rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

what is psoriatic arthropathy?

A

Psoriatic arthropathy is an inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis and is classed as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies. It correlates poorly with cutaneous psoriasis and often precedes the development of skin lesions. Around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions develop an arthropathy with males and females being equally affected.

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2
Q

How doe psoriatic arthropathy present?

A

symmetric polyarthritis - very similar to rheumatoid arthritis, 30-40% of cases, most common type

asymmetrical oligoarthritis: typically affects hands and feet (20-30%)
until recently it was thought asymmetrical oligoarthritis was the most common type, based on data from the original 1973 Moll and Wright paper. Please see the link for a comparison of more recent studies

sacroiliitis

DIP joint disease (10%)

arthritis mutilans (severe deformity fingers/hand, ‘telescoping fingers’)

Other signs
psoriatic skin lesions
periarticular disease - tenosynovitis and soft tissue inflammation resulting in:
- enthesitis: inflammation at the site of tendon and ligament insertion e.g. Achilles tendonitis, plantar fascitis
- tenosynovitis: typically of the flexor tendons of the hands
- dactylitis: diffuse swelling of a finger or toe
nail changes - pitting, onycholysis

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3
Q

how do you investigate psoriatic arthritis?

A

Bloods
CRP/ESR elevated given the inflammatory nature
being a seronegative spondyloarthropathies, rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP) are negative

XRay
often have the unusual combination of coexistence of erosive changes and new bone formation
periostitis
‘pencil-in-cup’ appearance

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4
Q

how is psoriatic arthritis managed?

A

managed by a rheumatologist

mild peripheral arthritis/mild axial disease - NSAID

moderate severe disease - methotrexate

use of monoclonal antibodies such as ustekinumab (targets both IL-12 and IL-23) and secukinumab (targets IL-17)
apremilast: phosphodiesterase type-4 (PDE4) inhibitor → suppression of pro-inflammatory mediator synthesis and promotion of anti-inflammatory mediators
has a better prognosis than RA

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5
Q

what is hydroxychloroquine used for?

A

Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus.

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6
Q

what are the adverse effects of hydroxychloroquine?

A

bull’s eye retinopathy - may result in severe and permanent visual loss

retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula
baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening is generally recommened

‘Ask patient about visual symptoms and monitor visual acuity annually using the standard reading chart’

**hydroxychloroquine is one of the medications used in rheumatology that can be given to pregnant woman

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7
Q

what is Paget’s disease?

A

Paget’s disease is a disease of increased but uncontrolled bone turnover. It is thought to be primarily a disorder of osteoclasts, with excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Paget’s disease is common (UK prevalence 5%) but symptomatic in only 1 in 20 patients. The skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities are most commonly affected.

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8
Q

what are predisposing factors for pagets disease?

A

increasing age
male sex
northern latitude
family history

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9
Q

what are the clinical features of Paget’s disease?

A

Clinical features - only 5% of patients are symptomatic
the stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP
bone pain (e.g. pelvis, lumbar spine, femur)
classical, untreated features: bowing of tibia, bossing of skull

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10
Q

what are the investigations for paget’s disease?

A

Bloods - isolated ALP rise (calcium and phosphate typically normal)

Other markers of bone turnover
procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP)
serum C-telopeptide (CTx)
urinary N-telopeptide (NTx)
urinary hydroxyproline

Xrays
osteolysis in early disease → mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later
skull x-ray: thickened vault, osteoporosis circumscripta

Bone scintigraphy - increase uptake is seen focally at the sites of active bone lesions

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11
Q

what are the complications of Paget’s disease?

A

deafness (cranial nerve entrapment)
bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years)
fractures
skull thickening
high-output cardiac failure

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12
Q

what is osteomalacia?

A

Osteomalacia describes softening of the bones secondary to low vitamin D levels that in turn lead to decreased bone mineral content. If this occurs in growing children it is referred to as rickets, with the term osteomalacia preferred for adults.

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13
Q

what are the causes of osteomalacia?

A

vitamin D deficiency - malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet
chronic kidney disease
drug induced e.g. anticonvulsants
inherited: hypophosphatemic rickets (previously called vitamin D-resistant rickets)
liver disease: e.g. cirrhosis
coeliac disease

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14
Q

What are the features of osteomalacia?

A

bone pain
bone/muscle tenderness
fractures: especially femoral neck
proximal myopathy: may lead to a waddling gait

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15
Q

what are the investigations for osteomalacia>

A

bloods
low vitamin D levels
low calcium, phosphate (in around 30%)
raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients)

x-ray
translucent bands (Looser’s zones or pseudofractures)

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16
Q

how is osteomalacia managed?

A

vitamin D supplmentation
a loading dose is often needed initially
calcium supplementation if dietary calcium is inadequate

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17
Q

what is Familial mediterranean fever?

A

Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF, also known as recurrent polyserositis) is an autosomal recessive disorder which typically presents by the second decade. It is more common in people of Turkish, Armenian and Arabic descent.

FMF is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent episodes of fever and serositis (inflammation of the lining of the abdomen, chest, or joints).

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18
Q

what are the features and management of familial mediterranean fever?

A

Features - attacks typically last 1-3 days
pyrexia
abdominal pain (due to peritonitis)
pleurisy
pericarditis
arthritis
erysipeloid rash on lower limbs

Management
colchicine may help

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19
Q

what is osteopetrosis?

A

also known as marble bone disease
rare disorder of defective osteoclast function resulting in failure of normal bone resorption
results in dense, thick bones that are prone to fracture
bone pains and neuropathies are common.
calcium, phosphate and ALP are normal
stem cell transplant and interferon-gamma have been used for treatment

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20
Q

How is Rheumatoid arthritis managed?

A

Initial therapy - DMARD mono therapy +/ a short course of bridging therapy

Monitoring response to treatment
NICE recommends using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28) to assess response to treatment

Flares - flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroid

TNF inhibits - indicated when there is inadequate response to at least 2 DMARDs including methotrexate (entanjrcept, infliximab, adalimumab)

Rituximab
anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody, results in B-cell depletion
two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart
infusion reactions are common

Abatacept
fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes
leads to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production
given as an infusion
not currently recommend by NICE

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21
Q

What are the DMARD monotherpay that can be given in RA?

A

methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis
sulfasalazine
leflunomide
hydroxychloroquine: should only be considered for initial therapy if mild or palindromic disease

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22
Q

what is dermatomyositis?

A

an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness and characteristic skin lesions
may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancy (typically ovarian, breast and lung cancer, found in 20-25% - more if patient older). Screening for an underlying malignancy is usually performed following a diagnosis of dermatomyositis
polymyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are not prominent

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23
Q

what are the features of dermatomyositis?

A

Skin features
photosensitive
macular rash over back and shoulder
heliotrope rash in the periorbital region
Gottron’s papules - roughened red papules over extensor surfaces of fingers
‘mechanic’s hands’: extremely dry and scaly hands with linear ‘cracks’ on the palmar and lateral aspects of the fingers
nail fold capillary dilatation

Other features
proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness
Raynaud’s
respiratory muscle weakness
interstitial lung disease: e.g. Fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia
dysphagia, dysphonia

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24
Q

how do you investigate dermatomyositis?

A

elevated creatinne kinase
EMG
muscle biopsy
ANA positive in 60%
anti-Mi-2 antibodies are highly specific for dermatomyositis, but are only seen in around 25% of patients
anti-Jo-1 antibodies are not commonly seen in dermatomyositis - they are more common in polymyositis where they are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever

the majority of patients (around 80%) are ANA positive
around 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (anti-synthetase antibodies), including:
antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1)
antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP)
anti-Mi-2 antibodies

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25
how is dermatomyositis managed?
Prednisolone
26
what is pseudoxanthoma elastic?
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum is an inherited condition (usually autosomal recessive*) characterised by an abnormality in elastic fibres
27
what are the features of pseudoxanthoma elasticum?
retinal angioid streaks 'plucked chicken skin' appearance - small yellow papules on the neck, antecubital fossa and axillae cardiac: mitral valve prolapse, increased risk of ischaemic heart disease gastrointestinal haemorrhage
28
what is Marfan's?
Marfan's is an AD connective tissue disorder It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15 that codes for protein fibrillin-1. It affects around 1 in 3000 people?
29
what are the features of Marfan's syndrome?
tall stature with arm span to height ratio > 1.05 high-arched palate arachnodactyly pectus excavatum pes planus scoliosis of > 20 degrees heart: > dilation of the aortic sinuses (seen in 90%) which may lead to aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection, aortic regurgitation > mitral valve prolapse (75%), lungs: repeated pneumothoraces eyes: > upwards lens dislocation (superotemporal ectopia lentis) > blue sclera > myopia dural ectasia (ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level)
30
what is gout?
Gout is a form of microcrystal synovitis caused by the deposition of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. It is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia (uric acid > 450 µmol/l)
30
what is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?
Staph. aureus is the most common cause except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate
31
what are the indications for urate-lowering therapy in gout?
ULT is particularly recommended if: >= 2 attacks in 12 months tophi renal disease uric acid renal stones prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics
32
How is gout managed?
NSAIDs Colchicine oral steroids if NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated * if patient is already taking allopurinol it should continued Urate lowering therapy - allopurinol 1st line 2nd line when allopurinol is not tolerated or ineffective is febuxostat (also a xanthine oxidase inhibitor) In refractory cases other agent may be tired - uricase - pegolticase
33
what lifestyle modifications should be made in gout?
reduce alcohol intake and avoid during an acute attack lose weight if obese avoid food high in purines e.g. Liver, kidneys, seafood, oily fish (mackerel, sardines) and yeast products consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs (such as thiazides) losartan has a specific uricosuric action and may be particularly suitable for the many patients who have coexistent hypertension increased vitamin C intake (either supplements or through normal diet) may also decrease serum uric acid levels
34
which medications used in IBD are safe in pregnancy ?
Azathioprine, mesalazine and sulfasalazine (with folic acid) are safe to use in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
35
what is azathioprine?
Azathioprine is metabolised to the active compound mercaptopurine, a purine analogue that inhibits purine synthesis. A thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) test may be needed to look for individuals prone to azathioprine toxicity.
36
what are the adverse effects of azathioprine?
bone marrow depression - consider a full blood count if infection/bleeding occurs nausea/vomiting pancreatitis increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer
37
what is systemic sclerosis?
Systemic sclerosis is a condition of unknown aetiology characterised by hardened, sclerotic skin and other connective tissues. It is four times more common in females.
38
what are the different patterns of systemic sclerosis?
Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis Raynaud's may be the first sign scleroderma affects face and distal limbs predominately associated with anti-centromere antibodies a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis is CREST syndrome: Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis scleroderma affects trunk and proximal limbs predominately associated with anti scl-70 antibodies the most common cause of death is now respiratory involvement, which is seen in around 80%: interstitial lung disease (ILD) and pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) other complications include renal disease and hypertension patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor poor prognosis Scleroderma (without internal organ involvement) tightening and fibrosis of skin may be manifest as plaques (morphoea) or linear
39
what antibiodies are seen in systemic sclerosis?
ANA positive in 90% RF positive in 30% anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis associated with a higher risk of severe interstitial lung disease anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
40
what is the most common cause of death in systemic sclerosis?
respiratory involvement: interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension
41
what is Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
a rare disorder characterised by the proliferation of Langerhans cells, which are specialised dendritic cells that normally function to present antigen to T lymphocytes. The disease can affect multiple organs, including the bones, skin, lungs, and endocrine system. It is notable for its variable clinical presentation, ranging from isolated bone lesions to multisystem disease.
42
what are the features of Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
bone pain, typically in the skull or proximal femur cutaneous nodules pituitary involvement: leads to diabetes insipidus due to pituitary stalk involvement pulmonary involvement: More common in adults, presenting with dyspnoea, cough, and chest pain recurrent otitis media/mastoiditis tennis racket-shaped Birbeck granules on electromicroscopy
43
How is Langerhans cell histiocytosis diagnosed?
biopsy: confirmation is through biopsy showing Langerhans cells with characteristic grooved nuclei and positive staining for CD1a and S100 protein imaging: radiographs and MRI for bone lesions; CT may be used for chest and abdominal involvement
44
How is Langerhans celll histiocytosis managed?
localized disease: surgical resection or limited radiotherapy for isolated lesions. multisystem disease: systemic therapy including steroids, chemotherapy (e.g., vinblastine, cytarabine), and targeted therapies for refractory cases. supportive care: management of diabetes insipidus, pain control, and treatment of secondary infections.
45
Adhesive cpsulitis vs rotator cuff?
Adhesive capsulitis: external rotation Rotator cuff: Abduction, Adduction, medial and lateral rotation
46
what can be helpful in stimulatin saliva production in Sjogrens's
Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors to increase saliva production.
47
which drug significantly interacts with azathioprine?
A significant interaction may occur with allopurinol and hence lower doses of azathioprine should be used.
48
Is azathioprine safe in pregnancy?
Azathioprine is generally considered safe to use in pregnancy.
49
What is the minimum steroid intake a patient should be taking before they are offered osteoporosis prophylaxis?
Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months.
50
What nerve is affected in meralgia paraesthetica?
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN)
51
What type of neuropathy is meralgia paraesthetica?
Entrapment mononeuropathy of the LFCN
52
What are common causes of meralgia paraesthetica?
Iatrogenic causes, surgical procedures, or neuromas
53
From which spinal segments does the LFCN primarily originate?
L2/3 segments
54
What is the primary function of the LFCN?
Sensory nerve, carrying no motor fibres
55
Describe the anatomical course of the LFCN.
Passes behind the psoas muscle, runs beneath the iliac fascia, exits through or under the inguinal ligament
56
What is a common anatomical site where the LFCN may be compressed?
Around the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) ## Footnote Compression of this nerve anywhere along its course can lead to the development of meralgia paraesthetica.
57
What age group is most commonly affected by meralgia paraesthetica?
People aged between 30 and 40
58
Is meralgia paraesthetica more common in men or women?
More common in men
59
Which population is more likely to experience meralgia paraesthetica?
Those with diabetes
60
List some risk factors for meralgia paraesthetica.
* Obesity * Pregnancy * Tense ascites * Trauma * Iatrogenic causes * Various sports activities
61
What are typical symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica?
* Burning * Tingling * Coldness * Shooting pain * Numbness * Deep muscle ache
62
How are symptoms typically aggravated in patients with meralgia paraesthetica?
Aggravated by standing, relieved by sitting
63
What physical sign can reproduce symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica?
Deep palpation just below the ASIS (pelvic compression)
64
What is the characteristic sensory change in meralgia paraesthetica?
Altered sensation over the upper lateral aspect of the thigh
65
What test is highly sensitive for diagnosing meralgia paraesthetica?
Pelvic compression test
66
What effect does injecting local anaesthetic into the LFCN have?
Abolishes the pain
67
What additional diagnostic tool may be useful in meralgia paraesthetica?
Nerve conduction studies
68
How does radial tunnel syndrome present?
Key features are tenderness maximal at a point 5cm distal to the lateral epicondyle, and the pain is worse on forearm pronation. Pronation of the forearm can increase tension in the radial tunnel and exacerbate nerve compression - a finding characteristic of radial tunnel syndrome.
69
What is lateral epicodylitis?
Lateral epicondylitis typically follows unaccustomed activity such as house painting or playing tennis ('tennis elbow'). It is most common in people aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm.
70
Features of lateral epicondylitis?
pain and tenderness localised to the lateral epicondyle pain worse on wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years. Patients tend to have acute pain for 6-12 weeks
71
Management of lateral epicodylitis?
advice on avoiding muscle overload simple analgesia steroid injection physiotherapy
72
What are the features of medial epicodylitis?
Golfer's elbow pain and tenderness localised to the medial epicondyle pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation symptoms may be accompanied by numbness / tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement
73
What is cubital tunnel syndrome?
Due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Features initially intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods later numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness
74
What is Olecranon bursitis?
Swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow. There may be associated pain, warmth and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.
75
RA and pregnancy...
Methotrexate needs to be stopped 6 months before concepion leflunomide is not safe in pregnancy sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe in pregnancy Low dose steroids may be used to control symptoms NSAIDs may be used until 32 weeks but after this time should be withdrawn due to the risk of early close of the ductus arteriosus patients should be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation
76
What are the features of drug-induced lupus?
In drug-induced lupus not all the typical features of systemic lupus erythematosus are seen, with renal and nervous system involvement being unusual. It usually resolves on stopping the drug. Features arthralgia myalgia skin (e.g. malar rash) and pulmonary involvement (e.g. pleurisy) are common ANA positive in 100%, dsDNA negative anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% anti-Ro, anti-Smith positive in around 5%
77
Causes of drug induced lupus?
Most common causes procainamide hydralazine Less common causes isoniazid minocycline phenytoin
78
What is acrocyanosis?
Acrocyanosis is characterised by persistent cyanosis of the extremities, usually in response to cold exposure. It involves a bluish discolouration of the hands, feet, or face without the pain, numbness, or the episodic nature seen in Raynaud’s phenomenon.
79
Raynaud's phenomenon?
Raynaud's phenomenon is characterised by an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response of the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole to the cold or emotional stress. It may be primary (Raynaud's disease) or secondary (Raynaud's phenomenon). Raynaud's disease typically presents in young women (e.g. 30 years old) with bilateral symptoms.
80
Seconday casues of Raynaud's phenomenon?
* connective tissue disorders scleroderma (most common) rheumatoid arthritis systemic lupus erythematosus * leukaemia * type I cryoglobulinaemia, cold agglutinins * use of vibrating tools * drugs: oral contraceptive pill, ergot * cervical rib
81
What factors would suggest underlying connective tissue disease in Raynauds?
onset after 40 years unilateral symptoms rashes presence of autoantibodies features which may suggest rheumatoid arthritis or SLE, for example arthritis or recurrent miscarriages digital ulcers, calcinosis very rarely: chilblains
82
Management of Raynaud's?
all patients with suspected secondary Raynaud's phenomenon should be referred to secondary care first-line: calcium channel blockers e.g. nifedipine IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions: effects may last several weeks/months
83
General features of SLE?
fatigue fever mouth ulcers lymphadenopathy
84
Features of SLE in the skin?
malar (butterfly) rash: spares nasolabial folds discoid rash: scaly, erythematous, well demarcated rash in sun-exposed areas. Lesions may progress to become pigmented and hyperkeratotic before becoming atrophic photosensitivity Raynaud's phenomenon livedo reticularis non-scarring alopecia
85
MSK features of SLE?
arthralgia non-erosive arthritis
86
CV features of SLE?
pericarditis: the most common cardiac manifestation myocarditis
86
Respiratory features of SLE?
pleurisy fibrosing alveolitis
87
Renal features of SLE?
proteinuria glomerulonephritis (diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common type)
88
Neuro features of SLE?
anxiety and depression psychosis seizures
89
90
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Compression of median nerve in the carpal tunnel
91
What are common symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Pain/pins and needles in thumb, index, middle finger ## Footnote Symptoms may 'ascend' proximally and patients often shake their hands for relief, especially at night.
92
What is a classic sign of carpal tunnel syndrome that involves hand movement?
Patient shakes his hand to obtain relief, classically at night
93
What examination finding indicates weakness in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis)
94
What muscle wasting is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Wasting of thenar eminence (NOT hypothenar)
95
What does Tinel's sign indicate in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Tapping causes paraesthesia
96
What does Phalen's sign indicate in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Flexion of wrist causes symptoms
97
What are some causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Idiopathic Pregnancy Oedema (e.g. heart failure) Lunate fracture Rheumatoid arthritis
98
What is the electrophysiological finding in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Prolongation of the action potential
99
management of carpal tunnel syndrome?
NICE recommends a 6-week trial of conservative treatments if the symptoms are mild-moderate corticosteroid injection wrist splints at night: particularly useful if transient factors present e.g. pregnancy if there are severe symptoms or symptoms persist with conservative management: surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division)
100
clinical features of cubital tunnel syndrome?
**Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs due to compression of the ulnar nerve as it passes through the cubital tunnel. Tingling and numbness of the 4th and 5th finger which starts off intermittent and then becomes constant. Over time patients may also develop weakness and muscle wasting Pain worse on leaning on the affected elbow Often a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area. ## Footnote Investigations the diagnosis is usually clinical however, in selected cases nerve conduction studies may be used
101
Management of cubital tunnel syndrome?
Avoid aggravating activity Physiotherapy Steroid injections Surgery in resistant cases
102
What is Antiphospholipid syndrome?
Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired disorder characterised by a predisposition to both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss and thrombocytopenia. It may occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, most commonly systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Around 30% of patients with SLE have positive antiphospholipid antibodies. A key point for the exam is to appreciate that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical rise in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.
103
Features of antiphospholipid syndrome?
venous/arterial thrombosis recurrent miscarriages livedo reticularis other features: pre-eclampsia, pulmonary hypertension
104
Investigations for anti-phospholipid syndrome?
** anticardiolipin antibodies anti-beta2 glycoprotein I (anti-beta2GPI) antibodies lupus anticoagulant** thrombocytopenia prolonged APTT
105
Diagnostic criteria for anti-phospholipid syndrome?
Clinical criteria (at least one must be met): ≥1 clinical episode of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis (confirmed by imaging or histopathology) Pregnancy morbidity: three or more consecutive, unexplained spontaneous abortions <10 weeks, or ≥1 unexplained fetal loss ≥10 weeks, or ≥1 preterm birth <34 weeks due to placental insufficiency Laboratory criteria (at least one must be met on ≥2 occasions at least 12 weeks apart): Lupus anticoagulant (LA) Anticardiolipin (aCL) antibodies Anti-beta2 glycoprotein I (anti-β2GP1) antibodies
106
Management of antiphospholipid syndrome?
Primary thromobopropylaxis - low dose aspirin, consider LMWH Secondary thromboprophylaxis - lifelong warfarin INR 2-3 recurrent venous thromboembolic events: lifelong warfarin; if occurred whilst taking warfarin then consider adding low-dose aspirin, increase target INR to 3-4 arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with target INR 2-3 Pregnancy - low dose aspirin with LMWH
107
What is the greatest predictor of future thrombosis in patients with anti-phospholipid syndrome?
Lupus anticogulant
108
What rules can be used when deciding if a patient needs XR following ankle injury?
Ottawa rules An ankle x-ray is required only if there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone (from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of posterior border of the fibular) bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone (from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia) -inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department
109
Management of SLE?
Basics NSAIDs sun-block Hydroxychloroquine the treatment of choice for SLE If internal organ involvement e.g. renal, neuro, eye then consider prednisolone, cyclophosphamide
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RA XR findings?
Early x-ray findings loss of joint space juxta-articular osteoporosis soft-tissue swelling periarticular erosions subluxation
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XR findings in OA RA Gout Ankylosing sponylitis Psoriatic arthritis
Osteoarthritis *- Joint space narrowing, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. Rheumatoid arthritis * Early x-ray findings: loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, soft-tissue swelling * Late x-ray findings: periarticular erosions, subluxation Gout * Soft tissue swelling, punched-out bone lesions and overhanging sclerotic margins. Ankylosing spondylitis * Sacroiliitis: subchondral erosions, sclerosis * - Syndesmophytes: due to ossification of outer fibers of annulus fibrosus * - Squaring of lumbar vertebrae * - 'Bamboo spine' (late & uncommon) * - Chest x-ray: apical fibrosis Psoriatic arthritis * - Often have the unusual combination of coexistence of erosive changes and new bone formation * - Periostitis * - 'Pencil-in-cup' appearance
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What is Sulfasalazine?
Sulfasalazine is a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARDs) used in the management of inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis. It is also used in the management of inflammatory bowel disease.
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How does sulfasalzine work?
Sulfasalazine is a prodrug for 5-ASA which works through decreasing neutrophil chemotaxis alongside suppressing proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
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What are the cautions when using sulfasalazine?
Cautions G6PD deficiency allergy to aspirin or sulphonamides (cross-sensitivity)
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Adverse effects to sulfasalazine?
oligospermia Stevens-Johnson syndrome pneumonitis / lung fibrosis myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia may colour tears → stained contact lenses ## Footnote In contrast to other DMARDs, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use in both pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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What is avascular necrosis of the hip?
Avascular necrosis (AVN) may be defined as death of bone tissue secondary to loss of the blood supply. This leads to bone destruction and loss of joint function. It most commonly affects the epiphysis of long bones such as the femur.
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Causes of avascular necrosis?
long-term steroid use chemotherapy alcohol excess trauma
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Features of avascular necrosis of the hip?
initially asymptomatic pain in the affected joint
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Investigtions for avascular necrosis of the hip?
plain x-ray findings may be normal initially osteopenia and microfractures may be seen early on collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign MRI is the investigation of choice it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning
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what is T and Z score in DEXA scans?
Basics T score: based on bone mass of young reference population T score of -1.0 means bone mass of one standard deviation below that of young reference population Z score is adjusted for age, gender and ethnic factors T score > -1.0 = normal -1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia < -2.5 = osteoporosis
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what is lumbar spine stenosis?
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition in which the central canal is narrowed by tumour, disk prolapse or other similar degenerative changes.
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Symptoms of lumbar spine stenosis?
Patients may present with a combination of back pain, neuropathic pain and symptoms mimicking claudication. One of the main features that may help to differentiate it from true claudication in the history is the positional element to the pain. Sitting is better than standing and patients may find it easier to walk uphill rather than downhill. The neurogenic claudication type history makes lumbar spinal stenosis a likely underlying diagnosis, the absence of such symptoms makes it far less likely.
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Pathophysiology of lumbar spine stenosis?
Degenerative disease is the commonest underlying cause. Degeneration is believed to begin in the intervertebral disk where biochemical changes such as cell death and loss of proteoglycan and water content lead to progressive disk bulging and collapse. This process leads to an increased stress transfer to the posterior facet joints, which accelerates cartilaginous degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation; this is associated with thickening and distortion of the ligamentum flavum. The combination of the ventral disk bulging, osteophyte formation at the dorsal facet, and ligamentum flavum hyptertrophy combine to circumferentially narrow the spinal canal and the space available for the neural elements. The compression of the nerve roots of the cauda equina leads to the characteristic clinical signs and symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
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Diagnosis and treatment of lumbar spine stenosis?
Diagnosis MRI scanning is the best modality for demonstrating the canal narrowing. Historically a bicycle test was used as true vascular claudicants could not complete the test. Treatment Laminectomy
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What is Familial mediterranean fever?
Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF, also known as recurrent polyserositis) is an autosomal recessive disorder which typically presents by the second decade. It is more common in people of Turkish, Armenian and Arabic descent.
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Features and management of familial mediterranean fever?
Features - attacks typically last 1-3 days pyrexia abdominal pain (due to peritonitis) pleurisy pericarditis arthritis erysipeloid rash on lower limbs Management colchicine may help
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What is seen on fundoscopy in anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy?
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy - fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins
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What is seen on fundoscopy in retinal vein occlusion
fundoscopy would show dilated, tortuous veins, 'cotton wool spots' and 'flame haemorrhages'.
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what is discoid lupus?
Discoid lupus erythematosus is a benign disorder generally seen in younger females. It very rarely progresses to systemic lupus erythematosus (in less than 5% of cases). Discoid lupus erythematosus is characterised by follicular keratin plugs and is thought to be autoimmune in aetiology
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Features of discoid lupus?
erythematous, raised rash, sometimes scaly may be photosensitive more common on face, neck, ears and scalp lesions heal with atrophy, scarring (may cause scarring alopecia), and pigmentation
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Management of discoid lupus?
topical steroid cream oral antimalarials may be used second-line e.g. hydroxychloroquine avoid sun exposure
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What is Leflunomide ?
Leflunomide is a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) mainly used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a very long half-life which should be remembered considering it's teratogenic potential.
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Contraindications fo rleflunomide?
pregnancy - the BNF advises: 'Effective contraception essential during treatment and for at least 2 years after treatment in women and at least 3 months after treatment in men (plasma concentration monitoring required' caution should also be exercised with pre-existing lung and liver disease
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Adverse effects of leflunomide?
gastrointestinal, especially diarrhoea hypertension weight loss/anorexia peripheral neuropathy myelosuppression pneumonitis
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Monitoring and stopping leflunomide?
Monitoring FBC/LFT and blood pressure Stopping leflunomide has a very long wash-out period of up to a year which requires co-administration of cholestyramine