Cardiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Management of aortic dissection

-

-
- eg of drug

A

Stanford Type A- ascending aorta (2/3 of cases)

surgical management, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg whilst awaiting intervention

Stanford Type B- descending aorta, distal to left subclavian origin (1/3 cases)

conservative management
bed rest
reduce blood pressure IV labetalol to prevent progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Investigations in aortic dissection

CXR what do you see?

If stable-
- key finding:

If unstable-

A

CXR- Widen mediastrinum

If stable- CT angiography of the chest, abdomen and pelvis
- key finding: false lumen is a key finding in diagnosing

If unstable- Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management steps of HF

First line

Second Line
Remember adding this can cause…
Can add in….

Third line (4 med options)
a- criteria (2)
b- criteria (1)
c- especially in who?
d- especially in who?

1 non-medical option!! criteria (1)

A

First line: ACEi + B-blocker

Second Line: + Sprinolactone
Hyperkalaemia: Because ACEi and Sprinolactone are K+ sparing
Add in… SGLT2 Inhib -flozins

Third line (4 options)
a) Ivabradine
criteria: sinus rhythm > 75/min and a left ventricular fraction < 35%

b) sacubitril-valsartan
criteria: left ventricular fraction < 35%
is considered in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction who are symptomatic on ACE inhibitors or ARBs
should be initiated following ACEi or ARB wash-out period

c) digoxin
digoxin has also not been proven to reduce mortality in patients with heart failure. It may however improve symptoms due to its inotropic properties
it is strongly indicated if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation

d) hydralazine in combination with nitrate
this may be particularly indicated in Afro-Caribbean patients

cardiac resynchronisation therapy
indications include a widened QRS (e.g. left bundle branch block) complex on ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stable patient, AF with a broad complex tachy will indicate what?

A

Atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block is the most likely cause of an irregular broad complex tachycardia in a stable patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

STEMI criteria - 2 continuous/ adjacent leads with…

A
  1. > 2.5mm (2.5 small sqaures) ST elev. in leads V2-V3 in men < 40years or 2mm ST elev in V2-3 in men. 40 years
  2. 1.5 mm elev in V2-3 in women
  3. 1mm ST elev in other leads
  4. new LBBB (WiLLiaM- V1 W, V6- M)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

other cause of increased pro-BNP other than HF?

A

Renal dysfunction (eGFR < 60) can cause a raised serum natriuretic peptides

if no HF signs and poor CKD then it’ll be the CKD and breathlessness will be anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Talk through how you interpret and ECG: 11 steps and their lengths

A
  1. Patient details
  2. Rate
  3. Rhythm- irreg or reg?
  4. Sinus- p waves and QRS following
  5. Anything grossly abnormal- ST elevation
  6. Axis deviation
  7. PR interval (0.12- 0.2s therefore 3-5 squares!)
  8. QRS (< 3 small sqaures 0.12s)
  9. ST segment
  10. QT interval- 0.4s (10 small squares)
  11. T wave inversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what class is carvediol?

What is the rule for adding sprinolcatone or a/B-blocker in HTN?

A

Beta blocker

K + < 4.5 - sprinolcaonte
K + > 4.5 - alph or beta block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Side effect of b blocker-

What anti-anginal drug can cause perforated GU ulcers?

A

B-blocker = E.D (cock blocker)

Nicorandil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Half life of adenosine

A

10s therefore SE are quick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of Wolf-Park White

definitive-

medical (3 options)

A

Def- radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway

medical
- sotalol***, amiodarone, flecainide
sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as prolonging the refractory period at the AV node may increase the rate of transmission through the accessory pathway, increasing the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Infective endocarditis
what valve affected the most?

Rheumatic fever

A

IE
- If IV drug user- Tricuspid
- If previously normal valves then Mitral

Rh- Mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bradycardia peri-arrest management
1. 1st line
2. can repeat up to..
3.
4.
5. specialist advice for…

A
  1. 1st line- Atropine 500mcg IV
  2. repeat up to 3mg
  3. Transcutaneous pacing/ external pacing
  4. Adrenaline/ isoprenaline IV
  5. Specialist advuse for transvenous pacing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ADENOSINE

how does adenosine have to be given?
1.
2
3. with…

avoid in (1 and why?)

what drug enhances it?
what drug blocks it?

What is the MOA of the drug and what receptor does it act on?

-
-

A

large calibre (16G) or central route
give over 2 seconds followed by 30ml NaCl 0.9% or can be diluted with NaCl

avoid:
-asthmatics due to bronchospasm

enhances- dipyridamole (anti-platelet)
blocks- theophylline

MOA
- Agonist of A1 receptor in AVN and induces a temporary heart block in AVN

Side effects:
- flushing
- chest pain/ SOB/ impeding doom
- bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Investigations of stable angina

1st
2nd
3rd

examples of 2nd line (2/4)

A

1st- CT contrast coronary angio
2nd - non-invasive functional imaging
3rd - invasive coronary angiography

non-invasive functional
1. myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with SPECT)

  1. stress echo
  2. first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion or
  3. MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aortic stenosis

symptomatic relief with…

what is contraindicated and why?

A

Symp- furosamide

CI- nitrates due to theoretical risk of profound hypotension

17
Q

Long QT syndrome is due to what?
what is a normal QT interval?

what can it lead to? (2)

features/ staging?
Long QT1
Long QT 2
Long QT 3

A

usually due to loss-of-function/blockage of K+ channels

430ms - female 450ms- males

  • VT
  • Tosardes de pointes and death

Long QT1- syncope during exercise
Long QT 2- syncope during emotional stress, auditory or exercise
Long QT 3 - syncope at rest/ night

18
Q

Long QT syndrome

management
- avoid…
- med =
- if high risk-

A

management
- avoid… strenuous exercise also sotolol may exacerbate
- med = B-blocker
- if high risk- implant cardioverter defib

19
Q

Drugs which can cause long QT syndrome
1.
2 psych class
3. psych class
4. psych example
5. drugy
6. abx
7.
8.sickly

A
  1. 1a antiarrythmias- amioderone, sotolol
  2. TCA
  3. SSRI esp. citalopram
  4. Methadone
  5. Chloroquine
  6. Erythromycin
  7. Haloperidol
  8. Ondasteron (5- HT3 serotonin for antiemetic)
20
Q

statins and what other drug is a common interection to raise CK?

A

Statins + erythromycin/clarithromycin - an important and common interaction

it induces a myopathy

21
Q

MOA of fondiparinux

A

Activates antithrombin III (similar to LMWH)

22
Q

Levine Scale: for murmurs
Grade 1 -
Grade 2 -
Grade 3 -
Grade 4 -
Grade 5 -
Grade 6 -

A

Levine Scale:
Grade 1 - Very faint murmur, frequently overlooked
Grade 2 - Slight murmur
Grade 3 - Moderate murmur without palpable thrill
Grade 4 - Loud murmur with palpable thrill
Grade 5 - Very loud murmur with extremely palpable thrill. Can be heard with stethoscope edge
Grade 6 - Extremely loud murmur - can be heard without stethoscope touching the chest wall

23
Q

dose for statin

atorvastatin primary prevention dose-

secondary prevention dose-

A

primary- 20mg

secondary- (After MI) - 80mg

24
Q

MOA of alteplase

A

activates plasminogen to form plasmin

25
Q

If somone is >80 and has stage 1 HTN which is…. then what should the management be?

stage 2 =

A

ABPM reading of >= 135/85 mmHg

just advise lifestyle changes

stage 2 = >= 150/95 mmHg

26
Q

how many days before surgery should you stop warfarin?

A

5 days and once INR < 1.5 then can start

27
Q

Do you need to anticoag someone new onset acute AF < 48hrs?

A

YES! always anticoag

28
Q

Bumetanide class?
What electrolyte abnormality can it cause?

A

Loop diuretic
hypokalaemia

29
Q

What murmur is associated with tertiary cardiovascular syphilis and rheumatoid arthritis.

how can you tell the difference between aortic and mitral diastolic murmurs?

A

Aortic Regurg- early diastolic murmur

syphilitic aortitis

mitral sten- low-pitched mid diastolic
aortic regurg- high-pitched early diastolic

30
Q

what investigations do you need to do before starting someone on amioderone and why?

when do you reg and what do you check?

A

TFT- hypo and hyperthyroidism
CXR- pulmonary fibrosis (lower zone)
LFT- liver fibrosis
U+E- check for hypokalaemia which can increase arrythmia risk

TFT and LFT every 6 months

31
Q

Aortic stenosis mangement criteria (2)

A
  1. > 40mmHg
    or
  2. Symptomatic
32
Q

what vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus and is sometimes used for a venous cut down (IV access when awaiting interossious)

A

long saphenous vein

33
Q

what do you with anti-coag if Well’s is <= 4 and d-dimer is negative

A

stop the anti-coag
consider alternative diag

34
Q

how can you differentiate pericarditis and myocarditits from history and investigations (3)

  • both pleuritic chest pain
  • both have viral flu-like prodrome
  • both pain worse on laying down
A

Myocarditis
- left ventricular dysfunction S+S (bibasal crackles)
- troponin more likley to be raised
- focal ECG changes (ST just v1-v4 in Q)
Peri
- global ECG ST elevation

35
Q

PE what do you see on ABG and why?

A

Resp alkalosis
- hyperventilate and drop CO2

36
Q

which out of left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect cause acute mitral regurg murmur?

A

Vent septal defect- caused by papillary muscle rupture

presents with acute heart failure and a pan-systolic murmur.

free wall causes cardiac tamponade

ie raised JVP/muffled heart sounds, pulsens alternans