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(3) MS: Pediatric Conditions > S2_L3: Pediatric History & Physical Examination > Flashcards

S2_L3: Pediatric History & Physical Examination Flashcards

1
Q

Appearance: Blue all over
Pulse: 97 bpm
Grimace: Positive
Activity: Limp
Respiratory rate: Irregular breathing
What is the APGAR score?

A

3

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2
Q

Appearance: Pink trunk and extremity
Pulse: 88 bpm
Grimace: Cries or coughs
Activity: Active movement of extremities
Respiratory rate: Irregular breathing
What is the APGAR score?

A

8

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3
Q

Appearance: Blue extremities, pink body
Pulse: 115 bpm
Grimace: Negative
Activity: Some flexion of extremities
Respiratory rate: Regular breathing
What is the APGAR score?

A

6

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4
Q

Appearance: Blue extremity, pink body
Pulse: No pulse
Grimace: Positive
Activity: Limp
Respiratory rate: No breathing
What is the APGAR score?

A

2

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5
Q

Appearance: Pink trunk and extremity
Pulse: 120 bpm
Grimace: Negative
Activity: Some flexion of extremities
Respiratory rate: Irregular breathing
What is the APGAR score?

A

6

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6
Q

The normal APGAR score ranges from?

A

7-10

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7
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Initial growth of long pubic hairs. Long, slightly pigmented, straight pubic hair along labia. These are without curls, and of light color.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

B. Stage 2

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8
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Breast bud present, areola widens and has become larger.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

B. Stage 2

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9
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Breasts are larger with more elevation. They extend beyond the areolar parameter. Nipples have grown additionally. The areola has become darker. The breast tissue bud is larger.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

C. Stage 3

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10
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Pubic hair has increased in quantity and is darker, more curly, coarser, and more widespread. The hair is present in the typical female triangle.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

C. Stage 3

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11
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females: No pubic hair, no breast development, and small nipples
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

A. Stage 1

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12
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Pubic hair is more dense, curled, and dark. It is adult in distribution but in a smaller quantity, not entirely as an adult woman.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

D. Stage 4

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13
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Breasts are larger and more elevated. Areola and papilla form a mound projecting from the breast contour.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

D. Stage 4

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14
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Pubic hair is abundant and has an adult-type pattern. The dense, curly hair extends to the medial aspect of the thigh (inner thighs).
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

E. Stage 5

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15
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
Breasts are adult in appearance and fully developed. Nipples are protruding, and the edge between the areola & breast has disappeared.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

E. Stage 5

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16
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males:
Penis is childlike, and no pubic hair is present. No signs of puberty, the scrotum and testes is an in childhood.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

A. Stage 1

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17
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males:
Sparse growth of pubic hair in the midline, mainly at the base of the penis. The hairs are straight, without curls, and of light color. There is no notable change in the penis.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

B. Stage 2

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18
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males:
Darker and curlier pubic hair extends across the pubis, and the penis increases in length
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

C. Stage 3

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19
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males:
Testicular volume: 6-12 ml
The scrotum and testes have a great enlargement. The skin of the scrotum has become darker & more wrinkled.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

C. Stage 3

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20
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males
Testicular volume: 1.6-6 ml
Initial growth of scrotum & testes. The skin of the scrotum is thinner, larger, reddened, and more wrinkled.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

B. Stage 2

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21
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males
Testicular volume: <1.5 ml
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

A. Stage 1

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22
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males:
Pubic hair is more dense and abundant with curling and darkening. The hair growth is reaching the inner thighs.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

D. Stage 4

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23
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males
Testicular volume: 12-20 ml
Scrotum and testes: further enlargement
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

D. Stage 4

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24
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males
Penis and scrotum have an adult male appearance
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

E. Stage 5

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25
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males
Pubic hair in adult quantity and distribution with hair on the inner thighs. It extends upwards to the umbilicus.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

E. Stage 5

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26
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males
Testicular volume: >20 ml
Scrotum: adult appearance
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

E. Stage 5

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26
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Males:
The penis has increased length, width, and circumference. The head of the penis has become larger.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

D. Stage 4

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27
Q

Intelligence Quotient

  1. Superior intelligence
  2. Normal or average intelligence
  3. Below or low average
  4. Very superior intelligence
  5. Moron

A. 50-69
B. 80-89
C. 90-109
D. 120-129
E. 130-139

A
  1. D
  2. C
  3. B
  4. E
  5. A
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28
Q

Intelligence Quotient

  1. Idiot
  2. Genius or near genius
  3. Imbecile
  4. Dull or borderline
  5. Above or high average

A. 30-49
B. 70-79
C. 110-119
D. 140 and over
E. < 30

A
  1. E
  2. D
  3. A
  4. B
  5. C
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29
Q

Vital signs
Heart rate: 100 to 160 bpm / 120-160
A. Infant (0-12 mos)
B. Child (1-11 years)
C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

A

A. Infant (0-12 mos)

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30
Q

Vital signs
Heart rate: 70 to 120 bpm
A. Infant (0-12 mos)
B. Child (1-11 years)
C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

A

B. Child (1-11 years)

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31
Q

Vital signs
Heart rate: 60 to 100 bpm
A. Infant (0-12 mos)
B. Child (1-11 years)
C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

A

C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

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32
Q

Vital signs
Blood pressure: 110 to 135/65 to 85 mm Hg
A. Infant (0-12 mos)
B. Child (1-11 years)
C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

A

C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

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33
Q

Vital signs
Blood pressure: 90 to 110/55 to 75 mm Hg
A. Infant (0-12 mos)
B. Child (1-11 years)
C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

A

B. Child (1-11 years)

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34
Q

Vital signs
Blood pressure: 65 to 90/45 to 65 mm Hg
A. 0-6 months old
B. 6-12 months old
C. 1 to 5 years old
D. 6 to 11 years old

A

A. 0-6 months old

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35
Q

Vital signs
Blood pressure: 80 to 100/55 to 65 mm Hg
A. 0-6 months old
B. 6-12 months old
C. 1 to 5 years old
D. 6 to 11 years old

A

B. 6-12 months old

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36
Q

Vital signs
Respiration: 30 to 60 breaths per minute (bpm) / 40-60
A. 0-6 months old
B. 6-12 months old
C. 1 to 5 years old
D. 6 to 11 years old

A

A. 0-6 months old

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37
Q

Vital signs
Respiration: 24 to 30 breaths per minute (bpm)
A. 0-6 months old
B. 6-12 months old
C. 1 to 5 years old
D. 6 to 11 years old

A

B. 6-12 months old

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38
Q

Vital signs
Respiration: 12 to 20 breaths per minute (bpm)
A. 0-6 months old
B. 6-12 months old
C. 1 to 5 years old
D. 6 to 11 years old

A

D. 6 to 11 years old

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39
Q

Vital signs
Respiration: 20 to 30 breaths per minute (bpm)
A. 0-6 months old
B. 6-12 months old
C. 1 to 5 years old
D. 6 to 11 years old

A

C. 1 to 5 years old

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40
Q

Vital signs
Respiration: 12 to 18 breaths per minute (bpm)
A. Infant (0-12 mos)
B. Child (1-11 years)
C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

A

C. Pre-teen/Teen (12 and up)

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41
Q

Temperature for all ages: 36.6 C to 38 C (97.9 F to 100.4 F)
A. Rectal (Bum)
B. Ear
C. Oral (mouth)
D. Axillary (armpit)

A

A. Rectal (Bum)

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42
Q

Temperature for all ages: 35.8 C to 38 C (96.4 F to 100.4 F)
A. Rectal (Bum)
B. Ear
C. Oral (mouth)
D. Axillary (armpit)

A

B. Ear

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43
Q

Temperature for all ages: 35.5 C to 37.5 C (95.9 F to 99.5 F)
A. Rectal (Bum)
B. Ear
C. Oral (mouth)
D. Axillary (armpit)

A

C. Oral (mouth)

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44
Q

Temperature for all ages: 36.5 C to 37.5 C (97.8 F to 99.5 F)
A. Rectal (Bum)
B. Ear
C. Oral (mouth)
D. Axillary (armpit)

A

D. Axillary (armpit)

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45
Q

A woman had 4 pregnancies and 3 deliveries at 36 weeks, 38 weeks, & 40 weeks respectively. She aborted once at 10 weeks and shares that she has 4 alive children. Describe her gravity and parity.

A

G4P3

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46
Q

A woman had 4 pregnancies and 3 deliveries at 36 weeks, 38 weeks, & 40 weeks respectively. She aborted once at 10 weeks and shares that she has 4 alive children. What is her FPAL?

A

2-1-1-4

-4 living children: For one of her pregnancies, she gave birth to twins

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47
Q

A woman had 3 pregnancies and 1 delivery at 39 weeks. She aborted once at 15 weeks and had a miscarriage at 7 weeks. She has 1 alive child. Describe her gravity and parity.

A

G3P1

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47
Q

A woman had 3 pregnancies and 1 delivery at 39 weeks. She aborted once at 15 weeks and had a miscarriage at 7 weeks. She has 1 alive child. What is her FPAL?

A

1-0-2-1

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48
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Gestational age is computed starting from the first day of a woman’s last menstrual period (LMP).

A

True

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49
Q

Pregnant state, or the total number of
pregnancies a woman has had, including current pregnancy
A. Gravidity
B. Parity
C. Puerperium
D. Nulligravida

A

A. Gravidity

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50
Q

Number of pregnancies of a woman in which the fetus has reached viability
A. Gravidity
B. Parity
C. Puerperium
D. Nulligravida

A

B. Parity

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51
Q

Period of time after delivery in which the
reproductive tract returns to its normal, nonpregnant
condition
A. Gravidity
B. Parity
C. Puerperium
D. Nulligravida

A

C. Puerperium

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52
Q

Woman who is not and has never been
pregnant
A. Gravidity
B. Parity
C. Puerperium
D. Nulligravida

A

D. Nulligravida

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53
Q

Woman who is pregnant for the first
time
A. Primigravida
B. Multigravida
C. Primipara
D. Multipara

A

A. Primigravida

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53
Q

Woman who has had multiple pregnancies
A. Primigravida
B. Multigravida
C. Primipara
D. Multipara

A

B. Multigravida

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54
Q

The first pregnancy that has reached viability
A. Primigravida
B. Multigravida
C. Primipara
D. Multipara

A

C. Primipara

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55
Q

Woman with multiple pregnancies in which the fetus has reached viability
A. Primigravida
B. Multigravida
C. Primipara
D. Multipara

A

D. Multipara

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56
Q

Typically the first visible sign of puberty and the
hallmark of SMR 2 in FEMALES is the appearance of (1)___ between (2)___ years of age.

A
  1. breast buds
  2. 8 and 12
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57
Q

The first visible sign of puberty and the hallmark of SMR 2 in MALES is (1)___, beginning as early as (2)___ years old

A
  1. testicular enlargement
  2. 9.5
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58
Q

Peak growth in males occurs when testis volumes reach
approximately ___ cm³ during SMR 4.

A

9-10

59
Q

Some degree of breast tissue growth, typically bilateral,
occurs in 40-65% of males during SMR 2-3 due to a relative excess of what hormone stimulation?

A

Estrogenic

Note: This generally resolves with ongoing maturation.

60
Q

The intelligence which may manifest as common sense or astuteness. Intelligence from experience and common sense.

A

Conventional intelligence

61
Q

Intelligence that is measured by intelligence tests, resulting in what is known as intelligence quotient (IQ).

A

Formal intelligence or academic learning

62
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females:
The areola and breasts are in the same plane, with the papilla projecting above the areola.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

E. Stage 5

63
Q

What is the age of viability?

A

20 weeks or 5 months

64
Q

Children above the age of ___ may be able to provide some of their history of signs and symptoms.

A

Four

65
Q

Method when interviewing for pediatric hx: Use of silence and non-verbal indications of interest such as nodding, maintaining an open, receptive body stance, leaning forward,
and maintaining eye contact.
A. Active listening
B. Facilitation
C. Questioning
D. Reflection
E. Confrontation

A

A. Active listening

66
Q

Method when interviewing for pediatric hx: Form of door openers, rocking, or repeating. Used to encourage the patient to continue talking.
A. Active listening
B. Facilitation
C. Questioning
D. Reflection
E. Confrontation

A

B. Facilitation

67
Q

Method when interviewing for pediatric hx: Open-ended questions invite patients
to speak and specify content, specific questions that
probe and clarify
A. Active listening
B. Facilitation
C. Questioning
D. Reflection
E. Confrontation

A

C. Questioning

68
Q

Method when interviewing for pediatric hx: Response that repeats something
the patient just said; to provide feedback to the patient on
the information he gave
A. Active listening
B. Facilitation
C. Questioning
D. Reflection
E. Confrontation

A

D. Reflection

69
Q

Method when interviewing for pediatric hx: focuses on patient’s attention on a
component of his experience, such as feelings, behaviors, or statements
A. Active listening
B. Facilitation
C. Questioning
D. Reflection
E. Confrontation

A

E. Confrontation

70
Q

____ the questions, words, or phrases that the patient has just stated will aid the patient
to fully elaborate his thoughts
A. Door opener
B. Rocking
C. Repeating

A

C. Repeating

71
Q

Uses words to indicate to the
patient that the interviewer is listening and encourages the patient to go on narrating
relevant history.
A. Door opener
B. Rocking
C. Repeating

A

B. Rocking

72
Q

Refers to statements that invite the patient to describe symptoms fully.
A. Door opener
B. Rocking
C. Repeating

A

A. Door opener

73
Q

What does OLDCART stand for?

A

Onset
Location
Duration
Character/Quality
Aggravating/Alleviating
Relieving factors
Timing

74
Q

The APGAR score is taken at three intervals. Enumerate all

A

1 min, 5 mins, 15 mins

75
Q

Refers to an infant born after 37 completed weeks of gestation up to 42 weeks

A

Full term

76
Q

Refers to an infant born before 37 completed weeks of gestation, from 20-36 weeks

A

Preterm or premature

77
Q

Refers to fetus or embryo removed or expelled from
the uterus during the first half of gestation (20 weeks or less) or weighting less than 500 g or less than 25 cm

A

Aborted

78
Q

Refers to whenever the infant at or sometime after birth breathes or shows any other sign of life, such as heartbeat or spontaneous movement of voluntary muscle

A

Live birth

79
Q

Physiologic jaundice occurs between ___ to ___
day after birth

A

2nd to 8th

80
Q

Pathologic jaundice is jaundice that has occurred before the ___ day after birth

A

third

81
Q

Most common cause for pathologic jaundice

A

ABO incompatibility

82
Q

Menses typically begins ____ years after the onset of puberty, during SMR 3-4.

A

2.5

Note:
Average age: 12.5 years old; normal range:
9-15 years old

83
Q

Enumerate sequence of puberty events in males

A
  1. testicular enlargement (hallmark of SMR 2)
  2. pubic hair development
  3. penile growth (during SMR 3)
84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Sperm may be found in the urine by SMR 3 and nocturnal emissions may be noted at this time as well.

A

True

85
Q

Under the influence of what 2 hormones, will the seminiferous tubules, epididymis, seminal vesicles and prostate enlarge?

A
  1. luteinizing hormone
  2. testosterone
86
Q

Term that describes a score on a test that rates the subject’s cognitive ability as compared to the general population.

A

Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

87
Q

IQ tests use a standardized scale with ___ as the median score.

A

100

88
Q

On most tests, a score between 90 and 110, or the median plus or minus 10, indicates _____ intelligence.

A

average

89
Q

A score above (1)___ indicates exceptional intelligence and a score below (2)___ may indicate mental
retardation.

A
  1. 130
  2. 70
90
Q

Formula for obtaining the IQ score

A

IQ = (mental age / chronologic age) x 100

91
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: IQ of child is usually closely related to the parent’s IQ

A

True

In the majority of instances, it usually falls in the bracket of 15 points below the lower parent’s IQ and 15 points above the higher parent’s IQ.

92
Q

Enumerate the factors affecting intelligence

A
  1. Genetics
  2. Health, physical development, defects and fatigue
  3. Sex
  4. Social and economic deprivation
  5. Emotional factors
93
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Boys excel in physical science and mathematics, while girls are superior in humanities.

A

True

94
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A clear vaginal discharge may be present before
menarche.

A

True

95
Q

The timing of menarche is determined largely by ____.

A

genetics

Additional: Contributing factors likely include adiposity, chronic illness, nutritional status, and the psychosocial environment.

96
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Less visible changes in puberty in females include enlargement of the ovaries, uterus, labia, and clitoris, and thinning of the endometrium and vaginal mucosa.

A

False, it’s the thickening of the endometrium and vaginal mucosa

97
Q

Most popular method for maturity rating

A

Tanner Staging

98
Q

History and Physical Examination Approach: Deal with them as an independent individual
A. For Preschool age
B. For school age
C. For adolescent and young adult

A

B. For school age

99
Q

History and Physical Examination Approach: Privacy and confidentiality are essential. PE may be done without the parent if they request.
A. For Preschool age
B. For school age
C. For adolescent and young adult

A

C. For adolescent and young adult

100
Q

History and Physical Examination Approach: Use the correct blood pressure cuff size. Establish rapport with parents and patient. Attempt. to observe them.
A. For Preschool age
B. For school age
C. For adolescent and young adult

A

A. For Preschool age

101
Q

History and Physical Examination Approach: Get anthropometric measurements (height and weight)
and vital signs. Ensure that they are quiet and relaxed while assessing the vital signs.
A. For Preschool age
B. For school age
C. For adolescent and young adult

A

A. For Preschool age

102
Q

History and Physical Examination Approach: Communication is vital. You may ask for the symptoms and what relieves or provokes the symptoms.
A. For Preschool age
B. For school age
C. For adolescent and young adult

A

B. For school age

103
Q

History and Physical Examination Approach: Weight, height, BP, hearing evaluation, and visual acuity
are routinely done.
A. For Preschool age
B. For school age
C. For adolescent and young adult

A

B. For school age

104
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Measure the children aged < 2 years in the supine (recumbent) position for their height/length. Older children are measured standing.

A

True

105
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Measure head circumference in all infants aged < 2 years old.

A

True

106
Q

Loss of up to 7% of birth weight in first ___ days of life is normal; and no specific treatment is required.

A

five

107
Q

Newborns normally regain their birth weight by the time they are _____ days old.

A

10–14

108
Q

Breast bud development is normal in newborns, independent of sex. This is a consequence of their intrauterine exposure to what hormone?

A

Estrogen

Additional: Newborn girls may have bloody mucoid vaginal discharge.

109
Q

Under the heading ____, first document the child’s previous general health, then list the specific areas that should be explored.

A

Past illnesses

110
Q

Under vaccination history/immunizations, list the date and type of immunization, facility providing immunization, and any complications or reactions. Alternatively, you may also list “Up to date per parent report.”
A. Only the 1st statement is true
B. Only the 2nd statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

A

A. Only the 1st statement is true

Do not write “Up to date per parent report.” If no immunization record is available, then note this in the
problem section of the plan so this can be followed up on.

111
Q

Visual acuity can be assessed in children more than ___ years of age.

A

3

112
Q

Oropharyngeal Examination is usually done last in children aged less than ___ years old, after examination of all other systems.

A

7

112
Q

What can be done to avoid discomfort and crying in young children during the Cardiopulmonary Assessment?

A

Warm the stethoscope by rubbing it between your palms

113
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: As crying demonstrates airway integrity, a crying child is already sufficient to note airway integrity in the documentation under lung examination.

A

True

114
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In young children, the child’s response to the parent/guardian’s speech is usually sufficient to assess hearing in the setting of a well-child visit.

A

True

Note: If there are concerns regarding the child’s hearing or delayed speech, a complete hearing and speech evaluation may become necessary.

115
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The spleen and liver are palpable in all infants and newborns.

A

True

116
Q

Normal pH in fetal blood is ≥ ___.

A

7.2

Newborns are slightly more acidic than adults.

117
Q

A black-green, tarry substance that forms the newborn’s feces within 48
hours after birth

A

Meconium (First stool)

118
Q

In Otoscopic Examination, the examination of the ____ is important if acute suppurative otitis media is suspected.

A

tympanic membranes

119
Q

In the Eye Examination, gross exam of the _____ is important, especially
when pituitary lesions are suspected.

A

visual fields

120
Q

Normal length of newborns

A

~50 cm (48– 53 cm)

121
Q

Normal weight of newborns

A

∼7½ lb (2500 – 4600 g)

Note:
Boys = 6 lb, 6 oz to 8 lb, 9 oz (2.9–3.9 kg)
Girls = 6 lb, 2 oz to 8 lb, 6 oz (2.8–3.8 kg)

122
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The parent or caregiver serves as the historian in pediatric history taking.

A

True

Take note of:
1. Parent’s interpretation of signs, symptoms
2. Parent-child interactions
3. Parental behaviors/emotions

123
Q

Enumerate the 4 contents of the pediatric history that makes it different compared to an adult history

A
  1. Prenatal and birth history
  2. Developmental history
  3. Social history of family (environmental risks)
  4. Immunization history
124
Q

Pediatric history: includes preconceptual period and parent’s age, blood type and health before and since birth of child
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

A. Prenatal

125
Q

Pediatric history: includes social and family history, personal and
reproductive medical histories and especially knowledge of the current pregnancy
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

A. Prenatal

126
Q

Pediatric history: if the baby had any difficulty in sucking, any rashes,
excessive weight loss, or feeding difficulties; any jaundice, transfusion, or sepsis; any congenital anomalies or birth injuries
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

D. Neonatal

127
Q

Pediatric history: Rh typing and serology, maternal bleeding,
mother’s previous pregnancy history
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

B. Antenatal

128
Q

Pediatric history: Duration of pregnancy, birth weight, kind and
duration of labor, type of delivery, presentation, sedation and anesthesia (if known), state of the infant at birth, resuscitation required, onset of respiration, and first cry.
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

C. Natal

129
Q

Pediatric history: Health of mother during pregnancy. Medical supervision, drugs, diet, infections such as rubella, other illnesses, vomiting, toxemia, and other
complications.
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

A. Prenatal

130
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females: Breast & nipples have just started to grow. Breast tissue bud feels firm behind the nipple.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

B. Stage 2

131
Q

Pediatric history: Ask what the APGAR scores were, and if the baby went home from the hospital with the mother/parents or stayed there for longer, and if the baby went to the NICU.
A. Prenatal
B. Antenatal
C. Natal
D. Neonatal

A

D. Neonatal

132
Q

Tanner’s Scale for Females: Nipples & areolas are elevated & form an edge towards the breast. The breast has also grown a little larger.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. Stage 5

A

D. Stage 4

133
Q

In prenatal, birth, and developmental history, the subjective examination must have the ___ as the informant.

A

parent or caregiver

134
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The informant, their relationship to the patient, and reliability (expressed in %) must be written in the documentation of pediatric history.

A

True

135
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Past illnesses, review of systems, and family history are included in both pediatric and adult history

A

True

136
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The testes and scrotum measurement is the most commonly used method to rate sexual maturity in males. Penis measurement has no standard.

A

True

137
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Document the chief complaint and its duration in the patient’s or parent’s own words whenever possible (verbatim).

A

True

138
Q

Is it possible to say that a woman is multigravida but nulliparous (G1P0)?

A

Yes, this means the pregnancy did not reach the age of viability, so the obstetric history is (0-0-1-0).

138
Q

Most important in Pt Hx. statements that include age, sex, color, and duration of illness and “OLDCART”

A

Present illness (HPI)

139
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Blood pressure is not yet taken in newborn babies

A

True

140
Q

In newborns, the first passage of urine occurs within ___ hours after birth

A

24

141
Q

In newborns, the first passage of meconium occurs within ___ hours after birth

A

48

142
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Newborn girls may have bloody mucoid vaginal discharge as a consequence of intrauterine estrogen exposure

A

True

143
Q

The neck is often very short and difficult to examine in infants, however, it is nonetheless important to evaluate for _____ and examine the thyroid gland.

A

masses (e.g., cysts, nodes)

144
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Nephro/splenomegaly is normal at 6y/o and below

A

True

145
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The active movement of all four extremities is a reliable indicator of neuromuscular function.

A

True

(3) MS: Pediatric Conditions (11 decks)

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