RS Notes Flashcards by Mike Woo

What are the four types of brain bleeds?

Epidural bleed
Subdural bleed
Subarachnoid bleed
Intracerebral hemorrhage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define Epidural hematoma.

Accumulation of blood between dura mater and the cranium.

Usually associated with a laceration or tear of the middle meningeal artery.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define Subdural hematoma.

A collection of blood between the dura and the surface of the brain in the subdural space.

This injury usually results from bleeding of the veins in that bridge the subdural space.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define subarchnoid hematoma.

A collection of blood in the subarachnoid space.

Bleeding into the cerebrospinal fluid.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

50% of patients with BLANK hematoma have a transient loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid interval (6-18 hours) in which neurological status returns to normal.

Epidural hematoma.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Signs and symptoms of BLANK hematoma are similar to those of BLANK hematoma and include headache, nausea and vomiting, decreasing level of consciousness, coma, abnormal posturing, paralysis, and, in infants, bulging fontanelles.

These findings are maybe subtle because of the slow development of the hematoma location and chronic phases.

Subdural hematoma.`

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Characteristics of BLANK hematoma

sudden and severe HA
dizziness
neck stiffness
unequal pupils
vomiting
seizures
LOC

subarachnoid hematoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define intracerebral hematoma

an accumulation of blood or fluid within the tissue of the brain. More than 5 mL

Common causes penetrating trauma, MVC, ICP as a result of compression

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define Virchow’s Triad.

As it is has come to be known today, the triad consists of stasis, vessel damage, and hypercoagulability, and is used to describe the etiology and assess the risk of thrombosis, especially of deep vein thrombosis (DVT.)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

S+S of DVT

pain
edema
warmth
erythmea or bluish discoloration
tenderness

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Risk factors for DVT?

Recent lower extremity trauma
recent surgery
advanced age
recent MI
inactivity
confinement to bed
CHF
Cancer
previous thrombosis
oral contraceptive therapy
sickle cell disease
obesity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is Beck’s Triad?

3 D’s

Decreased heart sounds (muffled)
Distended Jugular Veins
Decreased BP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rule of Nines

A method to estimate burn injury that divides the total body surface area into segments that are multiples of 9%.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Using the rule of nines what is the adult body (or child greater than 9 years old) percentage look like?

Head 9
Upper chest 9
Abdomen 9
Upper Back 9
Lower back 9
L arm 9 
R arm 9
Groin 1
L thigh 9 around
L calf around 9
R thigh 9 around
R calf around 9

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does Nitroglycerin do?

Reduce preload.

NTG dilates arterioles and veins in the periphery (and coronary arteries in high doses). The resultant reduction in preload, and to a lesser extent in after load, decreases the workload of the heart and lowers myocardial oxygen demand. NTG is lipid soluble and is thought to enter the body from the GI tract through the lymphatics rather than the portal blood.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Contraindications for the use of Nitroglycerin?

Hypo tension

Erectile dysfunction drug use

Allergy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define gestational hypertension

Hypertension that occurs during the latter stages of pregnancy (>20 weeks) without any other features of preeclampsia, and resolves during postpartum period’ recognized by BP greater than 140/90.

Thought to result from rejection of the pregnancy by the immune system and can be an early indication of preeclampsia.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define preeclampsia

an abnormal disease disease of pregnancy characterized by the onset of acute hypertension associated with proteinuria after the twentieth week of gestation.

Can be mild or severe - diastolic BP >110 mmHg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define eclampsia

a grave form of pregnancy-induced hypertension, characterized by convulsions, coma, proteinuria and edema.

Most common in patients with severe preeclampsia.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the three Blast Injury Phases

Primary - caused by heat of explosion and over pressure wave

Secondary - caused by blast projectiles

Tertiary - caused by personnel displacement and structural collapse.

Brady Volume 2 page 37

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

List the organs in the abdomen.

Stomach
Gallbladder
Pancreas
Liver
Spleen
Large intestine
Small intestine
Colon
Bladder
R and L Kidney
Ovaries - females

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Peritoneal Space definition

division of the abdomen cavity containing those organs or portions of organs covered by the peritoneum.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Retro-peritoneal Space definition

division of the abdomen cavity containing those organs posterior to the peritoneal lining.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is in the RUQ?

Gallbladder - always under stomach***
R kidney
most of the liver
some small bowel
small portion of the pancreas
portion of the ascending and transverse colon

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is in the LUQ

``` Stomach - Mnemonic eating with R hand guarding full stomach with L hand*** Spleen*** L kidney most of the pancreas portion of the liver small bowel transverse and descending colon ```

What is in the RLQ?

``` Appendix*** portions of the urinary bladder small bowel ascending colon rectum female genitalia ```

What is in the LLQ?

``` sigmoid colon potions of the urinary bladder small bowel descending colon rectum female genitalia ```

What are the six rights of drug administration?

``` Patient Drug Route Time Dose Documentation ```

Signs of Diabetes?

polydipsia polyphagia polyuria

electric shock can cause?

internal damage v-fib cardiac irritability smoldering clothes

What are the four pharmacokinetics are?

absorption biotransformation distribution elimination ``` Mnemonic A B (no C) D E ```

define pharmacokinetics

how drugs are moved in and out of the body

what is the primary function of nitro when treating angia?

reduced preload

what kind of shoulder dislocation presents with a patient in the "squared off" position

anterior dislocation

what is the most common age group to experience febrile seizure?

6 months - 6 years

what breathing pattern is associated with DKA?

kussmaul's

frothy red blood at a wound site my suggest

open pneumothorax

subglottic thermal burns are most likely caused by

superheated steam

hyperresonance in the chest can be caused by?

pneumothorax or emphysema

anesthetics are which?

medications that induce loss of sensation to touch or pain

the buccal route is

between the cheek and the gums

patient has palms turned upwards. if the patient rotates palm facing downward this is called?

pronation?

unconsciousness followed by a lucid interval with deteriorating LOCK later is caused by?

concussion and epidural hematoma.

a neck laceration can cause?

subcutaneous emphysema air embolism external/internal jugular or carotid laceration

which vital sign would you expect with Cushing's reflex?

increased blood pressure decrease heart rate irregular respirations Mnemonic S + S opposite of shock skull and crossbones picture

unified command is?

a coordinated effort involving several jurisdiction. single command is a single individual responsible in single jurisdiction incident.

expect ecg artifact with all except?

an enlarged heart

which is not a cause of dysthymia?

hypertension

which is not a common cause of tachycardia?

hypothermia

what are the two branches of the Left coronary artery?

anterior descending and circumflex

which of the following causes pulmonary edema?

left sided heart failure

what are open ended questions?

questions that permit unguided spontaneous answers

which of the following is subjective

patients chief complaint

different field diagnosis is?

list of possible causes for your patients condition

O2 may cause respiratory distress in which patient?

COPD

car accident patient is experiencing a "tearing sensation" in the chest with pain radiating to the back. what is the most likely cause?

aortic aneurysm

blunt trauma in a pediatric patient, because of flexibility suspect injury to?

spleen

what are the lead placements for lead II?

+ left leg | - right arm

what is considered passive during respiration?

expiration

is the pressure in the thorax during expiration greater or less then the environment/.

greater

urticaria is caused by?

vasodilation

what is bioequivalence?

relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent drugs.

a child asthma attack without wheezing is

an ominous sign

obese female patient complains of RUQ pain radiating to the shoulder after consuming greasy food. what could be the cause?

cholecystitis

which occurs during hyperventilation?

CO2 levels lower as a result of increased RR

what pH is considered alkalosis?

greater than 7.45

symptoms of meningitis?

stiff neck fever lethargy irritability

when your partner complains of fever, chills, malaise, aches, and cough. what do you suspect?

influenza

hypertonic solution moves water?

into the vascular space

female patient, 36 weeks pregnant, presents with altered LOC and recent seizures. what is most likely?

eclampsia

supine hypotensive syndrome in a pregnant patient is caused by?

gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when the mother is supine

hypotension can develop with severe anaphylaxis due to?

increased vascular permeability and vasodilation

during cardiogenic shock, the body compensates by?

increase contractile force, increases preload, lowers vascular resistance

alkalosis and hyperventilation may produce?

carpal and pedal spams (Cramping)

what is tidal volume?

the average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle, 500 ml

where do internal respiration occur?

peripheral capillaries

put the upper airway anatomy in order from superior to inferior?

``` nares nasopharynx larynx laryngopharynx trachea ```

bronchodilators are which of the following?

beta 2 selective

what is beneficence?

doing good for the patient

what is ethics?

determines how one should live

what is ethical relativism?

each person decides how to behave and whatever decision the person makes is acceptable

what does NOCP do?

serve as a reference point for provincial or territorial bodies seeking to facilitate the mobility of paramedics between provinces and territories. NOCP may become the blueprint for national exam. NOCP is key to defining a national space of practice. All the above

what does primum non nocerre mean?

first do no harm

what is required for a patient refusal?

a witness

suspect cardiac tamponade when?

after a recent CPR

which are causes of cardiogenic shock?

``` tension pneumothorax cardiac tamponade pulmonary embolism prosthetic valve malfunction trauma ```

PPV is good for an apneic stroke patient because?

hyperoxygenation will eliminate excessive CO2 levels | 16-20 per min

what are the properties of cardiac cells?

``` excitability automaticity conductivity contractility elasticity ```

which of the following will cause altered LOC and metabolic acidosis?

status epilepticus

what is myoclonus?

temporary involuntary twitching of muscle

what is fremitus?

a palpable vibration in the body may be caused by a partial airway obstruction

what is pre eclampsia?

characterized by an increase in systolic BP by 30 mmHg and diastolic by 15 mmHg above baseline on at least two occasions within 6 hours, most common in the last 10 weeks gestation, during labor, or 48 hours postpartum.

what does breathing through pursed lips do?

eases SOB by helping to splint the alveoli open during exhalation

what are the three mechanisms that remove hydrogen from the blood?

bicarbonate buffer system, respiration, kidney fuction

where is appendicitis pain initially felt?

periumbilical

what are biot's respirations?

repeated episodes of gasping followed by periods of apnea caused by increased intracranial pressure,

what is skin tugor?

a tension in the skin

what are the three layers of the heart from inner most to outer most layer?

endocardium myocardium epicardium

which of the following is not an enteral route of med admin?

umbilical

compartment syndrome is most commonly found where?

lower leg

what does the P wave represent on an ECG?

atrial depolarization

what is visceral pain?

dull, poorly localized pain that originates in the walls of hallow organs

seizure patent represents with muscles tensing and prolonged muscle contractions. this period is known as?

tonic phase

pediatric patient represents with flushed skin, crying warm to the touch, and barking cough. what is most likely?

croup

an avulsion occurs when?

skin and tissue are pulled back

how many vertebrae are in the thoracic section of the spine?

RS Notes Flashcards

(106 cards)