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(3) MS: Pediatric Conditions > S1_L1: Gametogenesis > Flashcards

S1_L1: Gametogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

In gametogenesis for females, the result is the formation of?

A

Ova

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2
Q

In gametogenesis for males, the result is the formation of?

A

Spermatozoa

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2
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Human primordial germ cells appear in the wall of the yolk sac at the 3rd week of development and migrate towards the gonads at the 4th to 5th weeks of development.

A

True

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3
Q

Gametogenesis in females is referred to as?

A

Oogenesis

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3
Q

Gametogenesis in males is referred to as?

A

Spermatogenesis

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3
Q

Cell division that produces two daughter cells with the same genetic component as the parent

A

Mitosis

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4
Q

Mature male and female cells are descendants from?

A

Primordial germ cells

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5
Q

The process when a haploid cell (n) is
formed from a diploid cell (2n) through meiosis and cell differentiation.

A

Gametogenesis

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6
Q

Enumerate the purposes of mitosis

A
  1. For growth
  2. To replace worn out cells
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7
Q

This process is known as the reduction division because it results in cells that have half the number of chromosomes

A

Meiosis 1

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8
Q

This process is referred to as equational division because it does not reduce the chromosome number in the daughter cell.

A

Meiosis 2

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9
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of the stages of Mitosis

  1. Cell-like features reappear such as the reformation of two nuclei
  2. Nuclear membrane breaks down allowing the spindle fibers to
    attach to the chromosomes at the side called kinetochore
  3. Spindle fibers contract breaking the chromatids at the centromere and moving opposite poles
  4. Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (equatorial plane) with kinetochores
    attached
  5. Division of the cytoplasm to form two new
    cells

A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
F. Cytokinesis

A
  1. E
  2. B
  3. D
  4. C
  5. F
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10
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of the stages of Mitosis

  1. Begins between anaphase and telophase, but
    finishes until after telophase
  2. Chromosomes continue to condense and become distinguishable
  3. Cells elongate and is nearly finish dividing
  4. Centrosomes have finished moving and are located opposite
    each ends of cells
  5. Each chromosome is made of 2 genetically identical
    chromatin jointed by a centromere
  6. Sister chromatids now called chromosomes are pulled toward
    opposite poles

A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
F. Cytokinesis

A
  1. F
  2. B
  3. E
  4. C
  5. A
  6. D
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11
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of the stages of Mitosis

  1. Kinetochores
    appear at the centromeres
  2. Centrosomes move to opposite directions
  3. Chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense, uncoil and lengthen; mitotic spindle
    breaks
  4. Nucleolus disappears
  5. Each daughter cell receives half of all doubled chromosome material (same number of chromosomes as mother cell)

A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
F. Cytokinesis

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. E
  4. A
  5. E
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12
Q

Differentiate mitosis and meiosis

  1. Necessary for
    growth (cellular proliferation) and repair
  2. Crossing over takes place
  3. Type of cell division that takes
    place in somatic cells
  4. Starts with a single parent cell
  5. 4 haploid daughter cells are formed
  6. Number of chromosomes
    remain diploid in daughter
    cells

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Both
D. Neither

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
  4. C
  5. B
  6. A
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13
Q

Differentiate mitosis and meiosis

  1. Crossing over does not take
    place
  2. Necessary for
    sexual reproduction
  3. Type of division takes place in gametic (germ) cells
  4. 2 diploid daughter cells are formed
  5. Number of chromosomes
    becomes haploid in
    daughter cells
  6. Genetic variation increases

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Both
D. Neither

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. B
  4. A
  5. B
  6. B
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14
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: By the 5th month of gestation, majority of the oogonia have
degenerated except those in the surface.

A

False, it’s 7th month

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15
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A newborn baby girl has about two million primary
oocytes.

A

True

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16
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: No new primary oocytes will be produced during a
female’s life.

A

True

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17
Q

At most, how many oocytes will be released during a woman’s reproductive years?

A

400-500

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Oogonia become primary oocytes (diploid cells). Primary oocytes begin the process of meiosis, but
are halted in prometaphase I.

A

False, it’s prophase I.

Additional: Singular of oogonia is oogonium

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19
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In females, beginning at puberty, and continuing every
month thereafter, two follicles will begin growing in the ovary.

A

False, only one follicle

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20
Q

Fourteen days after the beginning of the follicle’s growth, and just before leaving the ovary, the primary oocyte will finish its first meiotic division and become a
secondary oocyte.
This process is stimulated by what hormone?

A

follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH)

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21
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Polar bodies formed in the process of oogenesis will eventually degenerate.

A

True

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22
Q

What induces the secondary oocyte to go through its second meiotic division?

A

Penetration of the sperm

Additional: The 2nd meiotic division also occurs with unequal cytokinesis.

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23
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The secondary oocyte will be released from the ovary during ovulation without becoming an ovum (egg) yet.

A

True

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In the process of the 1st meiotic division in oogenesis, equal cytokinesis occurs and meiosis stops again.

A

False, it’s unequal

This results in a large haploid cell that will eventually become the egg (ovum) and a small haploid cell that becomes a polar body.

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25
Q

Oogenesis terminates with the occurrence of ___.

A

Menopause

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26
Q

The sperm is larger than the spermatocyes. The ova is smaller than the oocytes.
A. Only the 1st statement is true
B. Only the 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

D. Both statements are false

Sperm is smaller
Ova is larger

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27
Q

The final product of spermiogenesis is a ___ mature spermatozoon.

A

non-motile

Note: Since it is not yet motile, the spermatozoa produced will still be sterile.

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27
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of the phases of spermiogenesis

  1. Elongation
    of microtubules on one of the centrioles of the
    spermatid
  2. Genetic material (DNA)
    undergoes packaging as protamines
  3. Golgi apparatus surrounds
    the anterior of the spermatid to form the
    acrosome
  4. The residual cytoplasm has been disposed
    of
  5. Intensified activity of the Golgi apparatus

A. Golgi phase
B. Cap phase
C. Tail phase
D. Maturation phase

A
  1. C
  2. A
  3. B
  4. D
  5. A
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28
Q

The spermatozoa become motile cells when they further develop in the ___.

A

epididymis

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29
Q

The migration of the spermatozoon from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis to become a motile sperm cell

A

Spermiation

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30
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of gametogenesis in males and females

  1. Produces 1 gamete with 2-3 polar bodies
  2. Begins at puberty
  3. Cells are equally divided in meiosis
  4. Germ line epithelium is not involved in gamete production
  5. Duration is in arrested stages
  6. Begins in the fetus (pre-natal)

A. Spermatogenesis
B. Oogenesis

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. A
  4. B
  5. B
  6. B
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30
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of gametogenesis in males and females

  1. Occurs entirely in the testes
  2. Lifelong process but production reduces with age
  3. Cytoplasm is unequally divided in meiosis
  4. Release is monthly from puberty
  5. Produces 4 gametes
  6. An uninterrupted process with a continuous release

A. Spermatogenesis
B. Oogenesis

A
  1. A
  2. A
  3. B
  4. B
  5. A
  6. A
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31
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Oogenesis occurs mostly in the ovaries.

A

True

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32
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In spermatogenesis, germ line epithelium is not involved in gamete production.

A

False, it is involved

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33
Q

The most common trisomy that results in Down syndrome, which is characterized by dysmorphic features of a small head and flat face, and cardiovascular problems.

A

Trisomy 21
-Extra chromosome 21

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34
Q

Edward’s Syndrome, which is characterized by severe mental disability, clenched hands, a large back of the head, a small mouth, and a rocker bottom foot, is a result of what trisomy?

A

Trisomy 18

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35
Q

Patau Syndrome, which is characterized by severe mental disability, a clenched hand, a large back of the head, a small mouth, and a rocker bottom foot, is a result of what trisomy?

A

Trisomy 13

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36
Q

A condition present in males with 47 chromosomes and an XXY karyotype.
It is characterized by sterility, testicular atrophy, hyalinization of the seminiferous tubules, and gynecomastia.

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

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37
Q

The only chromosomal monosomy compatible with life

A

Turner’s Syndrome (Monosomy of the X Chromosome)

38
Q

A condition with only 45 chromosomes and an X karyotype. It affects females.

A

Turner’s Syndrome

39
Q

A condition with 47 chromosomes and an XXX karyotype. It affects females only.

A

Triple X Syndrome

40
Q

A common condition which results in enlarged male breast tissue.

A

Gynecomastia

41
Q

Determine the corresponding features present in the ff conditions

  1. Broader hips, longer legs, larger breasts
  2. Speech problems
  3. Webbed neck
  4. Dysplastic or malformed ears
  5. Eyes slant up with palpebral fissures
  6. Has clubfeet and heart/lung abnormalities

A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner’s Syndrome
C. Edward’s Syndrome
D. Patau Syndrome
E. Klinefelter Syndrome
F. Triple X Syndrome

A
  1. E
  2. F
  3. B
  4. D
  5. A
  6. C
42
Q

Determine the corresponding features present in the ff conditions

  1. Wide spaced nipples
  2. Cleft lip and/or palate
  3. Enlarged tongue that sticks out of the mouth
  4. Less facial and body hair following puberty
  5. Decreased muscle tone and overlapping fingers
  6. Problem with self-esteem

A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner’s Syndrome
C. Edward’s Syndrome
D. Patau Syndrome
E. Klinefelter Syndrome
F. Triple X Syndrome

A
  1. B
  2. D
  3. A
  4. E
  5. C
  6. F
43
Q

Determine the corresponding features present in the ff conditions

  1. Clenched hands and polydactyly (extra fingers)
  2. Has epicanthic fold (upper eyelid skin fold covering the inner corner of the eye)
  3. Short stature and absence of ovaries
  4. Broad hands with short fingers
  5. Taller, less muscular body than males their age

A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner’s Syndrome
C. Edward’s Syndrome
D. Patau Syndrome
E. Klinefelter Syndrome
F. Triple X Syndrome

A
  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. A
  5. E
44
Q

A condition where the short arm of chromosome 5 was deleted. It is characterized by a reduced head size and high-pitched crying.

A

Cri Du Chat Syndrome (Cat’s Cry)

45
Q

Determine the corresponding descriptions of the causes of chromosomal abnormalities

  1. The genetic material was flipped in the opposite direction
  2. A piece of one chromosome is detached and attached to another
  3. A part of the chromosome was deleted
  4. Presence of extra genetic material, such as in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
  5. Trisomy

A. Deletion
B. Inversion
C. Duplication
D. Translocation

A
  1. B
  2. D
  3. A
  4. C
  5. D
46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The tail of a mature sperm is a cilium.

A

False, it is a flagellum

47
Q

A membrane-bound compartment at the tip of the head of the spermatid that has enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the egg (break down the outer membrane of an egg cell).

A

Acrosome / Acrosomal cap

48
Q

A part of the mature sperm that is packed full of mitochondria to convert glucose
energy into ATP to provide an energy source for tail movement.

A

Middle piece / Connecting piece

49
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In the tail phase of spermiogenesis, the microtubules form an axoneme which contains microtubules that are arranged in a 10 + 3 configuration.

A

False, it’s 9 + 2 configuration

-This means that a pair of microtubules lie at the center and then surrounded by nine outer doublet microtubules.

50
Q

The acrosomal cap forms when the ___ surrounds the anterior of the spermatid to form the acrosome.

A

Golgi apparatus

51
Q

The cells responsible for the phagocytosis of the residual cytoplasm in the maturation phase of spermiogenesis

A

Sertoli cells

Additional: The Sertoli cells during the early stages nourish the germ cells attached to them in the seminiferous tubules

52
Q

The differentiation stage of spermatids into mature
spermatozoa

A

Spermiogenesis

53
Q

It produces and releases lytic enzymes that
will gather inside the future acrosome (in the cap phase of spermiogenesis).

A

Golgi apparatus

54
Q

By the end of this phase, the genetic material (DNA) of the spermatid is
tightly packed, highly condensed, and transcriptionally inactive.

A

Golgi phase

55
Q

Sperm development ends when a haploid motile sperm cell sloughs off the inner wall of the ___.

A

seminiferous tubule

56
Q

Spermatogenesis occurs inside the ____ which are located within the testes.

A

seminiferous tubules

57
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Sperm development begins with a haploid cell called the spermatogonium, located near the
outer wall of the seminiferous tubules.

A

False, the spermatogonium is a diploid cell

58
Q

How many secondary spermatocytes are produced from the meiosis of
one primary spermatocyte?

A

Two secondary spermatocytes (haploid cells)

59
Q

How many meiotic divisions take place in the process of producing spermatids?

A

Two

-1st division reduces the chromosome number by half,
producing secondary spermatocytes
-2nd division produces the spermatids

60
Q

The process of cell duplication or reproduction

A

Mitosis

61
Q

How many sperm (haploid cells) are produced from one spermatogonium in total?

A

Four

61
Q

The production of sex cells (gametes)

A

Gametogenesis

62
Q

The haploid male sexual cell formed after meiosis from spermatocytes that eventually matures into a spermatozoon

A

Spermatids

63
Q

A primary oocyte together with surrounding flat
epithelial cells is called ___.

A

Primordial follicle

64
Q

How many chromosomes are present in the haploid daughter cells produced in meiosis?

A

23

65
Q

By the 5th month of prenatal development, the total number of oogonia reaches its peak at ___.

A

7,000,000

66
Q

Primary oocytes will die or be reabsorbed by the
body so that about 400,000 remain at the beginning
of puberty. This normally occurs between what ages?

A

11-14

67
Q

Beginning with the first ___, meiosis I resumes, one oocyte at a time.

A

menstrual cycle

68
Q

At what phase of the meiotic division will the secondary oocyte be arrested for about 3 hours before ovulation?

A

Metaphase II

69
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Meiosis II is only complete when the oocyte is fertilized. If fertilization does not occur, oocyte degeneration
happens within 24 hours after ovulation.

A

True

70
Q

Stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I, where the chromosomes condense and two sister chromatids join at the centromere.

A

Leptotene

71
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: By the 2nd month of prenatal development, the oogonia become arranged in clusters surrounded by single flat
epithelial cells (follicular cells).

A

False, it’s the 3rd month

72
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Prenatally, the primordial germ cells replicate by
mitosis and differentiate into
oogonia once they have arrived at
the ovary.

A

True

73
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: At birth (antenatal), all primary oocytes have started prophase of the first meiotic
division and enter a resting phase
during prophase, the diplotene stage.

A

True

74
Q

In the follicular cell, this is responsible for the diplotene stage (resting phase during prophase I)

A

Oocyte Maturation Inhibitor (OMI)

75
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: During childhood, oocytes become artretic and only 40,000 are present. By puberty, less than 500 will ovulate.

A

True

76
Q

Stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I, where members (non-sister chromatids) of each pair of chromosomes trade /exchange adjacent bits of DNA.

A

Pachytene

77
Q

Stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I, where the 2 chromosomes in each pair become tightly associated with each other in a process known as synapsis and the synaptonemal complex forms.

A

Zygotene

78
Q

Stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I, where synapsis ends with the disappearance of the synaptonemal complex and the homologous pairs remain attached to a chiasmata.

A

Diplotene

79
Q

Stage of Prophase I in Meiosis I, where the chromosomes
become fully condensed, the nuclear membrane disintegrates prior to metaphase 1, the spindle fibers grow out from centrosomes on each side of cell and attach to the chromosome at points along the chromosomes (centromere).

A

Diakinesis

80
Q

The process by which members of each pair of chromosomes trade adjacent bits of DNA, thus creating unique chromosomes that contain new combinations of
alleles.

A

Crossing over / Recombination

81
Q

In what phase of meiosis I do the microtubules emerge from the spindle and attach to the kinetochore?
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I

A

B. Metaphase I

82
Q

Each homologous chromosome is pulled
toward opposite poles of the cells as the
spindle fibers retract
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I

A

C. Anaphase I

83
Q

Nuclear envelope and spindle fibers
disappear, cytokinesis 1 starts
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I

A

D. Telophase I

84
Q

The cytoplasm and cell divide, resulting in 2 cells that are haploid, with one chromosome and 2 chromatids (2C, 1n)
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I

A

D. Telophase I

85
Q

Equally divides the DNA between the 2 cells and each daughter cell has half the number of chromosomes from the original parent cell.
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I

A

C. Anaphase I

86
Q

Maternal and paternal versions of same chromosomes (homologous
chromosomes) align along the equator of the cell
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I

A

B. Metaphase I

87
Q

Chromosomes line up in a single file along the equator of the cell
A. Prophase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase II
E. Cytokinesis II

A

B. Metaphase II

88
Q

Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of equator
A. Prophase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase II
E. Cytokinesis II

A

C. Anaphase II

89
Q

The net product of meiosis 2 is ___ non-identical haploid daughter cells, each
containing one chromosome consisting of one chromatid (1C, 1n).

A

Four

90
Q

The cytoplasm and cell divide producing 2 non-identical haploid daughter cells
A. Prophase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase II
E. Cytokinesis II

A

E. Cytokinesis II

91
Q

Each month (at puberty), 15–20 follicles are selected from the pool / supply of primordial follicle matures to secondary oocyte. Some die but others begin to accumulate fluid in a space called the ___.

A

antrum.

92
Q

In oogenesis, only one oocyte reaches full maturity. Meiosis I results to 2 daughter cells, each with 23 chromosomes.
A. Only the 1st statement is true
B. Only the 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

C. Both statements are true

93
Q

When meiosis I is done and the secondary follicle is
mature, a surge in what hormone induces the preovulatory growth phase?

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

94
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: At birth, the total number of primary oocytes vary from 600,000 to 800,000.

A

True

95
Q

During the acrosome reaction, its (hydrolases) contents are released to penetrate the ___.

A

zona pellucida

-glycoprotein coat which acts as a barrier to the sperm

96
Q

It is also referred to as the principal piece

A

Tail (sperm)

97
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The egg is a large, symmetrical, and motile cell and the end product of oogenesis.

A

False, it is non-motile

98
Q

In total, how many spermatids are produced from one spermatogonium?

A

Four

(3) MS: Pediatric Conditions (11 decks)

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