RNA synthesis Flashcards

exam 1

1
Q

sugar in RNA

A

ribose

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2
Q

in contrast to DNA, RNA contains a

A

hydroxyl on C2

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3
Q

bases of RNA

A

adenine, cytosine, guanine, uracil

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4
Q

transcribes rRNA, which is nucleolar

A

RNA pol I

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5
Q

transcribes pre m-RNA

A

RNA pol II

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6
Q

transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA

A

RNA pol III

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7
Q

intermediate susceptible to alpha-amanitin

A

RNA pol III

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8
Q

alpha-amantin resistant

A

RNA pol I

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9
Q

alpha-amantin sensitive

A

RNA pol II

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10
Q

eukaryotic ribosome somposed of a large _____ subunit and a small _____ subunit

A

large 60s and small 40s

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11
Q

large subunit composed of

A

5s, 5.8s, and 28 s rRNA

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12
Q

small subunit composed of

A

18s rRNA

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13
Q

regions of DNA that facilitattes increased accuracy and rate of transcription

A

promoters

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14
Q

located immediately upstream of gene

A

promoters

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15
Q

forms a longer precursor that is cleaved to 18s, 5.8s and 28s rRNA

A

RNA pol I

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16
Q

DNA pol I requires protein factors _______ and ______ initiate transcription

A

DNA pol I requires B and S factors

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17
Q

catalyzes the formation of 5s rRNA

A

RNA pol III

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18
Q

____ and ____ facilitate binding of ______ which recruits _____ to initiate transcription

A

TFIIIA and TFIIIC facilitate binding of TFIIIB to recruit RNA pol III

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19
Q

synthesizes mRNA

A

RNA pol II

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20
Q

regions of DNA that upregulate transcription

A

enhancers

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21
Q

______ can exert their effect over _____ distances as a DNA strand can bend to bring two separated sequences close together

A

enhancers can exert over long distances

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22
Q

true or false: enhancers regions can be located upstream, downstream or within the region to exert influence

A

true

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23
Q

commonly found in the promoter region to initiate transcription and will bind basal transcription protein factors

A

TATA sequence

24
Q

binds to the TATA binding protein subunit

A

TFIID

25
Q

_____ binds to TFIID

A

TFIIB

26
Q

recruits RNA pol II

A

TFIIB

27
Q

once RNA pol II binds ____, ___, ___, are recruited

A

TFIIE, TFIIF, TFIIH

28
Q

has protein kinase activity leading to RNA pol II phosphorylation which initiates transcription

A

TFIIH

29
Q

true or false: transcription factors are not needed to initiate transcription

A

false, required!!!

30
Q

(3) processing steps in mRNA formation before cytoplasm

A

(1) capping
(2) polyadenylation
(3) splicing

31
Q

capping

A

invovles the addition of 7-methylguanosine (5-5 triphosphate linkage)

32
Q

decreases the rate of degradation as well as being important for translation to the protein sequence

A

capping

33
Q

polyadenylation

A

occurs a RNA pol II passes the polyadenylation signal

34
Q

polyadenylation signal

A

AAUAA

35
Q

RNA ____ continues until it reaches a ______ signal that may be many nucelotides downstream but a factor known as cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor, ____, binds at the polyadenylation signal and forms a complex which cleaves approx. ___-___ nucleotides downstream forming a new ___ end

A

RNA pol continues until it reaches a termination signal that may be many nucleotides downstream but a factor known as cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor, CPSF, binds at the polyadenylation signal and forms a complex which cleaves approx. 10-30 nucleotides downstream forming a new 3’end

36
Q

recruits poly A polymerase, PAP which adds approx. 250 adenylate resides

A

CPSF

37
Q

invovles removal of introns to from mature mrNA

A

splicing

38
Q

5’GU…A…AG3’

A

introns

39
Q

part of the primary transcript that is expressed as mature, functional mRNA

A

exons

40
Q

splicing begins with _____ of the precursor mRNA at the ______ ______. The 5’ GU of the intron binds the downstream ______ forming a ______. Cleavage at the ______ ____ occurs releasing the ______. _______ attack of the 5’ exon brings the two exons together.

A

Splicing begins with cleavage of the precursor mRNA at the 5- exon-intron junction. The 5’ GY of the intron binds the downstream adenosine forming a lariat. Cleavage at the 3’intron-exon junction occurs releasing the lariat. Nucleophilic attack of the 5’ exon brings the two exons together.

41
Q

splicing is carried out by

A

spliceosomes

42
Q

composed of small nuclear RNAs

A

spliceosomes

43
Q

recognize various elements such as GU and AG in the introns

A

snRNA

44
Q

hereditary abnormalities of hemoglobin production in which the primary difficulty is a quantitative deficiency of either Beta-globin or alpha-globin

A

Thalassemia

45
Q

approx. a quarter of all mutations are associated with faulty ____

A

RNA splicing

46
Q

refers to the fact a single pre-mRNA species can be spliced in many ways leading to many different mature mRNA

A

alternative splicing

47
Q

many genes, ___%, are expressed by alternative pathways of rNA splicing depending on ___ ___ or ___ ___

A

35%, depending on cell type and growth state

48
Q

commonly used pharmacologically to inhibit microbial growth

A

inhibitors of transcription

49
Q

blocks initiation of bacterial RNA synthesis

A

Rifampicin

50
Q

binds to double helical DNA and prevents it from being used as a template for RNA synthesis

A

Actinomycin D

51
Q

mRNA can be used to form

A

cDNA

52
Q

reverse transcribes from mature mRNA and will not contain the introns that were sliced out

A

cDNA

53
Q

_____ can be used as a primer to initiate _______ from the poly-A tails of the mRNA

A

PolyT can be used to initiate transcription

54
Q

can be used to remove the RNA portion

A

Alkali

55
Q

in reverse transcription, a ______ is then used to generate the double stranded DNA. It is ______ into a DNA vector containing a gene to confer ______ ____. Transformation of the ____ ___ refers to the successful introduction of the DNA in the bacterium.

(TRANSFORMATION)

A

In reverse transcription, a polymerase is then used to generate the double stranded DNA. It is ligated into a DNA vector containing a gene to confer antibacterial resistance. Transformation of the recombinant DNA refers to the successful introduction of the DNA in the bacterium