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BioMed S2 R > S2 Revision Quizzes > Flashcards

S2 Revision Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

How is the glomerulus designed to aid filtration in the kidney? (2)

A

The efferent arteriole is a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole (increasing pressure within the glomerulus)
The glomeruli capillaries are 50x more permeable than usual allowing more filtrate to pass out of the blood.

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2
Q

What might be observed on a urinalysis of a patient with cystitis? (2)

A

Prescence of nitrates would indicate bacterial activity
Prescence of leucocytes and erthyrocytes

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3
Q

What is the role of angiotensin II? (1)

A

To raise blood pressure (vasoconstrictor and influence on ADH/Aldosterone)

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4
Q

Where is spermatozoa produced? Where is it then stored/matured? (2)

A

Spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules
Mature sperm are stored in the epidymus

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5
Q

What hormone surges at day 14? What does this cause? Name the structure formed in the ovary at this time and name a hormone it secretes (3)

A

Lutenising Hormone
Ovulation
Corpus Luteum - progesterone

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6
Q

At what stage of the menstrual cycle would someone with endometriosis get pain and why? (2)

A

During menses, because the ectopic endometrial tissue breaks down causing pain and swelling

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7
Q

Name four glial cells (4)

A

Astrocytes
Microglia
Schwann cells
Satellite cells

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8
Q

Give FIVE symptoms of Parkinson’s disease (5)

A

Shuffling gait
‘Pill rolling’*
Stooped posture
Rigidity
Mask-like face

*resting tremor

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9
Q

State TWO functions the myelin sheath. Name a condition in which this sheath is affected (3)

A

Isolates the axon
Increases nerve impulse speed
Multiple Sclerosis

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10
Q

Name FIVE components of the first line of immune defence (5)

A

Skin
Mucous membranes
Sweat
Tears
Mucocilary escalator

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11
Q

Explain the role of mast cells in inflammation (2)

A

Mast cells release heparin and histamine from granules in the cells
The histamine acts as a vasodilator
Heparine is anticoagulant increasing bloodflow
Together this causes swelling, redness and heat as tissues react.

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12
Q

Describe the function of interferons (1)

A

Prevent cell division in neighbouring cells to an infected cell (which releases the interferon)

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13
Q

Name the infective organism that causes oral candidiasis. Why would this be more common in HIV patients? (2)

A

Candida albicans
Depressed immunity provides opportunity for multiplication of the fungus

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14
Q

Define the following terms: (3)
Commensal:
Carcinogen:
Para-neoplastic syndrome:

A

Commensal: symbiotic relationship where one party benefits and the other party is not harmed
Carcinogen: an agent that causes carcinogenesis
Para-neoplastic syndrome: symptoms arising distant to the site of the tumour

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15
Q

List FOUR symptoms of breast cancer (2)

A

Skin changes (‘orange peel’ appearance)
Inverted nipple, discharge
Fixed painless lump
Swelling in axial lymph nodes

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16
Q

List FOUR symptoms of lung cancer (2)

A

Blood in the sputum*
Dry persistant coughing
Dyspnoea
Weight loss

*haemoptysis

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17
Q

What is the common appearance of a malignant melanoma? (1)

A

Enlarged lesion with irregular edges
Brown/black, occassionally red

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18
Q

Name the THREE auditory ossicles (3 marks)

A

Malleus, Incus, Stapes

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19
Q

Compare the different light sensitive cells found in the retina (2 marks)

A

Rods, peripheral, black and white only
Cones, focussed in the fovea centralis, colour vision

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20
Q

State FOUR functions of the urinary system (2 marks)

A
  1. Remove metabolic waste products
  2. Regulate water and electrolyte balance
  3. Regulate blood glucose levels
  4. Regulate blood volume and pressure
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21
Q

Label any FOUR components of the nephron on the following image (2 marks)

A

Bowman’s Capsule
Glomerulus
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
Loop of Henlé
Distal Convoluted Tubule
Collecting Duct

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22
Q

Name the part of the nephron where most reabsorption occurs (1 mark)

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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23
Q

Describe the function of the Ureters (1 mark)

A

To transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder

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24
Q

A female patient presents to you at the CNM clinic, indicating that she is suffering from recurrent urinary tract infections.
1. Give ONE reason why women are at a higher risk of urinary infections such as cystitis (1 mark)
2. List FOUR symptoms of cystitis (2 marks)

A
  1. Women have a shorter urethra than men (~4cm)
  2. Cloudy, smelly urine; Dysuria (painful, burning), Increased frequency; Lower abdomen pain
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25
Q

Explain TWO reasons why an individual might develop Pyelonephritis (2 marks)

A
  1. Ascending bacterial infection from the bladder
  2. Diabetes meillitus
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26
Q

Indicate TWO clinical investigations that would assist in the diagnosis of pyelonephritis (1 mark)

A

Urinalysis (dipstick/microscopy)
Blood test
Ultrasound

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27
Q

Explain how a disease affecting the nephron might result in oedema (1 mark)

A

Damage to the glomerulus can result in the loss of plasma proteins from the blood into the filtrate. Hypoalbuminaemia reduces the osmotic pressure of the blood and results in water accumulating in the interstitial tissues.

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28
Q

Describe the changes that occur to the endometrium through-out the menstrual cycle. You should consider the relevant hormones in your response (3 marks)

A

Pre-ovulatory phase: Days 1-5 Drop in progesterone causes the endometrial lining (stratum functionalis) to be shed during menses.
Days 6-13 Rising oestrogen causes stratum basalis to regenerate new stratum functionalis. Days 14-28, the corpus luteum produces oestrogen and progesterone to maintain stratum functionalis (this will be maintained if ovum is fertilised and implants). Otherwise, corpus luteum degenerates and drop in progesterone triggers new cycle.

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29
Q

Complete the table of placental hormones and their functions (2 marks)

A

Targets ligaments and relaxes them
Increases glucose and lipids in maternal blood

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30
Q

Describe the function of ‘fimbrae’ (1 mark)

A

Finger-like projections at the end of each fallopian tube that ‘sweep’ an ova into the tube at ovulation

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31
Q

Explain what is specifically meant by ‘Primary Dysmenorrhoea’ (1 mark)

A

Excessive prostaglandins trigger the myometrium to contract causing pain during menstruation

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32
Q

Explain why women experience painful periods in endometriosis (2 marks)

A

Ectopic endometrial tissue follow the menstrual cycle, meaning that they bleed during menses, the blood has no exit and can cause inflammation and pain.

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33
Q

State TWO symptoms of endometriosis (other than dysmenorrhoea (1 mark)

A

Infertility
Dyspareunia

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34
Q

List TWO symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy (1 mark)

A

Amenorrhoea
Vaginal bleeding

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35
Q

Explain what is meant by the ‘Central Nervous System’ (1 mark)

A

The brain and spinal cord.

36
Q

State the function of ‘Schwann cells’ (1 mark)

A

Schwann cells are responsible for the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system

37
Q

Complete the following paragraph relating to action potentials (3 marks)

The resting potential of a neuron describes the presence of ____ ions in the extracellular fluid, whilst ____ ions reside within the intracellular fluid. The resting membrane charge is approximately ____mV. During depolarisation, ____ ions go ____ the cell, where the charge reaches ____mV.

A
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
  • -70mV
  • Sodium
  • Into
  • 30mV
38
Q

Give ONE function of the following neurotransmitters:

  1. Serotonin (1 mark)
  2. Endorphins (1 mark)
A
  1. Stimulates gut motility and secretions
  2. Reduces pain sensitivity
39
Q

List FOUR risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease (2 marks)

A

Heavy metal toxicity
HIgh levels of cortisol (stress)
Chronic inflammation
Vitamin B12 deficiency

40
Q

Compare what happens pathologically in the brain of a patient with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease (4 marks)

A

Alzheimer’s : beta amalyoid plaques form, degeneration of neurons in cortex/cerebral atrophy/less Ach
Parkinson’s : loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substatia nigra/accumulation of Lewy Bodies

41
Q

Name the inner TWO layers of the meninges (1 mark)

A

Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

42
Q

Describe the function of the blood brain barrier (1 mark)

A

Prevents unwanted substances entering the brain

43
Q

Complete the following table to indicate the functions of certain areas of the brain (3 marks)

A

Correction of ongoing movement, balance and posture
Respiratory and Circulatory centers
Relay centre for sensory information

44
Q

Name ONE cranial nerve involved in movement of the eyeball (1 mark)

A

CN III Ocularmotor
CN IV Trochlear
CN VI Abducens

45
Q

State TWO headache red flags (1 mark)

A

First headache over age of 50
Thunderclap headache
Headache associated with other symptoms ( blurred/double vision, uneven pupils, stiff neck)

46
Q

Explain how the presentation of a migraine and tension headache might differ (4 marks)

A

Migraine: retro-orbital, pulsating pain, moderate to severe pain, lasting 4-72 hours. Possibly accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia
Possibly preceded by an ‘aura’ (altered sensations)
Tension headache: diffuse, bilateral pain, dull (non-pulsating) pain, lasting hours to weeks. Possibly accompanied by loss of appetite.

47
Q

Explain how an ankle or knee jerk response could help to determine the presence of a central nervous system lesion (1 mark)

A

An exaggerated response could indicate CNS lesion

48
Q

Explain the difference between a ‘self-antigen’ and ‘foreign-antigen’ (1 mark)

A

A ‘self-antigen’ is normally recognised and tolerated by the body’s immune system. Whereas a ‘foreign antigen’ should precipate an immune response.

49
Q

Briefly explain how phagocytes ‘digest’ cells (1 mark)

A

Phagocytes ‘engulf’ foreign or defective cells and they are held in phagolysosomes within the cytoplasm. Lysozymes can then be used to break down the contents into fragments to excrete by exocytosis.

50
Q

Name TWO antigen presenting cells (2 marks)

A

Macrophages
B-cells

51
Q

State what component of the immune system is being illustrated in the image below (1 mark)

A

An antibody

52
Q

Explain what is happens in a Type I Hypersensitivity reaction (1 mark)

A

True allergic reaction
IgE antibody binds to mast cells causing release of histamine

53
Q

List TWO risk factors for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) (1 mark)

A

Low vitamin D
High oestrogen

54
Q

List FOUR symptoms of SLE (2 marks)

A

Photosensitvity
Raynaud’s syndrome
Vasculitis
Butterfly rash

55
Q

Explain whether you agree or disagree with the following statement (1 mark)
“All microbes are pathogenic”

A

Do not agree. Some bacteria exist in a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with humans and many in a commensal relationship with no harm

56
Q

Explain the relevance of ‘Antione Bechamp’ in the history of microbes (1 mark)

A

Bechamp proposed ‘Terrain theory’ which proposed that microbes were opportunistic in nature and the state of the environment containing the microbes was more important. He therefore believed that promoting health of the body was more important that killing microbes.

57
Q

Explain how a bacterial ‘exotoxin’ differs from an ‘endotoxin’ (2 marks)

A

Exotoxins are released by live microbes (gram positive and gram negative) they are highly toxic.
Endotoxins are only released by gram negative bacteria upon their death, they are less toxic.

58
Q

Explain how viruses reproduce (1 mark)

A

Using the host cell’s reproductive apparatus

59
Q

Describe what happens pathologically in HIV (1 mark)

A

The HIV attacks CD4 cells and therefore reduces immune capacity allowing opportunistic infections to develop

60
Q

Name TWO opportunistic diseases commonly associated with HIV (1 mark)

A

Tuberculosis
Herpes simplex

61
Q

Explain how poor liver function could predispose an individual to cancer (1 mark)

A

Reduction in ability to remove toxins

62
Q

Explain what you understand by a ‘Stage 0’ tumour (1 mark)

A

Pre-cancerous state

63
Q

List FOUR symptoms of breast cancer (2 marks)

A
  1. Painless, unilateral fixed lump
  2. Overlying skin changes
  3. Inverted and discharging nipple
  4. Enlarged axillary lymph nodes
64
Q

Name ONE other cancer affecting women that is generally oestrogen- dependent (1 mark)

A

Ovarian cancer

65
Q

Label TWO structures on the image of the eye below that are involved in ‘refraction’ of light (2 marks)

A

Cornea
Lens

66
Q

State the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on pupil size (1 mark)

A

SNS - pupil dilation

67
Q

Compare the functions of rod and cone cells (2 marks)

A

Rod - detect black and white
Cones - detect colour

68
Q

Describe the function of the ‘fovea centralis’ (1 mark)

A

Visual acuity

69
Q

Explain what happens to the eye in ‘glaucoma’ (1 mark)

A

Increased intraocular pressure

70
Q

Complete the paragraph below, relating to the ear (3 marks)

Sound waves reach the ____, where they are converted to mechanical vibrations. These vibrations are carried along the three auditory ossicles: malleus, ________ and ____.

This vibration against the oval window creates a ____ wave in the inner ear, which causes the bending of hair cells called ____. This bending motion generates an action potential along the ____ nerve.

A

Tympanic membrane
Incus
Stapes
Fluid
Stereocilia
Vestibulocochlear

71
Q

List TWO symptoms of labyrinthitis (1 mark)

A

Vertigo
Nausea

72
Q

Explain why children are more vulnerable to developing otitis media (1 mark)

A

The eustachian tube is more horizontal in children, permitting the passage of infection from the throat

73
Q

State TWO risk factors for the development of oestrogen-positive breast cancer (1 mark)

A

Early menarche
Combined oral contraceptive pill

74
Q

Explain how chemotherapy works in the body (1 mark)

A

Destroys rapidly dividing cells (including healthy ones)

75
Q

Name ONE cancer that can be associated with the following tumour markers:
1. CA-125 (1 mark):
2. M2-PK (1 mark):

A

CA-125 = Ovarian cancer
M2-PK = colorectal cancer

76
Q

State TWO dietary factors that could create an acidic environment in the body (1 mark)

A

Refined sugar
Red meats

77
Q

Explain the role of ‘oncogenes’ in cancer development (1 mark)

A

Oncogenes cause the overproduction of growth factors and increase cell division (uncontrolled/rapid)

78
Q

Explain what is meant by ‘sepsis’ (1 mark)

A

The over reaction of the body’s immune system to infection (especially once in the bloodstream). Leading to multiple organ failure

79
Q

Name the group of allopathic medications prescribed to HIV patients (1 mark)

A

HAART
Highly Active Anti Retroviral Therapy

80
Q

Indicate the type of pathogen that causes the following infectious diseases (3 marks)
1. Impetigo
2. Malaria
3. Hepatitis

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Protozoa
  3. Virus
81
Q

Explain the difference in activity between Natural Killer and Cytotoxic T- cells (2 marks)

A

NK cells are non-specific and form part of the second level of innate defence. They will attack anything they do not recognise as ‘self’.
Cytotoxic T-cells have learned to attack only specific antigens and will bind to these when called upon by T-Helper cells.
The actions of the two cells are similar, they release granzymes and perforin to causes cytolysis to the foreign cell.

82
Q

State TWO symptoms that are more suggestive of Motor Neuron disease than Alzheimer’s (1 mark)

A

Dropping objects
Difficulty swallowing
Dyspnoea

83
Q

In a synapse, name the ion that directly causes the exocytosis of synaptic vesicles (1 mark)

A

Calcium

84
Q

Draw a sperm, labelling TWO of its features (2 marks)

A

Acrosome
Head (containing nucleus)
Midsection (containing mitochondria)
Tail

85
Q

List THREE risk factors for gastric cancer (3)

A

Salty food
Smoking
Chronic gastritis

BioMed S2 R (34 decks)

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