect, lesion, or anomaly of the developing brain

Answer 43

Cerebral palsy

Question 44

The cause of cerebral palsy may occur in utero, near the time of delivery, or within the first ___ years of life.

Answer 44

3

Question 45

Most common cause of motor disability in childhood

Answer 45

Cerebral palsy Additional: CP is the second leading cause of (developmental) disability

Question 46

Leading cause of (developmental) disability

Answer 46

Autism spectrum disorder

Question 47

Cerebral palsy (CP) is a term used to describe a problem with (1)___ & (2)___ that makes certain activities difficult

Answer 47

movement and posture

Question 48

TRUE OR FALSE: About 10,000 babies and infants are diagnosed with cerebral palsy each year.

Answer 48

True Additional: 2:1000 newborn children develop cerebral palsy and around 40% of those born with cerebral palsy will have a severe case.

Question 49

Risk factors for cerebral palsy 1. Birth asphyxia 2. Head trauma 3. Intrauterine infections A. Antenatal B. Perinatal C. Postnatal

Answer 49

1. B 2. C 3. A

Question 50

Risk factors for cerebral palsy 1. Meningitis/encephalitis 2. Prematurity and low birth weight 3. Complicated labour and delivery A. Antenatal B. Perinatal C. Postnatal

Answer 50

1. C 2. A 3. B

Question 51

Risk factors for cerebral palsy 1. Non-accidental injury 2. Multiple gestation 3. Cardio-pulmonary arrest 4. Pregnancy complications A. Antenatal B. Perinatal C. Postnatal

Answer 51

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A

Question 52

Most common perinatal risk factor for the development of cerebral palsy

Answer 52

Birth asphyxia: lack of oxygen in the brain during delivery that can be due to cord coiled around fetus’ head, arrested in labor

Question 53

Most common antenatal risk factor for the development of cerebral palsy

Answer 53

Prematurity

Question 54

TRUE OR FALSE: Underdeveloped fetal brains are more susceptible to inflammation and inflammatory cytokines. These cytokines are hypothesized to be responsible for the development of periventricular leukomalacia.

Answer 54

True

Question 54

Fetoplacental and uterine infection or inflammation can cause initiation of ____, which can lead to CNS injury and CP.

Answer 54

preterm labour

Question 55

What are the two membranes surrounding the developing fetus?

Answer 55

Chorion and amnion

Question 56

The most frequently associated maternal infection in cerebral palsy

Answer 56

Chorioamnionitis -Infection of the chorion and amnion

Question 56

Associated with kernicterus due to Rh disease, which manifests as early jaundice d/t hyperbilirubinemia. A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 56

B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy

Question 57

Intelligence is often normal, and one can go to regular schools A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 57

B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy

Question 58

There is no movement by the pt, floppy limbs A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 58

C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy Note: Must be differentiated from neonates with hypotonia such as muscle disease, metabolic disease, and genetic syndromes. Rule out spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) and muscular dystrophy.

Question 59

Must be closely monitored for hip dislocation and scoliosis A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 59

A. Spastic cerebral palsy Additional: Spastic muscle imbalance lead to infantile coxa valga and femoral anteversion

Question 60

Manifestations include hyperreflexia, clonus, (+) Babinski's reflex (up to 2 yrs), persistent primitive reflexes, overflow reflexes (cross adductor reflex), and extensor or flexor posturing A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 60

A. Spastic cerebral palsy

Question 61

Affects 75% of children and more than half are moderately impaired so complete independence is unlikely A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 61

A. Spastic cerebral palsy

Question 62

Athetosis, dysarthria, sensorineural deafness, paralysis of upward gaze are usual signs A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 62

B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy Additional: Deafness is associated with hyperbilirubinemia

Question 63

All four limbs are involved equally; severe type of CP; also called total body involvement A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 63

C. Quadriplegia

Question 64

Has the highest incidence of significant cognitive disability, mentally impaired A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 64

C. Quadriplegia

Question 65

All four limbs are involved, but the upper limbs are weaker than the lower limbs A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 65

A. Double hemiplegia

Question 66

All four limbs are involved, with neck and head paralysis often accompanied by eating and breathing complications A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 66

B. Pentaplegia

Question 67

Characterized by muscle stiffness & weakness mainly in the legs, the arms are less affected or unaffected. A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 67

D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Question 68

Most children with this CP type can ambulate but might have difficulty walking (scissoring gait) A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 68

D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Question 69

Most common in premature babies A. Double hemiplegia B. Pentaplegia C. Quadriplegia D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Answer 69

D. Diplegia (Little's disease)

Question 70

Symmetric involvement of the lower limbs and marked asymmetric involvement of the upper limb A. Triplegia B. Hemiplegia C. Monoplegia

Answer 70

A. Triplegia Most common: involvement of both LE and one UE

Question 71

Results from focal perinatal injury (usually in the MCA) A. Triplegia B. Hemiplegia C. Monoplegia

Answer 71

B. Hemiplegia

Question 72

Most common presentation of hemiplegic cerebral palsy is failure to use the involved ____

Answer 72

hand

Question 73

Type of paralysis that impacts one limb, such as an arm or leg on one side of your body. A. Triplegia B. Hemiplegia C. Monoplegia

Answer 73

C. Monoplegia

Question 74

Patients with hemiplegic cerebral palsy can ambulate by ____ years old (best ambulators)

Answer 74

2

Question 75

Origin of fetal brain cells

Answer 75

Subependymal matrix

Question 76

The risk of cerebral palsy [increases/decreases] with the severity of intraventricular hemorrhage

Answer 76

Increases Stroke: bleed → ischemia → brain pressure

Question 77

It is the bleeding from the subependymal matrix into the ventricles of the brain.

Answer 77

Intraventricular hemorrhage

Question 77

Lack of sitting after ___ months is the most common initial recognized deficit of gross motor delay.

Answer 77

Six

Question 78

Handedness at less than ____ y/o is an abnormal motor characteristic that can be observed in patients with cerebral palsy

Answer 78

One Note: Handedness (hand dominance) emerges at 18 months and is established at 2 years of age

Question 79

Death of a co-twin in utero has been shown to induce neuropathologic changes that can lead to CP in the surviving twin. The prevalence of CP in the surviving twin was found to be 15x lower than average. A. Only the 1st statement is true B. Only the 2nd statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

Answer 79

A. Only the 1st statement is true The prevalence of CP in the surviving twin is 15x higher than average.

Question 80

___ increases the risk of antenatal complications, such as preterm labor, growth restriction, low birth weight, and co-twin death.

Answer 80

Multiple gestation

Question 81

Thrombophilias can lead to placental vascular injury and clotting of the fetal vessels. Blood clotting is easier in the placenta because of the presence of what hormone?

Answer 81

estrogen

Question 82

Determine the corresponding gestational toxins that can lead to types of CP 1. Quadriplegia 2. Hemiplegia 3. Diplegia A. Organic Mercury B. Iodine C. Intrauterine subdural hemorrhage

Answer 82

1. A 2. C 3. B

Question 83

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy: Slow writhing involuntary upper distal extremity movements. It usually affects the limbs only. A. Athetoid B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Ballismus E. Choreoathetoid

Answer 83

A. Athetoid

Question 84

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy: Abrupt, irregular, jerky movements usually in the head, neck, and extremities. It affects the face and neck. A. Athetoid B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Ballismus E. Choreoathetoid

Answer 84

B. Chorea

Question 85

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy: Slow rhythmic movement usually affecting the trunk with snake-like movements A. Athetoid B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Ballismus E. Choreoathetoid

Answer 85

C. Dystonia

Question 86

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy: Sudden violent involuntary flinging high amplitude movement in the ipsilateral arm and leg A. Athetoid B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Ballismus E. Choreoathetoid

Answer 86

D. Ballismus

Question 87

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy: Large amplitude involuntary movements that are a combination of athetosis and choreiform movements A. Athetoid B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Ballismus E. Choreoathetoid

Answer 87

E. Choreoathetoid

Question 88

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy starts with hypotonia, followed by abnormal movements in affected extremities by ___ months

Answer 88

18

Question 89

In dyskinetic cerebral palsy, writhing involuntary movements are first noted in which body structure/s?

Answer 89

hands and fingers

Question 90

Presents with problems with balance and coordination. They are unsteady when they walk, have difficulty with quick movements or movements that need a lot of control, and have difficulty controlling their hands or arms when they reach for something. A. Spastic cerebral palsy B. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy C. Hypotonic cerebral palsy D. Mixed cerebral palsy E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Answer 90

E. Ataxic cerebral palsy

Question 91

The most common type of mixed cerebral palsy

Answer 91

Spastic-dyskinetic cerebral palsy - UE: athetoid & LE: spastic

Question 92

Presence of primitive reflexes after ____ months is deemed abnormal

Answer 92

6

Question 93

TRUE OR FALSE: In cerebral palsy, alteration of tone is characterized by early hypotonia that gives way to later hypertonia

Answer 93

True

Question 94

Mental retardation is most severe in rigid, atonic, and severely spastic quadriplegia. In contrast, the brightest and most intelligent are those with dyskinetic CP. A. Only the 1st statement is true B. Only the 2nd statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

Answer 94

C. Both statements are true Additional: Mental retardation is mild in diplegia and hemiplegia

Question 95

Associated problem in cerebral palsy that is most frequent in hemiplegia and spastic quadriplegia

Answer 95

Seizures

Question 96

Strabismus, refractory errors, and hemianopsia are common in diplegia and quadriplegia. Esotropia, exotropia or hyperopia is common in hemiplegia. A. Only the 1st statement is true B. Only the 2nd statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

Answer 96

D. Both statements are false Interchange manifestations to make both statements true

Question 97

TRUE OR FALSE: Poor lip closure, tongue thrust, drooling, and dysarthria are common in spastic quadriplegia and dyskinetic cerebral palsy.

Answer 97

True

Question 98

Diagnostic tool to rule out seizures

Answer 98

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Question 99

most important and most common goal in the management of cerebral palsy

Answer 99

Gait

Question 100

most common problem in patients with cerebral palsy

Answer 100

Delayed motor development/weakness

Question 101

Usually referred to as neuro-developmental treatment A. Ayres B. Rood C. Vojta approach D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato E. Bobath

Answer 101

E. Bobath

Question 102

Management used in cases of hypotonia to retard atrophy

Answer 102

Electrical stimulation

Question 103

Based on the brain's ability to reorganize and recover after neurological insult (neuroplasticity). Its goals are to normalize tone, inhibit primitive reflexes & facilitate automatic reactions, and normal movement patterns. Treatment involves doing repetitive actions. A. Ayres B. Rood C. Vojta approach D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato E. Bobath

Answer 103

E. Bobath

Question 104

Sensory integration approach to improve efficiency of neural processing and to better organize adaptive responses A. Ayres B. Rood C. Vojta approach D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato E. Bobath

Answer 104

A. Ayres

Question 105

The goals are to activate postural responses and activate mobility once stability is achieved A. Ayres B. Rood C. Vojta approach D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato E. Bobath

Answer 105

B. Rood

Question 106

Goal is to achieve independent mobility, improve motor coordination and communication disorders, enhance intelligence A. Ayres B. Rood C. Vojta approach D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato E. Bobath

Answer 106

D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato

Question 107

The goal is to prevent cerebral palsy in infants at risk and to improve motoric behavior in infants with fixed CP A. Ayres B. Rood C. Vojta approach D. Patterning therapy Doman-Delacato E. Bobath

Answer 107

C. Vojta approach

Question 108

Odd one out: Baclofen, Diazepam, Clobazam, Tizanidine, Clonazepam

Answer 108

Clobazam (A medication for seizures) -All other choices are anti-spasticity medications acting centrally on the CNS to control movement.

Question 109

TRUE OR FALSE: The goals of PT for cerebral palsy are to decrease complications, enhance or improve the acquisition of new skills, independence in ADLs and mobility, and parent and caregiver education.

Answer 109

True

Question 110

TRUE OR FALSE: Bilirubin encephalopathy or Kernicterus can cause hearing impairments.

Answer 110

True

Question 111

Dramatic abnormal posture due to spastic contraction of the extensor muscles of the neck, trunk, and lower extremities that produces a severe backward arching from neck to heel

Answer 111

opisthotonic posture

Question 112

Abnormal movement pattern such as posterior pelvic tilt is due to tightness of what muscle?

Answer 112

hamstring

Question 113

Abnormal movement pattern characterized by excessive ankle dorsiflexion, knee and hip flexion during the stance phase

Answer 113

Crouch gait

Question 114

Abnormal movement pattern characterized by sitting on their bottom with their knees bent and feet positioned outside of their hips

Answer 114

W sitting

Question 115

1. bacterial disease of calcified tissues of teeth, leads to teeth breakdown 2. overgrowth of gum tissue around the teeth 3. upper and lower teeth don't align when closing mouth A. Enamel dysgenesis B. Malocclusion C. Caries D. Gingival hyperplasia

Answer 115

1. C 2. D 3. B

Question 116

Chronic lung disease that affects newborns, lungs and the airways are damaged, causing tissue destruction in the tiny air sacs of the lung A. Deficient ventilation B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia C. Microaspiration

Answer 116

B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Question 117

An APGAR score of less than ___ at 20 minutes poses a high risk of CP

Answer 117

3

Question 118

Obstetrical (Protective) Care: used to treat bacterial vaginosis that may reduce the rate of preterm delivery A. Magnesium sulfate B. Antibiotics C. Corticosteroids

Answer 118

B. Antibiotics

Question 119

Obstetrical (Protective) Care: In women with premature rupture of membranes, this reduces the risk of chorioamnionitis. A. Magnesium sulfate B. Antibiotics C. Corticosteroids

Answer 119

B. Antibiotics

Question 120

Obstetrical (Protective) Care: reduces the risk of CP by inhibiting cytokine production, thus preventing periventricular leukomalacia. A. Magnesium sulfate B. Antibiotics C. Corticosteroids

Answer 120

C. Corticosteroids

Question 121

Obstetrical (Protective) Care: used for preterm labor and to increase the seizure threshold in mothers with preeclampsia. helpful for both the baby and the mother A. Magnesium sulfate B. Antibiotics C. Corticosteroids

Answer 121

A. Magnesium sulfate

Question 122

Obstetrical (Protective) Care: Injected to mother if preterm/contraction of uterus when baby is not yet viable A. Magnesium sulfate B. Antibiotics C. Corticosteroids

Answer 122

A. Magnesium sulfate

Question 123

Most common predictive sign for development of CP

Answer 123

periventricular leukomalacia (PVL) Additional: MRI is the ancillary procedure to check for PVL. PVL is also the leading cause in preterm infants; may use CT Scan if there is a feeling of a probable PVL.

Question 124

TRUE OR FALSE: Birth weight under 800 g, Grade III and IV intraventricular hemorrhage, and prolonged seizures are risk factors for CP in premature infants.

Answer 124

True

Question 125

TRUE OR FALSE: Abruptio placenta, placenta previa, and meconium aspiration causing asphyxia can cause CP in term infants.

Answer 125

True

Question 126

TRUE OR FALSE: Hemorrhage and preeclampsia (placental abruption, placenta previa, and other causes of third trimester bleeding) seem to lead to premature delivery, conferring the same risks for CP as a premature infant

Answer 126

True

Question 127

The blood vessels around the ventricles develop late in the ___ trimester, thus preterm infants have underdeveloped periventricular blood vessels, predisposing them to increased risk of intraventricular hemorrhage.

Answer 127

third

Question 128

PVL describes ___ matter in the periventricular region that is underdeveloped or damaged.

Answer 128

white The white areas are watersheds in the brain (areas in the brain where blood supply is decreased; ischemia can occur in these areas).

Question 129

Both IVH and PVL cause CP because the ____, composed of descending motor axons, course through the periventricular region. Affectation of this structure leads to motor sx, which can cause hemiplegia.

Answer 129

corticospinal tracts

Question 130

The following are causes of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: A. Neonatal encephalopathy B. Shaken infant syndrome C. Stroke (young stroke) D. Traumatic brain injury E. Hypoxic brain injury F. None of the above

Answer 130

F. None of the above

Question 131

Hyperbiliribinemia secondary to Rh, G6PD, and ___ incompatibility can lead to jaundice in the 1st hour after birth.

Answer 131

ABO

Question 132

CP pathophysiology: postnatal 1. Meningitis/encephalitis 2. Drowning 3. Cerebral malaria 4. Ruptured AV malformation 5. Cardiopulmonary arrest A. Traumatic cause B. Non-traumatic cause

Answer 132

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B

Question 133

The following are conditions for differential diagnosis of CP, EXCEPT: A. Congenital neuromuscular disease (e.g., Werdnig Hoffman disease, congenital muscular dystrophy) B. Metabolic disorders (e.g. thyroidism, endocrine, infant of diabetic mother) C. Nonprogressive central nervous system diseases D. Storage disorders E. Syndromes of early hypotonia and developmental delay F. None of the above

Answer 133

C. Nonprogressive central nervous system diseases