Rheumatology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteomalacia

what is it?

Causes (6)
1 Big one with 3 causes within!
2 - condtition
3 drug eg. 1
4- condition
5- condition
6- condition

A

softening of the bones secondary to low vit D, leads to decreased bone mineral content.

  1. vitamin D deficiency
    - malabsorption
    - lack of sunlight
    - diet
  2. chronic kidney disease (less conversion of Vit D to active form 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
  3. drug induced e.g. anticonvulsants
  4. inherited: hypophosphatemic rickets (previously called vitamin D-resistant rickets)
  5. liver disease: e.g. cirrhosis

6 coeliac disease (malabsorption)

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2
Q

Osteomalacia

Vit D insufficiency =
Vit D deficiency =

Features (4)

1
2
3- where?
4- observe?

Investigations
- what do you see on bloods? (4)

how does this compare to osteoperosis?

Imaging-

-

A

Vit D insufficiency 20-50ng/ml
Vit D deficiency <12ng/ml

  1. bone pain
  2. bone/muscle tenderness
  3. fractures: especially femoral neck
  4. proximal myopathy: may lead to a waddling gait

Bloods
1. Low vit D, Low calcium
2. Low phosphate
3. HIGH ALP!

Osteoperosis see NO change in bone profile!

Managment
1. Oral vit d supplementation
- need a loading dose
2. Oral calcium if diet poor

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3
Q

Ricket

  • Lower limb abnormalities-
  • ## --
    -
A

Features
- aching bones and joints
- Lower limb abnormalities- toddlers genu varum (bow legs)
in older children - genu valgum (knock knees)
- ‘rickety rosary’ - swelling at the costochondral junction
-kyphoscoliosis
craniotabes - soft skull bones in early life
- Harrison’s sulcus- indentation on the chest roughly along the 6th rib
- widening of the wrist joints due to an excess of non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate
-
-

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4
Q

Drugs which induce SLE

Most common
- think acid (2)

Less common
- Day drinking

A

Most common
p- procainamide
h- hydralazine

Less common
p- phenytoin
i- isoniazid
m- minocycline

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5
Q

Life-long anticoag for antiphospholipid syndrome with what?

A

Warfarin! Target INR 2-3

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6
Q

Marfans

The FBN1 gene
on chromosome?

Deficiency of what glycoprotein?

Features
1. CV (2)
2. Resp
3. Eyes (3)
4. Observe/ on insoection (6)

A

15

Fibrillin

Features
1. CV
- Mitral regurg/ prolapse
- aortic aneurysm of sinus- dissection (also can get regurg)
2. Resp- PTX! seen as primary
3. Eyes
- blue sclera
- myopia (short-sighted )
- upwards lens dislocation

  1. Observe/ on insoection
    - v tall
    - high arched palate
    - pectus excavatum
    - arachnodactyly- long slender fingers
    - pes planus- flat foot
    - scoliosis
    dural ectasia (ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level)
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7
Q

Bisphosphonates Adverse effects (5)

A
  1. GORD- oesophageal reactions: oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers (especially alendronate)
  2. osteonecrosis of the jaw
  3. risk of atypical stress fractures- proximal femoral shaft on alendronate
  4. acute phase response: fever, myalgia and arthralgia may occur following administration
  5. hypocalcaemia: due to reduced calcium efflux from bone. Usually clinically unimportant
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8
Q

OA management
1. concserv
2. first line
3. second line
4. non-pharmo
5. last-line

A
  1. Conservative- muscle strength
  2. first-line: paracetamol and topical NSAIDs
    - Topical NSAIDs are indicated only for OA of the knee or hand
  3. 2nd line - oral NSAIDs/COX-2 inhibitors, opioids, capsaicin cream and intra-articular corticosteroids + PPI
  4. TENS machine, supports, braces
  5. If all fail then surgery
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9
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITES

Type I
Mech-
Example (2)

Type II
Mech-
Example- (4/7)

A

Type I
Mech- Antigen + IgE bound to mast cells
Example
- anaphylaxis
-Atopgy (asthma, eczema and hayfever)

Type II
Mech- IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface

Example
- Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
- ITP
- Goodpasture’s syndrome
- Pernicious anaemia
* Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions
* Rheumatic fever
* Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid

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10
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITES

Type III
Mech-
Example (2/4)

Type IV
Mech-
Example (4/7)

A

Type III
Mech- Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine
Example
- Serum sickness
* Systemic lupus erythematosus
* Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
* Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)

Type IV
Mech- T-cell mediated
Example
* Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction
* Graft versus host disease
* Allergic contact dermatitis
* Scabies
* Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
* Multiple sclerosis
* Guillain-Barre syndrome

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11
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis features - the ‘A’s (6)

A

Apical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis
AV node block
Amyloidosis

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12
Q

Fibromyalgia
Features (4)

Mnagement complex and MDT but 4 principles
1
2
3
4- med eg (3)

A
  1. chronic pain: at multiple site, sometimes ‘pain all over’
  2. lethargy
  3. cognitive impairment: ‘fibro fog’
  4. sleep disturbance, headaches, dizziness are common

management
1. EXPLAIN!
2. Exercise- best!
3. CBT
4. Med- pregabalin, amytriptylin, duloextine

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13
Q

OA vs RA on hand xray

OA where?
classic

RA 4 signs on XRAY

A

OA - Distal interphalangeal! Look like pawns in chess
- also carpometacarpal joints

NO RA in DIP!!

also classic LOSS
Loss of joint space
Osteophytes forming at joint margins
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

RA shows
- Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia (early on)
- loss of joint space
- periarticular erosions
- subluxation

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14
Q

Alport syndrome - defective production of type IV collagen.

features (3)
Mx with..

A
  1. glomerulonephritis
  2. end-stage kidney disease, 3. hearing loss

ACEi

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15
Q

features of DIFFUSE systemic Sclerosis (3)

med 1.

A
  1. ILD - how most die
  2. Pulmonary artery HTN! and HTN
  3. Renal disease

start on ACEi

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16
Q

What IL is triggered in sepsis causing hypotension?

A

IL-1 - causes big vasodilation and fever

17
Q

WHat is the most common manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

pericarditis

myocarditis also assoc.

18
Q

Management of PMR
1.

what marker is rained and what is not raised?

A

prednisolone e.g. 15mg/od
patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis

ESR increased
CK NOT raised, EMG normal

19
Q

SLE management

Basics (2)

Med-

if internal organ involvement (2 options)

A

NSAIDs
sun-block

HYDROXYCHLOROQUINE!

Internal
- prednisolone
- cyclophosphamide

20
Q

Anti-citrullinated protein antibody is for?

A

highly specific test for rheumatoid arthritis

21
Q

Ank Spond- How many different NSAID drugs must this patient have failed to respond to before anti-TNF alpha inhibitors- if predominantly axial!!

A

2

22
Q

what blood test/ condition is a risk factor for pseudo-gout

A

Raised calcium, low phosphate and a raised parathyroid hormone which is typical of primary hyperparathyroidism.

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition (CPPD) or pseudogout

23
Q

Chemotherapy patients are at increased risk of what rheumatology condition?

A

Gout- from increased urate production

Cytotoxic drugs cause an increase in the breakdown of cells, releasing products that are degraded into uric acid. Hyperuricaemia is a known risk factor for gout.

24
Q

Which blood test is the best for ruling out SLE

A

ANA- its the most sensitive,most will have

25
Q

What is a difficult situation when prescribing a bisphosphinate? and what should be done?

A

BNF states bisphosphonates are contraindicated if the eGFR is less than 35!! even IV

therefore consider denosumab

26
Q

DEXA scan get T score but also Z score-what does this acocunt for? (3)

A
  • age
  • gender
  • ethnic factors