Rules to know Flashcards
1
Q
Punctuation in Greek
- Full stop?
- Comma?
- Colon or semi-colon?
- Question mark?
- When is an apostrophe used?
A
Full stop = . (same as English)
Comma = , (same as English)
Colon or semi-colon = · (note how it is above the line)
Question mark = ;
An apostrophe is used when an elision has taken place and the final vowel of the first word is dropped eg, in prepositions.
2
Q
What are the patterns of the form of a verb called?
A
Conjugation
3
Q
What are the rules of contractions for E-contract verbs?
A
ε + ε = ει
ε + ο = ου
ε + diphthong or long vowel = the ε is absorbed and disappears
4
Q
What are the patterns of the ending form of nouns called?
A
Declensions
5
Q
What are some special uses of the definite article?
A
- Names - Greek often uses the definite article before a name eg, ὁ Δαυιδ = David (not ‘the David’)
- Abstract nouns - Greek normally uses the definite article with abstract nouns or generalisations eg, ὁ ἀνθρωπος can mean ‘the person’, but can also mean ‘humanity’ in general; similarly ὁ νομος can mean ‘law’ (as a concept) as well as ‘the law’. Another example would be if you said ‘I am singing about love’, in Greek you would say it as ‘the love’ as it is about love in the abstract concept.
- God - writers from a monotheistic perspective will also normally use the article before θεος (similar to the distinction in English between ‘god’ and ‘God’)
- Turning adjectives & participles into nouns
6
Q
Does the vocative require an article?
A
No
7
Q
Uses of the dative?
A
- Denote the person or thing to or for which anything is done (technically known as the indirect object)
- Instrumental dative: the instrument is used in the dative, without a preposition
- Some verbs require a dative after it eg, πιστευω, προσκυνεω, ακολουθεω, προσεχω
8
Q
What is special about neuter plural nouns?
A
They take on singular verbs
Eg, τα τεκνα τηρει τον νομον (not τηρουσιν)
9
Q
In feminine nouns that end with -α, is there variation in all of it compared to the -η endings?
A
No, the variations only occur in the singular forms only
- α
- αν
- ας
- ᾳ
10
Q
How do you write the vocative?
A
The vocative is the same as the nominative. It is always the same as the nominative plural. It is also almost always the same as the nominative singular, except the singular nominative nouns with -ος endings, in which case it changes to -ε.
Eg, Κυριε, ἐλεησον (Lord, have mercy!)
11
Q
In an elision, what happens if the first letter of the next word has a rough breathing?
A
τ will become θ, and a π will become φ
Eg, ‘under sin’ will be ὑφ’ ἁμαρτιαν (there has been a change from ὑπο -> ὑπ’ -> ὑφ’
Other examples:
- επι to εφ’
- κατα to καθ’
- μετα to μεθ’
12
Q
How do you denote the instrument and agent in Greek?
A
An instrument is an inanimate object by means of which the action of the verb happens. In Greek, this is normally expressed by the instrument just occuring in the dative, without a preposition. Eg, God makes the heavens with a word = ὁ θεος ποιει τους οὐρανους λογῳ
However, sometimes an instrument is expressed by the preposition ἐν + dative
An agent is a living being by means of which the action of the verb happens. In Greek, this is expressed by the preposition ὑπο + gen. Eg, The gospel was proclaimed by Peter = το εὐαγγελιον ἐκηρυξεν ὑπο του Πετρου
13
Q
How do you distinguish ‘with’ used in the instrumental sense (eg, made the heavens with a word), from ‘with’ used as ‘along with’?
A
If ‘with’ is used in the instrumental sense, the instrument is used in the dative without a preposition. Eg, God makes the heavens with a word = ὁ θεος ποιει τους οὐρανους λογῳ. (Remember, sometimes the instrument is indicated by the preposition ἐν + dat)
If ‘with’ is used as ‘along with’, then the preposition μετα + gen is used (or more rarely συν + dat). Eg, ‘I depart with Peter’ = ὑπαγω μετα του Πετρου
14
Q
When is the capital letter used in Greek?
A
Used less frequently in Greek. Used for:
- beginning of speech
- names
- beginning of paragraphs
Not used for start of sentences
15
Q
If Ρ/ρ is the start of a word, what happens?
A
It must have a rough breathing, because in Greek ρ is always aspirated.
Eg, ῥαββι
16
Q
How do you use adjectives attributively?
A
When a noun is qualified by both the article and an (attributive) adjective, there are two possible word orders in Greek eg, “they see the beautiful land”
- βλεπουσιν την καλην γην
- βλεπουσιν την γεν την καλην (if the adjective comes after the noun, see how the article is repeated).
When there is no definite article, things are simpler and the adjective can come either before or after the noun it qualifies eg, “they see a beautiful land”
- βλεπουσιν καλην γην
- βλεπουσιν γην καλην
17
Q
How do you use adjectives in a predicative way?
A
The adjective needs to agree with the noun in gender/case/number. Because the adjective itself completes the sentence, it is called a complement, and the use is a predicative use. To tell the difference between the attributive and predicative use, try deleting the adjective from the sentence -> If it still makes sense, the adjective was attributive; if it doesn’t, it was predicative.
Two options eg, “the law is holy”:
- ὁ νομος ἐστιν ἁγιος
- ἁγιος ἐστιν ὁ νομος
As you can see, predicative adjectives are never immediately preceded by the article. Also, it is quite unusual to have a predicative when there is no definite article, but when this does happen the options are predictably νομος ἐστιν ἁγιος or ἁγιος ἐστιν νομος.
However, often the verb ‘to be’ is dropped out. It is normally easy to spot when this happens (to distinguish it from a attributive use) as:
- if the sentence does not appear to have a verb in it, the verb ‘to be’ must have dropped out. So go looking for another verb, and if it’s not there, the ‘to be’ verb has been omitted and the adjective is meant to be predicative.
- the adjective will be in a predicative position.
Eg, “the law is holy and the commandment is holy and just and good” is:
ὁ νομος ἁγιος και ἡ ἐντολη ἁγια και δικαια και ἀγαθη
18
Q
How do you use adjectives as nouns?
A
You can create nouns from adjectives by putting it with the article.
Eg, “the good person/man” is ὁ ἀγαθος
19
Q
See examples of how sandwich constructions can be made using:
- adjectives
- prepositions
- genitives
A
βλεπω το καλον ἱερον (as opposed to βλεπω το ἱερον το καλον)
βλεπω το ἐν τῃ γῃ ἱερον
βλεπω το του κυριου ἱερον
20
Q
What is the prepatory use of ἐστιν & εἰσιν?
A
If they come at the start of a sentence, they mean ‘there is’ and ‘they are’ respectively
21
Q
Can a noun be used as a complement?
A
Yes, and because the noun that is functioning as a complement is not an object but agrees with the noun it is describing, it will therefore also be in the nominative. Eg, “the son is the lord”
ὁ υἱος εστιν ὁ κυριος
Because they are both in the nominative, to distinguish the subject from the complement:
- the subject comes before the complement (ie, word order is important) or,
- the article is dropped from the complement. Therefore, if the complement precedes the subject it cannot have the definite article.
Important example: θεος ἠν (was) ὁ λογος - “the word was God”. Because “God’ is the complement preceding the subject, it can’t have the article. Therefore, gramatically we can’t tell if the author meant the word was θεος or ὁ θεος, but we do know the sentence means ‘the word was (the) God’ with a capital G from context in the bible.
22
Q
What can present tense indicate in greek?
A
Indicates present time, but does not distinguish aspect. Therefore present tense in Greek can either be continuous (‘I am untying’) or undefined/simple (‘I untie’)
23
Q
Does future tense in Greek indicate different aspects?
A
No, there is only one choice.
24
Q
What tenses are available for past time? What is the difference between the two?
A
Imperfect & Aorist
Aorist: either undefined, or single past action (eg, I untied)
Imperfect:
- Continuous (‘I was untying’)
- Repeated process (‘I used to untie’)
- Process in the past that is viewed as just beginning (‘I began to untie’)
Eg, “He opened his mouth (Aorist) and began to teach (Imperfect)”
25
What happens when an ἐ augment is added to various vowels?
See image. However, note that it is more common for ευ to remain unchanged, despite ηυ being more logical.
26
What happens when σ is added to various letters in the future and aorist tenses?
What is the exception to dentals?
Labials (π β φ) become ψ
Dentals (τ δ ζ θ) become σ
Gutturals (κ γ χ) become ξ
Note: σσ behaves as a guttural and becomes ξ
The exception is κραζω which behaves as if it were κρασσω. Therefore since σσ + σ = ξ, its future is κραξω, and its aorist is ἐκραξα.
27
What moods are there?
What are the tenses in other moods? What does the tense actually indicate?
Moods:
- indicative
- imperative
- infinitive
- participle
- subjunctive
Tenses: in other moods, there is no future or imperfect tense. There is only present and aorist tense. The present and aorist tense do not indicate a difference in *time*, but a difference in *aspect*.
28
What is the default tense in imperative and infinitive verbs?
The Aorist.
29
What is the difference between the present and aorist participle?
What would be the wooden translations be, and what words are commonly used to make them into good English?
It is indicating the timing of the participle in relation to the main verb of the sentence.
- Present participles indicate a simultaneous process eg, "**while he was walking alongside** the sea of Galilee, he saw two brothers"
- Aorist participles indicate a sequential process, where the action of the participle occurred before the action of the main verb eg, "**but when Herod heard this**, he said..."
Wooden translations:
- Present: untying
- Aorist: having untied
Good English:
- Present: often involves 'while' or 'as'
- Aorist: often involves 'when' or 'after'
30
How can participles be used as nouns?
You add an article in front of the participle.
Eg, οἱ τον λογον ἀκουσαντες = the ones who heard the word
31
For the 'to be' verbs, is there an aorist tense?
No, there is only imperfect for the past tense.
32
What are the vocatives for masculine nouns that end in -η and -ας?
The vocatives end in -α
Eg,:
- προφητα
- Ἰουδα
33
What is the exception for the gentive declension for masculine nouns that end in -ας?
If the stem ends in ε, ι, or ρ (eg, Ἠλιας), the genitive ends in -ου (Ἠλιου), copying προφητης
34
What are the 1st declension nouns?
What are the 2nd declension nouns?
See table.
**1st declension nouns:**
* typical feminine nouns (-η feminine nouns, -α pure and impure feminine nouns)
* some atypical masculine nouns (-ης and -ας endings eg, προφητης & Ηλιας)
**2nd declension nouns:**
* typical masculine nouns (-ος ending masculine nouns)
* atypical feminine nouns (-ος ending eg, ὁδος, Αἰγυπτος, ἐρημος)
* neuter nouns
Note, that for the 1st declension masculine nouns, it includes both the -ης and -ας ending masculine nouns.
Note, 1st declension nouns are mostly feminine nouns. The masculine nouns within the 1st declension are the atypical ones with feminine endings.
Also note, the -ης ending nouns are typically standard nouns, while the -ας ending nouns tend to only be major names eg, Elijah (Ἠλιας), Satan (Σατανας)
35
How do you differentiate 'but' from the neuter nominative/accusative plural form of ἀλλος? (both are ἀλλα)
To differentiate ἀλλὰ ('but') from ἄλλα ('other' in neuter nom/acc plural form of ἀλλος), note the accents that are used.
But = ἀλλὰ
Other (neuter nom/acc plural) = ἄλλα
36
When expressing posession, what must the following all have?
ἐμος, σος, μου, ἡμων, σου, ὑμων
ἐμος, σος, μου, ἡμων, σου, ὑμων **all need the article.**
37
Which words are timid words? (aka, *post-positives*)
1. ἀρα
2. γαρ
3. δε
4. μεν
5. οὐν
6. τε
7. ποτε
38
How many ways can you say 'because'?
* δια + accusative
* γαρ (timid word)
* διοτι
* ὁτι
39
How many ways can you say 'if'?
* εἰ
* εἰτε
40
How many ways can you say therefore/consequently?
* οὐν (timid word)
* διο
* ἀρα (timid word, weak word)
41
'Never' vs. 'Always'
Never = μηποτε
Always = παντοτε
42
How many ways can you say 'indeed'?
* γε (weak word)
* μεν (timid word; indeed, in another words, on one hand)
43
'What kind?' (question word) vs. 'of such a kind/such' (adjective)
'How much/How great?' (question word) vs. 'as/how much/great as' (adjective)
* ποιος vs. τοιουτος (and its declensions)
* ποσος vs. ὁσος (and its declensions)
44
Can the relative clause come in the middle of a sentence?
Can the relative clause come first?
Yes, the relative clause can come in the middle of the sentence.
Eg, The children whom I was teaching are crying out
τα τεκνα ἁ ἐδιδασκον κραζει
Yes, the relative clause come first.
Eg, I like the things which I see (ie, "I like what I see")
φιλω αὐτα ἁ βλεπω -\> φιλω ἁ βλεπω -\> ἁ βλεπω φιλω
45
How do you ask a slanted question?
You use:
- **μη** or **μητι** for a question which you expect the answer to be 'no'
- **οὐ** or **οὐχι** for a question which you expect the answer to be 'yes'
Eg,
- Μη και ὑμεις θελετε ὑπαγειν; = 'You don't also wish to go away, do you?' or 'Surely you don't also wish to go away?'
- Οὐχ οὑτος ἐστιν ὁν ζητουσιν; = 'This is whom they are seeking, isn't it?' or 'Surely this is the one they are seeking?'
- και ελεγον, Οὐχι υἱος ἐστιν Ἰωσηφ οὑτος; = 'And they were saying, 'Isn't this Joseph's son?'
46
How do you differentiate a slanted question use of οὐ/μη from its standard negative use
If used in a slanted question, it will usually come first in the sentence, but this is very unusual for simple negatives.
Furthermore, if it is used as a slanted question, there will also be a question mark ';'
47
What is another use of μητι other than for slanted questions?
For asking hesitant questions wondering whether something could be the case.
Eg, μητι οὑτος ἐστιν ὁ Χριστος; = 'Could he be the Messiah?' or 'He cannot be the Messiah, can he?'
48
How do you mark out a direct statement in Greek?
4 different ways:
1. ὁτι used as the equivalent to opening speech marks " to introduce the direct statement (so doesn't have to have a word translation 'that', it functions as a spech punctuatation mark)
2. λεγων used as the equivalent to opening speech marks " to introduce the direct statement (so doesn't hvae to have a word translation 'saying', it functions as a spech punctuatation mark). Eg, και ἐκηρυσσεν λεγων Ἐρχεται = "and he used to preach (saying), 'He is coming'"
3. Both ὁτι and the participle λεγων is used together (ie, 1 and 2 combined)
4. Neither is used, and nothing marks out the beginning of the direct statement.
Furthermore, in most printed texts the beginning of the direct statement is marked out by a capital letter.
49
How does Greek express an indirect statement?
Using ὁτι
Eg, θεωρω ὁτι προφητης εἰ συ - I see that you are a prophet
50
What tense should the indirect statement be in?
Greek uses the tense of the original words or thoughts. So the tense is different to English.
For example, "She heard that Jesus was coming"
ήκουσεν ὁτι Ἰησους ἐρχεται
Notice how ἐρχεται is in the present tense because the actual report of what she heard was "Jesus **is** coming"
Another example, "The Jews did not believe about him that he had been blind"
οὐχ ἐπιστευσαν οἱ Ἰουδαιοι περι αὐτου ὁτι ἠν τυφλος
Notice how the actual report in the Greek is 'he **was** blind' rather than 'he **had been** blind'
51
How does Greek express time?
The time expression depends on the case of the time word.
* Accusative = duration of time/how long eg, δυο ἡμερας ἀκουουσιν του κυριου is '**for two days** they listen to the Lord'
* Genitive = during the time eg, της ἡμερας ἀκουουσιν του κυριου is '**During the day** they listen to the Lord' or '**By day** they listen to the Lord'
* Dative = a particular point in time/at which eg, τῃ ἡμερᾳ ἀκουουσιν του κυριου is '**On the day** they listen to the Lord'
Sometimes, ἐν can be used with the dative to express a particular point in time, but makes no difference to the meaning. Eg, ἐν τῃ ἡμερᾳ ἀκουουσιν του κυριου
Notice how in the first example ἡμερας could be singular genitive, but it is accusative plural because of the preceding δυο. In contrast, in the second example the ἡμερας could be accusative plural but it is genitive singular because of the preceding της.
52
What endings does the 2nd aorist usually use?
2nd aorist verbs in the **indicative** mood use **imperfect** tense endings.
2nd aorist verbs in **other** moods use **present** tense endings.
53
Which verbs are the liquid verbs?
Some liquid verbs have no stem change. How do you differentiate present and future tense?
Verbs that end with μ ν ρ λ
Good way to learn it is that they are the '**_m_**i**_n_**e**_r_**a**_l_**' verbs.
Some liquid verbs have no change in stem (eg, μενω and κρινω). This results in 4 out of 6 of the present and future tense paradigms being identical (μενω μενεις μενει μενομεν μενετε μενουσιν vs. μενω μενεις μενει **μενουμεν μενειτε** μενουσιν) - the bolded ones are the different ones. The only way to differentiate the ones that are the same is that the **future** tense will have a **circumflex** accent.
54
What are the 3 things you need to know with 3rd declension nouns?
1. The definite article - this is because unlike 1st/2nd declension nouns, the masculine and feminine declines identically. So you cannot tell apart the gender of the noun based on the endings. The neuter is similar to the masculine/feminine declension, but not identical.
2. The nominative singular form - this is because the nominative singular form is highly irregular with no pattern across the nouns.
3. The genitive singular - you use the genitive singular to deduce the stem of the noun. The reason the genitive singular is chosen instead of the accusative singular, is that in the neuter declension, the accusative singular is identical to the nominative singular so will be equally irregular and will not follow a pattern across the different nouns.
55
What is the declension of 3rd declension masculine & feminine nouns (consonant endings)?
What is the vocative?
What is important about the dative plural?
See attached image.
Note that the σ + consonant rule is pretty much the same from before, except the ζ has been swapped for ν.
56
What is different about the family group 3rd declension nouns compared to other 3rd declension nouns?
What is the vocative?
They have a slightly irregular pattern. See attached image.
The vocative is the same as the nominative, except in 'father' which alone has the vocative different to the nominative as 'πατ**_ε_**ρ'.
57
What is the declension of the 3rd declension neuter nouns (***consonant*** endings)?
See attached image.
It is very similar to the 3rd declension masculine/feminine nouns. Main differences are:
- the accusative singular is identical to the irregular nominative singular
- the nominative and accusative plural are the stem (worked out from the genitive singular) + α
58
Can you have adjectives in the 3rd declension? What kind of adjectives in particular follow the 3rd declension?
What do you need to know about the adjectives following the 3rd declension?
What are identical within the 3rd declension of adjectives?
Can a noun and its qualifying adjective have different endings?
Yes. *Comparative* adjectives in particular follow the 3rd declension. As a side note: Adjectives have 3 degrees:
1. Positive (normal adjectives) eg, 'big'
2. Comparative (usually add 'er' at the end of the word in english) eg, 'bigger'
3. Superlative eg, 'biggest'
There are 3 things you need to know about adjectives that follow the 3rd declension:
- Nominative singular forms of BOTH the (1) masc/fem & (2) neuter, which will be irregular.
- (3) masc/fem genitive singular to get the stem for the rest of the paradigms.
Note the masc/fem accusative singular is identical to the neuter nominative/accusative plural.
Yes, a noun with its qualifying adjective can have different endings if they are from different families, even when they are agreeing in gender, case, and number. Eg, ὁ ἀγαθος ἐχει **_πλειονας φιλους_** = 'The good man has more friends'. Both 'more' and 'friends' are in the masculine accusative plural, but have different endings as one is in the 3rd declension (**_πλειονας_**) and the other is in the 2nd declension (**_φιλους_**).
59
When using comparative adjectives, how do you use them?
1. The normal way of expressing comparison is by putting the **second noun** in the **genitive**. For example, ἐγω ἐχω πλειον σου = 'I have more than you'. The 'you' is in the genitive, as it is being compared against 'I'.
2. Another alternative is to use the word **ἠ** (note the smooth breathing), with the two words being compared put into the **same case**. For example, ἐγω ἐχω πλειον ἠ συ = 'I have more than you'. The 'you' is in the nominative, the same as the 'I', as the ἠ is used.
60
**3rd declension nouns with *vowel* stem endings:**
- what are the 3 different endings?
- what is the gender of each?
- how does each decline?
- What about nouns that have stems that end with -υ?
The 3 different vowel stem endings are:
* -ι
* -ευ
* -ε
The -ι ending are all feminine. Frequently describe abstract nouns.
The -ευ ending are all masculine. Frequently describe 'occupations'.
The -ε ending are all neuter.
For how each decline, see attached image.
* Note how the neuter nouns decline similarly to the standard neuter 3rd declension (like αἱμα/αἱματος) with the -ε contraction rules
Nouns that have stems that end with -υ is not that common. There is only one word in this family that is common which is 'fish' ἰχθυς. It's declension is quite similar to the standard 3rd declension nouns (like ἀστηρ) except the accusative singular: ἰχθυς, ἰχθυν, ἰχθυος, ἰχθυι; ἰχθυες, ἰχθυας, ἰχθυων, ἰχθυσιν.
61
How do adjectives (with stems that end with the vowel -ε) that follow 3rd declension endings decline?
Decline similar to ἐθνος.
See attached image.
Key points:
- contractions that occur with the -ε stem ending
- declines pretty similarly to the standard neuter 3rd declension (like αἱμα/αἱματος) with the -ε contraction rules, the main exception to the declension being the masculine/feminine accusative plural
- note how just like with other adjective declensions, the masc/fem accusative singular is the same as the neuter nom/acc plural
62
What are the 4 things you need to know for hybrid declension nouns?
There are 3-1-3 hybrid declensions, because it follows the standard 3rd declension pattern for masculine & neuter but in the feminine it follows the 1st declension. Think of it as a 3rd declension that wants to have distinct feminine endings, and because in the 3rd declension there are no separate feminine endings it borrows it from the 1st declension.
The 4 things you need to know are:
1. Masculine nominative singular (unique ending)
2. Feminine nominative singular (to derive the feminine declension)
3. Neuter nominative singular (unique ending)
4. Masculine/neuter genitive singular (to derive the stem for the remainder of the masculine/neuter declension)
63
Does Greek have double negatives in clauses/sentences?
In Greek, a sentence is either negative or not. If it is negative (ie, it contains οὐ or μη), then other suitable forms in the sentence will also be in the negative. That is, in Greek two negatives make a negative, not as in English where two negatives make a positive (eg, οὐ βλεπω οὐδεν means 'I did not see anything', not 'I did not see nothing', which in English implies that you did see something!).
64
How are participles both like adjectives & verbs?
They are like adjectives because they have to agree with the co-ordinating noun on:
- number
- gender
- case
They are like verbs because:
- they have tense (present or aorist)
- can take on an object
65
How do participles decline (both aorist and present tense)?
See image.
66
What is the meaning of the participle dependent upon?
The meaning of the participle is **_dependent on the main verb_**. It expresses meaning in relation to the main verb, not absolutely.
- Present participles occur *simultaneously* to the main verb.
- Aorist participles occur *sequentially* to the main verb ie, the action in the participle occurred before the action in the main verb.
Eg, ἐγω ἐλθων θεραπευσω αὐτον = 'I will come and heal'. The participle 'having come' gives time (sequence) *in relation to the main verb*. First he will come, then he will heal. However, the absolute time is revealed by the main verb. Here the main verb is future, therefore the whole action (including the 'coming') is happening in the future, but the 'coming' occurs before the healing. Thus we might translate it, 'I will come and heal'.
Eg, λεγων βλεπει το δενδρον = While he is talking, he sees the tree.
Eg, βλεπει το δενδρον λεγον = He sees the talking tree.
Eg, ὁ Ἰησους εἰσελθων ἐθεραπευσεν την γυναικα = When he came in, Jesus healed the woman.
Eg, ὁ Ἰησους ἐθεραπευσεν την εἰσηλθουσαν γυναικα = Jesus healed the woman who had come in.
Eg, ὁ Ἰησους εἰπεν τῃ εἰσελθουσῃ γυναικι = Jesus spoke to the woman who had come in.
**Occasionally, the Aorist participle does not imply sequence, but rather is used as a default, or undefined participle - used more to avoid implying process (Present participle) than to imply sequence.**
67
How is it best to translate successive aorist participles?
It is a bit of an idiosyncracy in Greek that successive Aorist participles are often best translated by a number of main verbs in English. Greek doesn't really like to use consecutive main verbs (eg, Bob went to the shop then bought an ice-cream then ate the ice-cream), but rather one single main verb and the rest will be participles (Bob, having gone into the shop, having bought an ice-cream, ate the ice-cream).
Eg, ἀκουσασα περι του Ἰησου, ἐλθουσα ἐν τῳ ὀχλῳ ὀπισθεν ἡψατο του ἱματιου αὐτου = When she heard about Jesus, she came up behind in the crowd and touched his cloak.
68
What are some other uses of participles (in addition to their standard meanins and as subjunctive nouns when used with a definite article)?
Although these are relatively rare and still flow out of 'wooden translations', participles can also be used as:
1. **Casual**: Ἰωσηφ δε ὁ ἀνηρ αὐτης, δικαιος ὠν... = But Joseph her husband, _because he was_ (lit: being) righteous...
2. **Concessive**: γνοντες τον θεον οὐχ ὡς θεον ἐδοξασαν = _Although they knew_ (lit: knowing) God, they did not glorify him as God. Concessive is 'though' or 'although'
3. **Instrumental**: τουτο γαρ ποιων και σεαυτον σωσεις και τους ἀκουοντας σου = For by doing this (lit: doing this), you will save yourself and your hearers.
69
What does Greek do similarly with participles as it does with verbs?
Just like how Greek tends to avoid having one main verb immediately followed by a second, replacing one by a participle ('having entered he spoke', rather than 'he entered and spoke'), Greek also often avoids a sequence of two **Imperatives** or **Infinitives**, again replacing the first with a participle.
Eg, οὐχ εἰμι ἱκανος κυψας λυσαι τον ἱμαντα των ὑποδηματων αὐτου = I am not worthy _to stoop down_ and untie the strap of his sandals (lit: having stooped down, to untie)
70
What is the meaning of the passive?
Can a passive take on an object?
How do you indicate instrument and agent?
So far, we have looked at verbs which are *active* in meaning (either true active voice, or middle voice but active in meaning [deponent verbs]). Eg, Jesus heals the leper.
However, in *passive* sentences, the subject of the sentence is *acted upon* by the passive verb. Eg, The leper is healed.
The passive can never take on an object. The passive by definition is an intransitive verb.
The insrument in Greek is indicated by using the instrumental dative. The agent is indicated by the preposition ὑπο + gen
71
What are deponent verbs?
Deponent verbs are those verbs which are *active* in meaning, but their form is taken from other voices. Eg, using the middle or passive voice forms, but are active in meaning.
72
What are the forms of the passive in the:
- indicative
- imperative
- infinitive
- participle
73
For creating the passive verb conjugations, what is the rule when the θ is added to the end of the stem?
What happens when a θ is added to the end of a stem of an e-contract verb?
π β φ + θ = φθ
τ δ θ ζ + θ = σθ
κ γ χ σσ + θ = χθ
For -εω verbs, the ε is lengthened to an η before the θ (just as it is before the σ in the future/aorist active/middle).
74
Other than special uses of the middle voice, what is the standard use of the middle voice?
How else can deponent verbs be used?
New Testament Greek does not usually use the strict meaning/use of the middle voice. Usually in the NT, the middle voice is used for deponent verbs: verbs that use the middle voice endings, but are *active* in meaning.
Deponent verbs can also be used to indicate passive meanings, in which they will take on the passive endings. Three points to note:
1. Many deponent verbs are intransitive (cannot take on an object), so cannot occur in the passive.
2. Even if the deponent verb can be used in passive voice/ending and meaning, it rarely does so.
3. Even if the deponent verb can become passive, many of the middle and passive voice endings are identical (in the present & imperfect tenses). Eg, ἀρχεται can be either present *middle* **or** *passive* indicative. However, it is far more likely to be middle voice (with an active meaning) than passive voice (with a passive meaning)
75
What is the classical meaning of the middle voice?
Does Koine Greek have any of the classical middle voice usage left?
The middle voice in classical Greek (from which the NT Koine Greek was developed) was used to express actions that affected the subject (reflexive).
A small number of verbs still use the classical middle voice, resulting in using all three voices with different meanings. Eg,
ἐνδυει (active): He puts (clothes) on (someone else)
ἐνδυεται (middle): He puts (clothes) on himself
ἐνδυεται (passive): It is put on
Remember, just be aware of the above special uses of the middle voice, but the vast majority of the time when you see a middle, it is a deponent verb conveying an active meaning.
**Summary:**
- Normal verbs: if active form, usually active meaning. If middle/passive form (which is identical in present/imperfect), usually passive meaning. Rarely, can get classical use of middle voice which has a true middle (reflexive) meaning for small number of verbs.
- Deponent verbs: if middle form, usually active meaning. Rarely, it will be in the passive form (which will only be different from middle form in future and aorist tense) with passive meaning.
76
What are passive deponents?
Is it always in the passive form?
Which tenses do you have to pay particular attention to?
These are verbs which take on passive endings (not middle endings), but are ***active*** in meaning. Only 4 words in this category.
However, not all of them are in the passive form all the time. For some, they only take on the passive form in the aorist tense eg, ἀποκρινομαι and πορευομαι which can take on middle voice endings in the future tense, and only take on passive endings in the aorist tense.
Because the middle and passive voice endings are identical in the present and imperfect tenses, only really need to pay close attention to the future and aorist endings to ensure that the passive endings are used for passive deponents (as the middle voice endings for future and aorist tenses are different).
Eg,
βουλομαι (present) βουλησομαι (future) ἐβουληθην (aorist): means 'I wish' rather than 'be wished'.
77
What does the perfect tense communicate?
The perfect tense communicates a past action with a present effect. The past action is seen as completed (the action itself is not continuing in the present), but it is not simply past history: it continues to have an effect in the present. It conveys an idea of **completion** (as opposed to process/continuous [imperfect] or undefined [aorist])
78
What is the form of the perfect indicative (in active, middle, and passive voices)?
_Some extra points:_
The distinguishing mark of the perfect tense is **reduplication:**
* If starting with a consonant, repeat the consonant followed by ε.
* If χ = κ, φ = π, θ = τ (eg, τεθεραπευκα).
* If σ ζ ξ, then same rule (eg, ξεξ-) but usually the initial consonant is dropped leaving effectively just the addition of an ε eg, ἐζητηκα. However, σωζω is an exception becoming σεσωκα
* If starting with vowel, it is lengthened: α = η; ε = η; ο = ω
* Note: if a compound verb, the preposition will need to be removed, the stem reduplicated, then preposition added again. Also, often the reduplication can look the same as adding an ε augment (like imperfect and aorist tenses) but the crucial differences is that augmentation only occurs in the imperfect and aorist indicative tenses (and becomes removed in the other aorist moods) but in reduplication it occurs in **all moods**.
Stem changes:
* -εω verbs are predictable: the ε is lengthened into an η before the consonant eg, πεποιηκα.
* Adding κ to various other endings can cause complications particularly consonants. However, not worth learning as they are complicated and rare, and still recognisable. Basically what happens is that the consonant at the end of the stem changes to whichever consonant within its group sounds better next to the endings, in the following groups:
* κ γ χ σσ;
* π β φ
* τ δ θ ζ σ
79
What are the perfect participles (in active, middle, and passive voices)?
80
What is the meaning of the perfect participle?
- how does it compare to present and aorist participles?
- is there a strict 'wooden translation'?
- are perfect participles common?
The meaning of the perfect participle is in line with the idea of the perfect - it refers to a past event which still has an effect on the present (refers to a present state of affirs resulting from completed action in the past)
Present participles indicate simultaneous action; aorist participles indicate sequence in action; perfect participles indicate the above.
There is no strict wooden translation. For example:
ἠγαλλιασατο ... πεπιστευκως τῳ θεῳ: 'he rejoiced... because he had become a believer in God' (ie, he had believed and *still* believed in God).
If we had to make a wooden translation for this, it would be 'having believed' but that ends up being the same as the aorist participle. So you need to take care that you do try to express the true meaning of the Perfect participles when you translate.
Perfect active participles are very rare. Perfect passive participles are more common and are often effectively equivalent to an adjective or a present participle since they describe a present state.
Eg, μακαριοι οἱ δεδιωγμενοι = Blessed are those who have been persecuted (ie, the persecuted).
81
Are the wooden English translations of the Aorist and Perfect always reliable?
What is the better way to conceptualise them?
Is it always possible to convey a reasonable fluent English translation of the Perfect tense?
The wooden English equivalents of 'I untied' and 'I have untied' for the Aorist and Perfect respectively are not always dependable.
Rather than depending on the wooden translation, it is better to think of and translate them by thinking of the meaning of the tenses:
- Aorist is undefined past
- Perfect is completed past action with present effect
For example, οὐκ ἀνεγνωτε; can be translated as 'Have you not read?' - the verb 'you read' is Aorist, but we end up having to use the word 'have' to make the sentence make sense, which is normally associated with the perfect tense.
Coversely, sometimes it is impossible to convey in a reasonably fluent English translation the fact that the verb is Perfect, despite its importance for the meaning of the sentence. For example: Χριστος ἀπεθανεν και ἐγηγερται τῃ ἡμερᾳ τῃ τριτῃ = 'Christ died and was raised on the third day' (because saying 'has been raised' sounds clunky in English), which would convey that the two verbs 'died' and 'raised' are both in the same tense pointing to actions in the past. However, this is not the meaning in the Greek, as 'raised' is Perfect - the death was a past action, but the resurrection has continuing effect today ('was raised, and is still in the state of being raised today').
82
Pluperfect tense
- what does it mean? (in contrast to Perfect)
- what is the wooden translation? Is it reliable to use the wooden translation?
It takes the time of the events one starge further into the past than the Perfect tense. While the Perfect tense indicates a present state arising from a past event, the Pluperfect tense indicates a past state arising from an event in the remote post. Eg,
- 'I have broken the window': past event, but it is still broken
- 'I had broken the window': past event, created a state, but the state is now past (it was broken for a time, but now is fixed).
The wooden translation for the Pluperfect would be 'had untied' (as opposed to 'have untied' in the Perfect). But this is not reliable, because when the English translation uses 'had', it mostly doesn't arise from the Pluperfect, but rather arises from:
- Indirect statements: 'but he said that he had not detsroyed the law', when translated into Greek, uses the tense of the original words of the thought/speech, thus would use the Perfect tense, not Pluperfect: και εἰπεν ὁτι καταλελυκεν τον νομον
- Temporal clauses: 'When he had come, he spoke to the people', would normally translate this using an aorist participle ἐλθων εἰπεν τῳ λαῳ. Alternatively, could use the word 'when' ὁτε followed by Aorist, despite the 'had' in English, the Pluperfect would not be used in Greek because the meaning wanted is not the meaning of the Pluperfect ὁτε ἠλθεν εἰπεν τῳ λαῳ
83
See the form of the Pluperfect
-don't need to memorise it but just be able to recognise
In classical Greek, you get BOTH the augment + reduplication in Pluperfect.
The endings also change because you get the -ει ending, not just -ε.
Same with Middle and Passive, except the endings become like imperfect tense endings (whereas in the perfect, it was more like the present tense endings eg, λελυμαι).
However, the augment is in brackets because by New Testament times, the augment often dropped out so you can only distinguish the pluperfect by the ending.
84
Subjunctive
- Although there is no specific translation or meaning, what is a helpful parallel?
- which voices and tenses does the subjunctive occur in?
- what does the tense indicate?
It may be helpful to think of the subjunctive as the 'mood of doubtful assertion'. A rough parallel in English is 'may' or 'might'.
It occurs in all 3 voices, but only in present or aorist tenses (like the imperative & infinitives)
Like the other moods (imperative & infinitive), present tense indicates *process*, while the aorist is the *default*. Present tense if the action is being viewed as part of a process (continuous or repeated), otherwise the Aorist (as it is the default), just as in the infinitive and imperative.
85
What is the form of the subjunctive in:
- active voice
- middle voice
- passive voice
Does it have an augment?
What happens with e-contract verbs?
See attached image for the form.
You have to remove the augment, just like the imperative and infinitive moods.
E-contract verbs are easy in the subjunctive - the endings always begin with a long vowel, so the ε will always be absorbed and the endings left identical to those of λυω. In the case of the aorist active, aorist middle, and aorist passive, because the ε comes against a σ/θ, it becomes lengthened to η.
86
How many subjunctive constructions are there?
7
87
How do you construct the indefinite clause?
Is it always the same flag word that's used?
-what else can this word mean?
How does the English usually express the indefiniteness? Is this always true?
**ἀν + the subjunctive**
* ὁς ἀν + subjunctive = whoever
* ὁπου ἀν + subjunctive = wherever
* ὁταν (ὁτε + ἀν crassis) + subjunctive = whenever
Sometimes ἐαν is used in place of ἀν
Eg, ὃ ἐαν ποιητε - 'whatever you do'
ἐαν actually means 'if' usually, but sometimes it can be an alternative to ἀν in an indefinite clause
Often the indefiniteness is expressed in English by the word 'ever'. Eg, ὁς ἀν ποιησῃ το θελημα του θεου - 'whoever does the will of God'. However, though the meaning of the sentence is indefinite, sometimes the use of 'ever' seems inappropriate in English. Eg, ὁταν προσευχῃ is 'whenever you pray' (as a general rule, not an instruction for a particluar occasion, hence it is indefinite in meaning) but it is better translated as 'when you pray'. Another eg, μενετε ἑως ἀν ἐξελθητε is 'remain until ever you leave' ie, remain until whenever it happens to be that you leave (so still has indefinite meaning) but in English this would be better translated as 'remain until you leave'.
88
How do you construct purpose clauses?
- what is another simple way to construct a purpose clause?
- how do you express the negative?
- other possible translations?
- does it always use this Greek flag word?
Purpose clause is **ἱνα + subjunctive**
As learnt previously, purpose can also simply be expressed using an infinitive eg, ἠλθεν γραψαι βιβλιον - 'she came to write a book'
The negative of the subjunctive purpose clause is the addition of μη i,e **ἱνα μη**, although sometimes μη is used on its own.
Example: ἠραν οὐν λιθους ἱνα βαλωσιν ἐπ' αὐτον - 'therefore they took stones in order that they might throw (them) at him'.
Possible translations:
- 'in order that...'
- 'to...'
- 'in order to...'
- 'so that...'
Note: **ὁπως** + subjunctive is a more unusual alternative for ἱνα + subjunctive.
89
Hortatory subjunctive/Exhortations
- how is it formed?
- what does it mean?
The subjunctive is used on its own in **1st person**, without a flag word, just the subjunctive word by itself. Can be either 1st person singular or plural (Duff states only can be plural, but in classical Greek can be singular as well).
Meaning: expresses an exhortation, when the speaker is exhorting others to join him or her in an action. We learnt imperatives only in 2nd persons. There are imperatives for 1st and 3rd persons eg, 'Let them do something'/'Let him do something' (subsequent chapters). You can get 1st person imperatives, which is what we are looking at above (Hortatory Subjunctive/Exhortations) eg, 'Let me/us do something'
Eg, διελθωμεν εἰς το περαν - 'Let us go to the other side'
Eg, ἀρα οὐν τα της εἰρηνης διωκωμεν - 'So therefore, let us pursue the things of peace'
90
Deliberation/Deliberative subjunctive
- How is it formed? How does it differ from exhortations/hortatory subjunctives?
- What does it mean?
The subjunctive is used on its own in **1st person**, without a flag word, just the subjunctive word by itself. Can be either 1st person singular or plural. The form is exactly the same as exhortations/hortatory subjunctives, except that there will be a question mark.
Meaning: used when the speaker is deliberating - 'What should I do?' 'Where should we go?'
Eg, τι οὐν ποιησωμεν; - 'What then should we do?'
Eg, και τι ἐτι λεγω; - 'And what more should I say?'
Eg, τι οὐν; ἁμαρτησωμεν, ὁτι οὐκ ἐσμεν ὑπο νομον ἀλλα ὑπο χαριν; - 'What then? Should we sin, because we are not under law but under grace?'
91
Prohibitions
- What is it? What would you normally expect it to be in the Greek? Is this always true?
- What is the form of the prohibition?
- How does this translate into meaning?
- See extra note. Just read, don't need to memorise.
A prohibition is a negative imperative eg, 'Do not go out'.
In the Greek you would normally expect it to be a normal present or aorist imperative with a negative μη in front. Unfortunately this is only true in the present imperative (see attached image). In the aorist (default) imperative, the negative form of it (ie, prohibition) is no longer in the imperative form, but requires an **aorist subjunctive**.
Therefore, the form of the a prohibition/negative imperative in the default tense, is no longer aorist, but is **μη + aorist subjunctive**.
Meaning: as we have learnt, the difference between the present and the aorist in Imperatives and Subjunctives is that between process and default. In Imperatives and prohibitions, this often means the difference between **attitudes and conduct (present)**, and **specific actions (aorist)**.
Eg, μη εἰσενεγκῃς ἡμας εἰς πειρασμον - Do not bring us to testing.
Eg, τουτους τους δωδεκα ἀπεστειλεν ὁ Ἰησους...λεγων· Εἰς ὁδον ἐθνων μη ἀπελθητε και εἰς πολιν Σαμαριτων μη εἰσελθητε - Jesus sent out these twelve saying, 'Do not go out into [the] road of the Gentiles, and do not enter a city of the Samaritans'
Extra note: sometimes you can find οὐ + future indicative for a prohibition. This is not really Greek, but is a literal translation in Greek of a Hebrew idiom for an emphatic prohibition. Eg, Matt 5:27 ἠκουσατε ὁτι ἐρρεθη· Οὐ μοιχευσεις - 'You heard that it was said, 'Do not commit adultery' (lit: you shall not commit adultery)
92
Emphatic negative future
- Does this clearly have an English equivalent?
- How do you normally make a negative future statement? What does the emphatic negative future mean? What is the form?
- What is an alternative form?
This one is very idiomatic (ie, no English equivalent) but it is quite common. Unique to Greek.
The standard way to make negative statements about the future is simply to use the future indicative with οὐ. However, it is more emphatic to use the double negative **οὐ μη + aorist subjunctive.** It *emphatically* makes a negative statement about the future eg, 'will definitely not pass away...'.
Eg, ἀμην λεγω ὑμιν ὁτι οὐ μη παρελθῃ ἡ γενεα αὑτη - 'Truly I tell you that this generation will definitely not pass away...'
Eg, τον ἐρχομενον προς ἐμε οὐ μη ἐκβαλω ἑξω - 'The one who comes to me I will definitely not drive away outside'
Sometimes we found οὐ μη + **future indicative** with a similar meaning. Eg, λεγει αὐτῳ ὁ Πετρος·...οὐ μη σε ἀπαρνησομαι - 'Peter said to him, '...I will never deny you'
93
What kind of states do the following verbs describe? δυναμαι καθημαι κειμαι οἰδα
What endings do they use? How should they be parsed?
These verb describe states that can be thought of as arising from past situations. For example, if you are sitting now it is because you have sat down in the past. Similarly you know something now because you have learnt it in the past.
Therefore, they use:
- Perfect endings for present tense meaning. They should be parsed as present tense.
- Pluperfect endings for imperfect tense meaning. They should be parsed as imperfect tense.
94
What are the conjugations of the following verbs (present & imperfect indicative, infinitive, participle)?
δυναμαι
καθημαι
κειμαι
οἰδα
See attached image.
95
After which verbs does the infinitive usually come after?
δει
ἐξεστι/ἐξεστιν
δυναμαι
θελω (maybe βουλομαι as well?)
μελλω
96
What case should the subject of the infinitive be in?
What is an exception?
The subject of an infinitive goes in the **accusative**. Often the infinitive has a 'second subject' that is separate to the main subject of the sentence. For example, 'I want the messenger to depart' - the main subject is 'I', but the 'messenger' although is the object of 'I want', from another point of view it is the subject of 'to depart'. So in Greek it will be: θελω τον ἀγγελον ἀπελθειν
Another example: δει τον υἱον του ἀνθρωπου πολλα παθειν - It is necessary for the son of man to suffer many things / The son of man must suffer greatly.
-Notice here how both the object and subject of the infinitive are in the accusative.
The **exception** is **ἐξεστιν -** the 'subject' of this infinitive is usually in the dative, not the accusative.
-Eg, οὐκ ἐξεστιν _σοι_ ἐχειν αὐτην - 'It is not lawful **for you** to have her'
97
How does Greek use the infinitive to express **result clauses**?
What does it mean/how is it translated?
A result clause is expressed as **ὡστε + infinitive = result**
To get the meaning right you should first translate ὡστε as 'with the result that', but this sounds clumsy in English, so then you need to rephrase it, often using the English word 'so' or even just 'and'.
Eg, και ἐθεραπευσεν αὐτους· ὡστε τον ὀχλον θαυμασαι - 'And he healed them, with the result that the crowd was amazed', or better translated as 'And he healed them so/and the crowd was amazed')
Eg, ὁ δε Ἰησους οὐκετι οὐδεν ἀπεκριθη, ὡστε θαυμαζειν τον Πιαλτον - 'But Jesus answered nothing further, with the result that Pilate was amazed', or better translated as 'But Jesus answered nothing further, so/and Pilate was amazed'
98
What is the **articular infinitive** use of the infinitive?
How is it usually used?
What are the most common prepositions used with the articular infinitive?
The **articular infinitive** is when a **neuter singular** of the **article** (το, το, του, τῳ) can be put **in front** of an infinitive to make a **noun** denoting the **activity of the verb**, or the **fact of that activity happening**.
The articular infinitive is **mainly used with a preposition**. The **infinitive itself does not decline, but the article does**.
Most common prepositions used with the articular infinitive:
* δια + acc = because of
* μετα + acc = after
* εἰς + acc **or** προς + acc = with a view to/aiming at/leading to. This can be thought of as a form of purpose clause.
* προ + gen = before
* ἐν + dat = during/while/at the time of
Eg, οὐκ εχετε δια το μη αἰτεισθαι ὑμας - 'you do not have because you do not ask' (literally: on account of the fact of you not asking)
Eg, μετα δε το ἐγερθηναι με προαξω ὑμας εἰς την Γαλιλαιαν - 'after I have been raised I will go ahead of you into Galilee' (literally: after the activity of me being raised)
99
What are the 4 ways of expressing purpose?
3 ways using the infinitive & 1 way of using the subjunctive:
1. Using the infinitive alone (ie, 'to...')
2. Infinitive preceded by του. Sometimes rather than just using the infinitive alone for purpose, του is added.
3. Infinitive preceded by εἰς το / προς το (ie, using the articulra infinitive)
4. ἱνα + subjunctive
100
What are the conjugations of the 3rd person imperative? 3rd person singlar/plural, present/aorist, active/middle/passive
What is the meaning of the 3rd person imperative?
Technically imperatives occur in all 1st, 2nd, 3rd person.
* The real imperatives are the 2nd person imperatives that we have already learnt, which are commands.
* The 1st person imperatives we did with the subjunctives - the Hortatory subjunctive -\> 'let us...'.
* The 3rd person imperatives do have their own endings, with the English translation being 'Let him/them do....'.
See attached image for form/endings
101
Just read through this - talking about tense (time & aspect) & its relationship with the different moods
See attached image.
102
How do the -μι verbs differ in the present & imperfect tense vs. other tenses?
How is the present/imperfect tense stem formed? How is this different to reduplication in the perfect tense?
For the present and imperfect tense, the -μι verbs use a *different* and *longer* stem.
The present stem is formed from the verb stem by a form of redpulication. The first consonant is repeated (or an 'h' sound for those beginning with vowels or σ) together with an ι.
This is different to reduplication in the perfect tense which uses the ε vowel, not ι.
For example:
- τιθημι (place): verbal stem θε, present/imperfect stem τιθε
- διδωμι (give): verbal stem δο, present/imperfect stem διδο
- ἱστημι (cause to stand): verbal stem στα, present/imperfect stem ἱστα
103
Just read through this. It is the survival guide for parsing -μι verbs.
Or, can answer the following. What is the tense if:
- present stem
- present stem + augment
- verbal stem + σ suffix
- verbal stem + σ suffix + augment
- verbal stem + augment
- verbal stem
- verbal stem + θ
- verbal stem + θησ
- reduplicated verbal stem
See attached.
Note the reduplicated verbal stem is different to the 'reduplication' that occurs to create the present stem, as the former is with an ε, while the latter is with an ι. It is a proper reduplication ie, δεδο, τεθε, ἑστα
104
How do the -υμι verbs conjugate?
These have the -μι verb endings in the **present** tense (with the υ vowel dominating), but then use an altered stem (different principal parts) for the other tenses along with the normal λυω endings.
105
What are the contraction rules for -αω verbs?
α + ε/η = α
α + ο = ω
α + ι = ᾳ
α + σ/κ/θ = η
**Note:** the present infinitives of -αω and -οω verbs behave as if the infinitive ending is -εν not -ειν, hence τιμαν and πληρουν
**Note:** in the 3rd singular imperfect active indicative of -εω, -αω, and -οω verbs the 'optional ν' was not used. Thus, the ending is ε giving: ἐφιλει, ἐτιμα, ἐπληρου
106
What are the contraction rules for -οω verbs?
ο + short vowel/ου = ου
ο + long vowel = ω
ο + ι = οι
ο + σ/κ/θ = ω
**Note:** the **_third rule takes priority_**. If you have two coinciding rules (eg, 3rd person singular present active indicative -ει, where you have both ε
(ου) and ι (οι), the 3rd rule takes priority so it becomes -οι)
**Note:** the present infinitives of -αω and -οω verbs behave as if the infinitive ending is -εν not -ειν, hence τιμαν and πληρουν
**Note:** in the 3rd singular imperfect active indicative of -εω, -αω, and -οω verbs the 'optional ν' was not used. Thus, the ending is ε giving: ἐφιλει, ἐτιμα, ἐπληρου
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With the -αω verbs, what is the present indicative paradigm identical with?
The present subjunctive paradigm
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What are the 2 main parts of any conditional sentence?
What is the logic of any conditional sentence?
1. Protasis: the ‘if’ clause eg, ‘if you are led by the spirit’ (εἰ δε πνευματι ἀγεσθε)
2. Apodosis: the ‘then’ clause eg, 'you are not under the law (οὐκ ἐστε ὑπο νομον)
The logic of any conditional sentence is that if the protasis is true, then the apodosis follows.
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What are the 3 different kinds of conditions in Greek? How are they formed?
There are 3 kinds of conditions in Greek:
1. The standard condition called ‘*basic conditions*’ or ‘*real conditions*’. **Protasis = εἰ + indicative**, **Apodosis = any mood or tense**
2. Indefinite conditions: **Protasis = ἐαν + subjunctive**, **Apodosis = any mood or tense**
3. ‘*Unreal conditions*’ or ‘*Contrary-to-fact conditions*’: **Protasis = εἰ + indicative**, **Apodosis = ἀν + indicative**
1. Remember that in both the protasis & apodosis, the imperfect tense is used for present meaning, and the aorist tense is used for past meaning.
2. Remember that μη is used in the the protasis to negate the verb, even if the verb is in the indicative
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What is the difference between basic/real conditions and indefinite conditions?
Basic conditions are speaking of a standard conditional sentence where if the protasis is true, then the apodosis follows.
Indefinite conditions still follow the same logic. However, it is ‘indefinite’ because it either:
- speaks of something about the future which by definition is somewhat undefined
- addresses a generic situation, without a particular occasional in mind. Eg, ‘if someone enjoys rules and patters, they like Greek’ → the speaker here does not have a particular person or occasion in mind, and it is a generalised statement.
See attached image as well.
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See attached image for the parallel between indefinite clauses and indefinite conditions
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What do ‘contrary-to-fact conditions'/'unreal conditions' mean? How do you translate it?
What tenses are used to refer to the present and past times in the protasis and apodosis?
If you want to negate the protasis, do you use οὐ or μη?
The same logic still follows as other conditional sentences, that if the protasis is true, then the apodosis follows. However, in ‘unreal conditions’, the writer is deliberately expressing that they believe that the protasis is not true.
Eg, ‘If you had liked Greek, you would have learnt it’
Eg, ‘if you were of the world, the world would have loved you as its own.’ → But you are not of the world so the protasis is false.
In both the protasis and apodosis, the **imperfect** is used for **present** time, and the **aorist** is used for **past** time.
Note, if the protasis of an ‘unreal’/'contrary-to-fact' condition is negated, **μη** is used (even though the verb is in the **indicative**)
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Genitive absolute
* What is it/What is it used for?
* How is it formed?
The genitive absolute is used when there is a ‘separated-off’ clause which does not connect to the main sentence, so that the subject of the genitive absolute is not confused with the subject/object of the main sentence. For example, ‘When it was evening, he comes with the twelve’ = και ὀψιας γενομενης ἐρχεται μετα των δωδεκα. The subject of the first clause is separate ('evening'), compared to the main sentence ('he'). If the participle γενομενης was written in the nominative, it may be confused with ‘he’ of the main clause. Therefore, because it is a ‘separated-off’ clause, it is all put in the genitive.
* This is in contrast to eg, ‘Passing along the sea, he saw Simon and Andrew casting in the sea’ = ‘παρερχομενος παρα την θαλασσαν εἰδεν τον Σιμωνα και Ἀνδρεαν ἀμφιβαλλοντας ἐν τῃ θαλασσῃ’.
* In this case, you don't need a separate off a clause as a genitive absolute, because the main sentence is ‘he saw Simon and Andrew’, and all the other clauses relate to the subject and object of the main sentence:
* ‘passing along the sea’ refers to ‘he’, hence the participle is in the nom. masc. sing.
* ‘casting in the sea’ refers to Simon and Andrew, hence the participle is in the acc. masc. pl.
It is formed with the **noun** + **participle** agreeing with it in the **genitive** case.
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Genitive absolute
* Where in the sentence does it usually occur?
* What kind of information does it usually give?
Usually occurs at the start of the sentence. So if the first word in a sentence is in the genitive, ‘think genitive absolute’
Very often genitive absolutes give some ‘background information’ such as the time or circumstances at which something happened.
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What are periphrastic constructions?
Remember that Greek forms **tenses** by adding **suffixes and prefixes** to the verb, while English forms them by adding **auxiliary** words eg, ἠγον = I was leading.
However, Greek does upon occasion use a construction similar to English using an **auxiliary word + participle (present or perfect)**. This is called a **periphrastic construction**.
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What are the different periphrastic construction combinations?
Present of εἰμι + present participle = present tense
Imperfect of εἰμι + present participle = imperfect tense
Future of εἰμι + present participle = future tense
Present of εἰμι + perfect participle = perfect tense
Imperfect of εἰμι + perfect participle = pluperfect tense
Future of εἰμι + perfect participle = future perfect tense
Eg, χαριτι ἐστε σεσῳσμενοι = By grace you have been saved
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What are the 3 different kinds/degrees of adjectives/adverbs?
There are 3 degrees with adjectives & adverbs:
- positive: our standard adjectives.
- comparative: usually ends -er, such as 'bigger'
- superlative: usually ends -est, such as 'biggest'
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How do you form comparative adjectives?
How do you form superlative adjectives?
What is the rule for the joining vowel?
**Comparative** adjectives = add **-τερος**, which declines. Eg, σοφωτερος
**Superlative** adjectives = add **-τατος**, which declines. Eg, σοφωτατος
The rule for the joining vowel **depends on the last letter** of the stem:
- if the last letter of the stem is **short**, then the joining letter is **ω**. Eg, σοφος → σοφωτερος & σοφωτατος
- if the last letter of the stem is **long** or a **diphthong**, then the joining letter is **ο**. Eg, δικαιος → δικαιοτερος & δικαιοτατος
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How do you form the:
- positive adverb?
- comparative adverb?
- superlative adverb?
Do adverbs decline?
What is the rule for the joining vowel?
**Positive** adverb: the way you form an adverb from an adjective is with the ending **ω** eg, σοφος → σοφως.
**Comparative** adverb: To make the comparative adverb, you take the **neuter singular** of the comparative adjective. Eg, σοφωτερον.
**Superlative** adverb: To make the superlative adverb, you take the **neuter plural** of the superlative adjective. Eg, σοφωτατα.
No adverbs decline.
The rule for the joining vowel **depends on the last letter** of the stem:
- if the last letter of the stem is **short**, then the joining letter is **ω**. Eg, σοφος → σοφωτερος & σοφωτατος
- if the last letter of the stem is **long** or a **diphthong**, then the joining letter is **ο**. Eg, δικαιος → δικαιοτερος & δικαιοτατος
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What can the comparative and superlative adverbs be the same as?
The comparative adverb can be the same as the neuter singular of the corresponding comparative adjective.
The superlative adverb can be the same as the neuter plural of the corresponding superlative adjective.
Need to work it out from context.
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Just read through note
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Just read through the **optative**
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What do the comparative and superlative adjectives/adverbs mean?
If the example is σοφος:
* Comparative adjective = wiser, more wise (σοφωτερος, declines)
* Superlative adjective = wisest, most/very wise (σοφωτατος, declines)
* Comparative adverb = more wisely (σοφωτερον, undeclinable)
* Superlative adverb = most/very wisely (σοφωτατα, undeclinable)
