RNA synthesis Flashcards

exam 1

1
Q

sugar in RNA

A

ribose

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2
Q

in contrast to DNA, RNA contains a

A

hydroxyl on C2

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3
Q

bases of RNA

A

adenine, cytosine, guanine, uracil

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4
Q

transcribes rRNA, which is nucleolar

A

RNA pol I

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5
Q

transcribes pre m-RNA

A

RNA pol II

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6
Q

transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA

A

RNA pol III

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7
Q

intermediate susceptible to alpha-amanitin

A

RNA pol III

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8
Q

alpha-amantin resistant

A

RNA pol I

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9
Q

alpha-amantin sensitive

A

RNA pol II

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10
Q

eukaryotic ribosome somposed of a large _____ subunit and a small _____ subunit

A

large 60s and small 40s

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11
Q

large subunit composed of

A

5s, 5.8s, and 28 s rRNA

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12
Q

small subunit composed of

A

18s rRNA

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13
Q

regions of DNA that facilitattes increased accuracy and rate of transcription

A

promoters

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14
Q

located immediately upstream of gene

A

promoters

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15
Q

forms a longer precursor that is cleaved to 18s, 5.8s and 28s rRNA

A

RNA pol I

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16
Q

DNA pol I requires protein factors _______ and ______ initiate transcription

A

DNA pol I requires B and S factors

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17
Q

catalyzes the formation of 5s rRNA

A

RNA pol III

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18
Q

____ and ____ facilitate binding of ______ which recruits _____ to initiate transcription

A

TFIIIA and TFIIIC facilitate binding of TFIIIB to recruit RNA pol III

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19
Q

synthesizes mRNA

A

RNA pol II

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20
Q

regions of DNA that upregulate transcription

A

enhancers

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21
Q

______ can exert their effect over _____ distances as a DNA strand can bend to bring two separated sequences close together

A

enhancers can exert over long distances

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22
Q

true or false: enhancers regions can be located upstream, downstream or within the region to exert influence

A

true

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23
Q

commonly found in the promoter region to initiate transcription and will bind basal transcription protein factors

A

TATA sequence

24
Q

binds to the TATA binding protein subunit

25
_____ binds to TFIID
TFIIB
26
recruits RNA pol II
TFIIB
27
once RNA pol II binds ____, ___, ___, are recruited
TFIIE, TFIIF, TFIIH
28
has protein kinase activity leading to RNA pol II phosphorylation which initiates transcription
TFIIH
29
true or false: transcription factors are not needed to initiate transcription
false, required!!!
30
(3) processing steps in mRNA formation before cytoplasm
(1) capping (2) polyadenylation (3) splicing
31
capping
invovles the addition of 7-methylguanosine (5-5 triphosphate linkage)
32
decreases the rate of degradation as well as being important for translation to the protein sequence
capping
33
polyadenylation
occurs a RNA pol II passes the polyadenylation signal
34
polyadenylation signal
AAUAA
35
RNA ____ continues until it reaches a ______ signal that may be many nucelotides downstream but a factor known as cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor, ____, binds at the polyadenylation signal and forms a complex which cleaves approx. ___-___ nucleotides downstream forming a new ___ end
RNA pol continues until it reaches a termination signal that may be many nucleotides downstream but a factor known as cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor, CPSF, binds at the polyadenylation signal and forms a complex which cleaves approx. 10-30 nucleotides downstream forming a new 3'end
36
recruits poly A polymerase, PAP which adds approx. 250 adenylate resides
CPSF
37
invovles removal of introns to from mature mrNA
splicing
38
5'GU...A...AG3'
introns
39
part of the primary transcript that is expressed as mature, functional mRNA
exons
40
splicing begins with _____ of the precursor mRNA at the ______ ______. The 5' GU of the intron binds the downstream ______ forming a ______. Cleavage at the ______ ____ occurs releasing the ______. _______ attack of the 5' exon brings the two exons together.
Splicing begins with cleavage of the precursor mRNA at the 5- exon-intron junction. The 5' GY of the intron binds the downstream adenosine forming a lariat. Cleavage at the 3'intron-exon junction occurs releasing the lariat. Nucleophilic attack of the 5' exon brings the two exons together.
41
splicing is carried out by
spliceosomes
42
composed of small nuclear RNAs
spliceosomes
43
recognize various elements such as GU and AG in the introns
snRNA
44
hereditary abnormalities of hemoglobin production in which the primary difficulty is a quantitative deficiency of either Beta-globin or alpha-globin
Thalassemia
45
approx. a quarter of all mutations are associated with faulty ____
RNA splicing
46
refers to the fact a single pre-mRNA species can be spliced in many ways leading to many different mature mRNA
alternative splicing
47
many genes, ___%, are expressed by alternative pathways of rNA splicing depending on ___ ___ or ___ ___
35%, depending on cell type and growth state
48
commonly used pharmacologically to inhibit microbial growth
inhibitors of transcription
49
blocks initiation of bacterial RNA synthesis
Rifampicin
50
binds to double helical DNA and prevents it from being used as a template for RNA synthesis
Actinomycin D
51
mRNA can be used to form
cDNA
52
reverse transcribes from mature mRNA and will not contain the introns that were sliced out
cDNA
53
_____ can be used as a primer to initiate _______ from the poly-A tails of the mRNA
PolyT can be used to initiate transcription
54
can be used to remove the RNA portion
Alkali
55
in reverse transcription, a ______ is then used to generate the double stranded DNA. It is ______ into a DNA vector containing a gene to confer ______ ____. Transformation of the ____ ___ refers to the successful introduction of the DNA in the bacterium. (TRANSFORMATION)
In reverse transcription, a polymerase is then used to generate the double stranded DNA. It is ligated into a DNA vector containing a gene to confer antibacterial resistance. Transformation of the recombinant DNA refers to the successful introduction of the DNA in the bacterium